SSC GD 2026 25 May 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Antonie van Leeuwenhoek — Option (a)
Antonie van Leeuwenhoek (1632–1723) is universally known as the 'Father of Microbiology.' About Antonie van Leeuwenhoek: Born: October 24, 1632, Delft, Netherlands; Died: August 26, 1723; He was a Dutch tradesman and self-taught scientist who developed powerful single-lens microscopes capable of 270x magnification; Key contributions: First person to observe and describe microorganisms (bacteria, protozoa) directly through a microscope (1670s); He called them 'animalcules' (tiny animals); Observed bacteria from dental scrapings; Observed red blood cells, spermatozoa, and muscle fibers; His meticulous microscopy work laid the foundation for the field of microbiology; Elected Fellow of the Royal Society of London (1680) for his extraordinary scientific work; Historical context — Other key figures in microbiology: Robert Hooke (1635-1703): First described cells (in cork) in ' Micrographia ' (1665) — but Leeuwenhoek observed living microorganisms; Louis Pasteur (1822-1895): Known as 'Father of Germ Theory' — disproved spontaneous generation, developed pasteurization and vaccines; Robert Koch (1843-1910): Identified bacteria causing tuberculosis, cholera, anthrax; formulated Koch's Postulates; Edward Jenner (1749-1823): Developed the first vaccine (smallpox), known as 'Father of Immunology'.
Option (b) Louis Pasteur — Incorrect: Louis Pasteur is known as the 'Father of Germ Theory' (not Father of Microbiology); his contributions include pasteurization and vaccines; Antonie van Leeuwenhoek is the Father of Microbiology for being the first to observe microorganisms.
Option (c) Robert Hooke — Incorrect: Robert Hooke is known for his work on cells (coined the term 'cell' in 1665) and is sometimes called the 'Father of Microscopy' — but the title 'Father of Microbiology' belongs to Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.
Option (d) Edward Jenner — Incorrect: Edward Jenner is known as the 'Father of Immunology' for developing the smallpox vaccine in 1796 — not as the Father of Microbiology; Antonie van Leeuwenhoek holds that distinction.

Correct Answer: Forebrain — Option (b)
The Forebrain ( अग्रमस्तिष्क ) is mainly responsible for thinking and other higher cognitive functions. About the human brain structure: The brain is divided into three main regions: Forebrain (Prosencephalon/Anterior Brain): Largest part of the brain; Contains the Cerebrum (largest part), Thalamus, Hypothalamus, and Limbic system; Cerebral cortex (outer layer of cerebrum): Responsible for thinking, reasoning, memory, consciousness, language, decision-making, and voluntary actions; The forebrain controls all higher mental functions; Midbrain (Mesencephalon): Connects forebrain and hindbrain; Involved in visual and auditory reflexes, eye movement, arousal; Hindbrain (Rhombencephalon): Contains the Cerebellum (balance and coordination), Pons (relay station, breathing regulation), and Medulla Oblongata (controls involuntary functions — breathing, heart rate, blood pressure); Spinal Cord: Not part of the brain; it is part of the central nervous system below the brain; Conducts nerve impulses between brain and body; Controls reflex actions; Key functions of Forebrain: Thinking, reasoning, and problem-solving (cerebral cortex); Memory (hippocampus — part of limbic system); Emotions (amygdala — limbic system); Language processing (Broca's area, Wernicke's area); Sensory processing; Voluntary movement control (motor cortex).
Option (a) Midbrain — Incorrect: The Midbrain (Mesencephalon) is primarily involved in processing visual and auditory reflexes, controlling eye movements, and maintaining arousal — it is NOT mainly responsible for thinking; the Forebrain/Cerebrum handles thinking. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Hindbrain — Incorrect: The Hindbrain (containing cerebellum, pons, and medulla) controls balance, coordination, breathing, and involuntary functions — NOT primarily responsible for thinking; thinking is a function of the Forebrain (cerebral cortex).
Option (d) Spinal cord — Incorrect: The Spinal cord is part of the central nervous system but is NOT a part of the brain — it mainly conducts nerve impulses and controls reflex actions; thinking is exclusively a function of the brain's Forebrain (cerebral cortex).

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Both statements about human excretion are correct. Statement I Analysis — 'Kidneys are located on both sides of the backbone in the abdomen' (CORRECT): Humans have two kidneys (bean-shaped organs); They are located in the abdominal cavity on either side of the vertebral column (backbone/spine); Position: Retroperitoneal position (behind the peritoneum) on the posterior wall of the abdomen; The right kidney is slightly lower than the left (due to the liver); Each kidney is approximately 10-12 cm long, 5-6 cm wide, and 3-4 cm thick; Statement II Analysis — 'Urine produced in the kidneys passes through the ureter to the urinary bladder' (CORRECT): The urinary system flow: Kidneys (produce urine) → Ureter (tube from each kidney to bladder) → Urinary Bladder (storage) → Urethra (discharge from body); Each kidney has one ureter (tube) — so two ureters total; Ureters are muscular tubes (25-30 cm long) that carry urine from kidneys to the urinary bladder through peristaltic movements; About kidney function: Main excretory organ in humans; Filters blood to remove waste products (urea, creatinine, excess salts, water); Maintains blood pH and osmotic balance; Produces urine containing urea (main nitrogenous waste), uric acid, and excess minerals.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Both Statement I (kidneys on both sides of backbone) and Statement II (urine passes through ureter to bladder) are anatomically correct; selecting 'Only I' ignores that Statement II is also correct.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Both statements are correct; Statement I accurately describes the location of kidneys, and Statement II correctly describes urine flow through the ureter; 'Only II' is incomplete.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Both statements are factually accurate about human excretion; 'Neither I nor II' is completely incorrect.

Correct Answer: Only II — Option (b)
Only Statement II (Rodents) is a biotic factor responsible for grain storage loss. Understanding Biotic vs Abiotic factors in grain storage: Biotic factors (living organisms): These include insects, rodents, birds, fungi, bacteria, and weeds that cause grain loss; Examples: Weevils, beetles, moth larvae, rats, mice, birds; Rodents (Statement II): Rodents (rats, mice) are a BIOTIC factor — they are living organisms that consume and contaminate stored grain; They cause significant post-harvest losses globally; They spoil grain through direct consumption, urination, feces, and hair contamination; Abiotic factors (non-living): Temperature, moisture/humidity, oxygen levels, physical damage; Inappropriate moisture (Statement I): Moisture/humidity is an ABIOTIC factor — it is a non-living physical condition; High moisture promotes fungal growth (molds) and insect activity, but moisture itself is not a living (biotic) factor; Causes of grain storage loss in India: Biotic: Insects (weevils, beetles), rodents, birds, fungi, bacteria; Abiotic: Temperature, humidity, improper storage infrastructure; India loses approximately 10-15% of stored grain annually due to post-harvest losses; Programs: National Food Security Mission, Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana address such losses.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Inappropriate moisture (Statement I) is an ABIOTIC factor (non-living physical factor), NOT a biotic factor; the biotic factor is rodents (Statement II).
Option (c) Both I and II — Incorrect: Only rodents (Statement II) are biotic — inappropriate moisture (Statement I) is an abiotic (non-living) factor; therefore 'Both I and II' as biotic factors is incorrect. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Rodents (Statement II) ARE a biotic factor responsible for grain storage loss; 'Neither I nor II' is incorrect since Statement II identifies a genuine biotic cause of grain storage loss.

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Both statements about poultry farming are correct. Statement I Analysis — 'Poultry farming is done to raise domestic chickens' (CORRECT): Poultry farming ( कुक्कुट पालन ) IS done primarily to raise domestic chickens (Gallus gallus domesticus ); The term 'poultry' broadly refers to domesticated birds raised for meat, eggs, or feathers — including chickens, ducks, turkeys, geese, quails, and pigeons; Domestic chickens (hens and roosters) are by far the most commonly raised poultry birds in India and globally; Statement II Analysis — 'Poultry production includes egg production and broiler production for poultry meat' (CORRECT): Poultry production has two main segments: Layer Birds (egg production): Female chickens (hens) specially bred for high egg production — called 'layers'; Broiler Birds (meat production): Chickens specially bred for rapid weight gain and meat yield — called 'broilers'; Broilers reach market weight (about 2 kg) in 6-7 weeks; Both segments together constitute India's poultry industry; India's poultry industry: India is the 3rd largest egg producer in the world; Major states: Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu dominate; India has about 700+ million poultry birds; Annual egg production: ~130 billion eggs; Annual chicken meat production: ~4.5+ million tonnes .
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Both statements are correct — Statement II (poultry production includes egg and broiler production) is also accurate and describes the two main segments of the poultry industry; selecting 'Only I' is incomplete. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Both statements are factually correct — Statement I (poultry farming raises domestic chickens) is also true; 'Only II' is incomplete.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Both statements are factually accurate about poultry farming; 'Neither I nor II' is completely incorrect.

Correct Answer: Provides structural rigidity to plants — Option (a)
The primary function of the plant cell wall is to provide structural rigidity (firmness/strength) to plant cells and the overall plant. About the Plant Cell Wall: Composition: Primarily made of Cellulose (a polysaccharide) — long chains of glucose molecules; Also contains hemicellulose, pectin, and in some cells, lignin (in wood cells); Structure: Present OUTSIDE the cell membrane (plasma membrane); Plants, fungi, and bacteria have cell walls; Animal cells do NOT have cell walls; Primary functions: Structural support and rigidity: Gives shape, strength, and firmness to plant cells and the plant body; Prevents excessive water intake (prevents cell bursting when water enters by osmosis); Protection: Protects against mechanical damage, pathogens, and osmotic stress; Cell shape maintenance: Maintains the characteristic shape of the cell; Allows plants to grow tall and upright without a skeleton; Types of cell walls: Primary cell wall: Thin, flexible, present in young/growing cells; Secondary cell wall: Thick, rigid, deposited inside the primary wall in mature cells (contains lignin in wood cells); Middle lamella: Cementing layer between adjacent cells (pectin); Turgor pressure: The plant cell wall allows buildup of turgor pressure (internal water pressure that keeps plants firm/turgid); without cell walls, excess water would burst animal-like cells.
Option (b) Assists in cell division — Incorrect: Cell division in plants is carried out by the cell plate (formed by the Golgi apparatus during cytokinesis) and the mitotic spindle — NOT by the cell wall; the cell wall provides structural support, not assistance in cell division.
Option (c) Food synthesis — Incorrect: Food synthesis (photosynthesis) is carried out by Chloroplasts (which contain chlorophyll) in the cytoplasm of plant cells — NOT by the cell wall; the cell wall is a structural component, not a site of food synthesis.
Option (d) Performs photosynthesis in plants — Incorrect: Photosynthesis is performed by Chloroplasts (organelles containing chlorophyll pigment) — NOT by the cell wall; the cell wall is made of cellulose and provides structural support; it plays no role in photosynthesis.

Correct Answer: Halon — Option (b)
Halons are ozone-depleting substances (ODS) that release bromine atoms when exposed to UV radiation in the stratosphere. About Halons: Halons are fully halogenated compounds containing bromine (and usually fluorine and carbon); Common halons: Halon-1211 (bromochlorodifluoromethane), Halon-1301 ( bromotrifluoromethane ), Halon-2402; When halons are released into the atmosphere and reach the stratosphere, UV radiation breaks them apart, releasing bromine atoms; Bromine is approximately 40-50 times more effective than chlorine at destroying ozone molecules; Used as fire extinguishing agents; Halons are regulated under the Montreal Protocol (1987); ODS and the halogen they release: HCFCs (Hydrochlorofluorocarbons): Release CHLORINE atoms; CFCs (Chlorofluorocarbons): Release CHLORINE atoms; Carbon Tetrachloride (CCl4): Releases CHLORINE atoms; Methyl Bromide (CH3Br): Releases BROMINE atoms; Halons: Release BROMINE atoms; About the Montreal Protocol: International treaty to phase out ozone-depleting substances; Signed in 1987; Considered the most successful environmental agreement; The ozone layer is gradually recovering as a result.
Option (a) HCFCs — Incorrect: HCFCs (Hydrochlorofluorocarbons) release CHLORINE atoms (not bromine) when broken down by UV radiation in the stratosphere; HCFCs were introduced as transitional replacements for CFCs but are themselves ozone-depleting. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) CFCs — Incorrect: CFCs (Chlorofluorocarbons) release CHLORINE atoms (not bromine) when exposed to UV radiation; CFCs are the primary cause of ozone depletion but release chlorine, not bromine.
Option (d) Carbon Tetrachloride — Incorrect: Carbon Tetrachloride (CCl4) releases CHLORINE atoms (not bromine) when broken down; it is an ODS but releases chlorine, not bromine atoms.

Correct Answer: HCFCs – Chlorine — Option (c)
The correct pair is HCFCs (Hydrochlorofluorocarbons) and Chlorine — HCFCs release chlorine atoms when exposed to UV radiation in the stratosphere. About ODS and Halogens Released: HCFCs (Hydrochlorofluorocarbons) → release CHLORINE (Cl): HCFCs contain chlorine atoms in their chemical structure; UV radiation in the stratosphere breaks the C-Cl bond, releasing free chlorine radicals; These chlorine atoms catalytically destroy ozone (O3) in the stratosphere; CFCs (Chlorofluorocarbons) → release CHLORINE (Cl); Carbon Tetrachloride (CCl4) → release CHLORINE (Cl); Halons → release BROMINE (Br) — not nitrogen; Methyl Bromide (CH3Br) → release BROMINE (Br) — not iodine; Key distinction: Chlorine-releasing ODS: CFCs, HCFCs, Carbon Tetrachloride, Methyl Chloroform; Bromine-releasing ODS: Halons, Methyl Bromide; Montreal Protocol controls all these substances; Role of Chlorine in ozone depletion: One chlorine atom can destroy up to 100,000 ozone molecules through a catalytic chain reaction: Cl + O3 → ClO + O2; ClO + O → Cl + O2 (Cl is regenerated and the cycle continues).
Option (a) Methyl Bromide – Iodine — Incorrect: Methyl Bromide (CH3Br) releases BROMINE atoms (not iodine) when broken down by UV radiation; iodine is not a halogen released by common ODS in significant quantities; this pairing is completely incorrect.
Option (b) Carbon Tetrachloride – Bromine — Incorrect: Carbon Tetrachloride (CCl4) releases CHLORINE atoms (not bromine) when exposed to UV radiation — the chemical formula shows 4 chlorine atoms and no bromine; pairing it with bromine is incorrect.
Option (d) Halon – Nitrogen — Incorrect: Halons release BROMINE atoms (not nitrogen) when exposed to UV radiation in the stratosphere; nitrogen is not released by halons; this is a completely incorrect pairing.

Correct Answer: T. Raja Singh — Option (b)
T. Raja Singh, the BJP MLA from Goshamahal constituency in Hyderabad, Telangana, resigned in June 2025 citing dissatisfaction with the state/party leadership. About T. Raja Singh: Full name: T. Raja Singh Lodh; Constituency: Goshamahal , Hyderabad, Telangana; Party: Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP); He is a controversial and vocal BJP MLA known for his strong statements; In June 2025, he resigned from his legislative position citing dissatisfaction with the state leadership and direction of the party; T. Raja Singh has been a prominent face of BJP in Telangana; Background on Telangana politics: Telangana state was carved out of Andhra Pradesh in 2014; Congress party won the 2023 Telangana state elections, defeating the BRS (Bharat Rashtra Samithi) of K. Chandrashekar Rao; Chief Minister: A. Revanth Reddy (Congress) since December 2023; BJP has been trying to strengthen its position in Telangana as opposition.
Option (a) Bandi Sanjay — Incorrect: Bandi Sanjay Kumar is a BJP leader in Telangana and former BJP state president — he did not resign in June 2025 citing dissatisfaction with state leadership; T. Raja Singh is the correct answer.
Option (c) Kishan Reddy — Incorrect: G. Kishan Reddy is a senior BJP leader from Telangana and Union Minister — he did not resign in June 2025 citing dissatisfaction with state leadership.
Option (d) Etela Rajendra — Incorrect: Etela Rajendra is a former TRS (now BRS) minister who later joined BJP — he is not the MLA who resigned in June 2025 citing dissatisfaction with state leadership; T. Raja Singh is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: Udhayanidhi Stalin — Option (a)
Udhayanidhi Stalin was appointed as the Deputy Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu in September 2024. About Udhayanidhi Stalin: Full name: Udhayanidhi Stalin; He is the son of Tamil Nadu Chief Minister M.K. Stalin; Party: DMK (Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam ); He was also serving as the Minister for Sports Development and Youth Welfare in the Tamil Nadu government; In September 2024, he was elevated and appointed as the Deputy Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu under CM M.K. Stalin; He previously served as Mayor-equivalent position through DMK; He is also an actor and film producer in Tamil cinema; About Tamil Nadu government: Chief Minister: M.K. Stalin (DMK), who has been in power since May 2021 after DMK's landslide victory; Tamil Nadu's legislative assembly is known as the Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly; The appointment of Udhayanidhi as Deputy CM was seen as grooming him for future leadership; About other options: K. Palaniswami ( Edappadi K. Palaniswami — EPS): Leader of opposition AIADMK in Tamil Nadu — he was previously CM but his party lost in 2021; O. Panneerselvam: Former AIADMK leader — split from EPS faction; V. Senthil Balaji: Tamil Nadu Minister for Electricity, Prohibition and Excise (DMK) — he was arrested and released in a corruption case.
Option (b) K. Palaniswami — Incorrect: K. Palaniswami (EPS) is the Leader of Opposition (AIADMK) in Tamil Nadu — he is NOT in the government and therefore could not be appointed as Deputy CM; Udhayanidhi Stalin (DMK) was appointed Deputy CM. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) O. Panneerselvam — Incorrect: O. Panneerselvam is a former AIADMK leader — he is in the opposition, not in the DMK government; the Deputy CM appointed in September 2024 was Udhayanidhi Stalin.
Option (d) V. Senthil Balaji — Incorrect: V. Senthil Balaji is a DMK minister in Tamil Nadu government (Electricity, Prohibition & Excise) — but he was NOT appointed as Deputy CM; Udhayanidhi Stalin was appointed Deputy Chief Minister in September 2024.

Correct Answer: September 2024 — Option (b)
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change ( MoEFCC ) notified the Eco-Mark rules in September 2024. About Eco-Mark: The Eco-Mark scheme is India's environmental labelling programme for consumer products; It was originally launched by the Government of India in 1991 to provide incentives to producers/importers to reduce adverse environmental impact; Eco-Mark label: A label given to products that meet specified environmental standards throughout their product life cycle (production, use, and disposal); The potter's earthen pot logo is used as the Eco-Mark symbol; Products covered: A wide range of consumer products including soaps, detergents, paper, cosmetics, lubricating oils, packaging materials, textiles, food items, etc.; MoEFCC notified revised Eco-Mark rules in September 2024: The new rules updated and strengthened the existing framework for awarding the Eco-Mark to environment-friendly products; New rules aim to align India's eco-labelling with international standards; The scheme is administered by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) on behalf of MoEFCC ; Significance: Eco-Mark helps consumers identify environmentally friendly products; Promotes sustainable production and consumption patterns; Part of India's green economy initiatives.
Option (a) January 2024 — Incorrect: The Eco-Mark rules were notified by MoEFCC in September 2024, not January 2024.
Option (c) January 2025 — Incorrect: The MoEFCC notified Eco-Mark rules in September 2024, not January 2025. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) September 2025 — Incorrect: The Eco-Mark rules notification by MoEFCC was in September 2024, not September 2025.

Correct Answer: Earth — Option (c)
Earth is the fifth largest planet in our solar system by size. Planets of the Solar System ranked by size (largest to smallest): 1st — Jupiter (largest): Diameter ~142,984 km; 2nd — Saturn: Diameter ~120,536 km; 3rd — Uranus: Diameter ~51,118 km; 4th — Neptune: Diameter ~49,528 km; 5th — Earth: Diameter ~12,742 km; 6th — Venus: Diameter ~12,104 km; 7th — Mars: Diameter ~6,779 km; 8th — Mercury (smallest): Diameter ~4,879 km; Key fact: Among the terrestrial planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars), Earth is the LARGEST; Among all 8 planets, Earth ranks 5th in size; Earth vs Venus: Earth and Venus are similar in size ('sister planets') — Earth is slightly larger than Venus; Mnemonic to remember planet sizes: 'My Very Educated Mother Just Served Us Nachos' (Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune) — but remember this is orbital order, not size order; About Earth: Average radius: 6,371 km; Mass: 5.972 × 10²⁴ kg; Only known planet with life; Atmosphere: Nitrogen (78%), Oxygen (21%), Argon (0.9%); Has one natural satellite — the Moon.
Option (a) Mercury — Incorrect: Mercury is the SMALLEST planet in the solar system (8th by size), not the 5th largest; Earth is the 5th largest planet.
Option (b) Venus — Incorrect: Venus is the 6th largest planet in the solar system — slightly smaller than Earth; Earth is the 5th largest. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Uranus — Incorrect: Uranus is the 3rd largest planet in the solar system (diameter ~51,118 km) — much larger than Earth; Earth is the 5th largest.

Correct Answer: Nadaswaram — Option (d)
Nadaswaram (also known as Nayanam or Nagaswaram) is an indigenous wind instrument of South India. About Nadaswaram : Also known as: Nagaswaram, Nayanam , Nathaswaram ; Type: Double-reed aerophone (wind instrument); Origin: South India, particularly Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Kerala; It is one of the loudest non-brass acoustic instruments in the world; Made from a special hardwood ( aacha maram ) and has a conical bore; Typically about 60-75 cm long; Played in pairs — one as the main instrument and another (called ' thavil ' accompaniment); Traditionally: Nadaswaram is considered sacred and is played at Hindu temple ceremonies, weddings, and festivals; Often called a 'Mangala Vadyam ' (auspicious instrument); Famous Nadaswaram artists: Sheik Chinna Moulana, T.N. Rajarattinam Pillai; The name ' Nayanam ' or 'Nagaswaram' comes from 'Naga' (serpent — as it coils like a serpent in its curved form) + 'Swaram' (musical note); About other options: Gogona : A jaw harp (mouth harp) from Assam — plucked string instrument held between the teeth; Timki : A small drum/percussion instrument from folk traditions; Harmonium: A keyboard instrument (not indigenous — introduced from the West, adapted in India).
Option (a) Gogona — Incorrect: Gogona is a traditional jaw harp (Jew's harp) from Assam — it is a mouth-resonated plucked string instrument, NOT a wind instrument known as ' Nayanam '; Nadaswaram is the instrument called Nayanam .
Option (b) Timki — Incorrect: Timki is a small traditional drum (percussion instrument) from Rajasthan/North India — it is NOT a wind instrument and is not called ' Nayanam '; Nadaswaram is the correct answer.
Option (c) Harmonium — Incorrect: The Harmonium is a keyboard wind instrument (air is pushed through metal reeds by bellows) — but it is NOT an indigenous Indian instrument (it was introduced by Western missionaries); and it is not known as ' Nayanam '; Nadaswaram is the indigenous wind instrument called Nayanam .

Correct Answer: Dhol — Option (b)
'Toor' is a traditional cylindrical clay drum with leather on both sides — making it a type of Dhol (membranophone/percussion instrument). About Toor: 'Toor' is a traditional folk percussion instrument; It is made of clay (terracotta) in a cylindrical shape; Both sides are covered with leather/animal skin (membrane); Played by striking with hands; It is classified as a membranophone (instrument that produces sound through a vibrating membrane/skin); A Dhol is broadly defined as a cylindrical double-headed drum — hence Toor is a type of Dhol ; Classification of musical instruments (Hornbostel-Sachs): Membranophones: Instruments with vibrating membranes (drums) — Dhol , Tabla , Mridangam, Dholak, Toor; Idiophones: Instruments that vibrate as a whole — cymbals ( Jhanjh ), bells, maracas; Chordophones: String instruments — guitar, sitar, veena, violin; Aerophones: Wind instruments — harmonium, flute, nadaswaram , shehnai; Electrophones: Electronic instruments; Indian drums ( Dhol family): Dhol (cylindrical, double-headed, used in Punjab/North India), Dholak (smaller, double-headed), Mridangam (South India, classical), Tabla (pair of drums, Hindustani classical), Nagara/ Naqqara (kettle drum), Toor (Rajasthan/folk tradition).
Option (a) Harmonium — Incorrect: Harmonium is a keyboard aerophone (wind instrument) — it produces sound through air pushed through metal reeds; it is not a percussion instrument and does not have leather membranes; 'Toor' is a membrane drum (type of Dhol ).
Option (c) Cymbal ( Jhanjh ) — Incorrect: Cymbals ( Jhanjh ) are idiophones — circular metal plates struck together to produce sound; they do NOT have leather membranes or clay bodies; 'Toor' is a clay drum with leather membranes (type of Dhol ). The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Guitar — Incorrect: Guitar is a chordophone (string instrument) — it produces sound through vibrating strings; it has no leather membrane or clay body; 'Toor' is a clay membrane drum (a type of Dhol ).

Correct Answer: Jahangir — Option (a)
Shalimar Bagh in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir was built by Mughal Emperor Jahangir in 1619. About Shalimar Bagh: Built by: Emperor Jahangir (ruled 1605-1627), the 4th Mughal Emperor; Built for: His wife Empress Nur Jahan (known as 'Nur Jahan' meaning 'Light of the World'); Year: 1619 CE; Location: On the banks of Dal Lake, Srinagar, Kashmir; Name: 'Shalimar' comes from Sanskrit ' Shalimargi ' meaning 'abode of love'; Style: Mughal garden design (Charbagh — four-quadrant garden); Layout: Three terraced gardens with a central water channel ( nahar -e- bihisht — canal of paradise), fountains, and pavilions; Surrounded by: Chinars (Platanus orientalis ), flowering plants, and cascading waterways; Flowers: Famous for tulips, roses, and irises; Significance: One of the finest examples of Mughal garden architecture in Kashmir; Part of the UNESCO World Heritage Site 'Mughal Gardens of Kashmir' (inscribed in 2024); Also known as 'Crown of Srinagar'; Other famous Mughal gardens in Kashmir: Nishat Bagh (built by Asaf Khan, Nur Jahan's brother, 1633), Chashme Shahi (built by Shah Jahan, 1632).
Option (b) Akbar — Incorrect: Akbar (the Great) was the 3rd Mughal Emperor (ruled 1556-1605) — he is not associated with building Shalimar Bagh in Srinagar; Akbar is known for building Fatehpur Sikri, Agra Fort, and contributions to the Red Fort; Shalimar Bagh was built by Jahangir.
Option (c) Babur — Incorrect: Babur was the FOUNDER of the Mughal Empire (ruled 1526-1530) — he died before Shalimar Bagh was constructed (1619); Babur is known for the Battle of Panipat (1526) and establishing the Mughal dynasty; he did not build Shalimar Bagh.
Option (d) Humayun — Incorrect: Humayun was the 2nd Mughal Emperor (ruled 1530-1540, 1555-1556) — he also died before Shalimar Bagh was built; Humayun's Tomb in Delhi is a significant Mughal monument, but Shalimar Bagh in Srinagar was built by Jahangir.

Correct Answer: Swimming — Option (a)
Sachin Nag was an Indian swimmer who won a medal at the Asian Games — he is associated with Swimming. About Sachin Nag: Sachin Nag was an Indian swimmer from Kolkata (West Bengal); He won a historic Gold Medal in the 100m freestyle swimming event at the inaugural 1951 Asian Games held in New Delhi; This was India's first-ever Asian Games gold medal in swimming; He was one of India's pioneering sports personalities in the post-independence era; The 1951 Asian Games: Held in New Delhi, India — India was the host country; First edition of the Asian Games (organized by Asian Games Federation, now OCA — Olympic Council of Asia); India performed exceptionally well as the host nation; Sachin Nag's achievement: His gold medal in the 100m freestyle demonstrated India's early promise in aquatic sports; He competed against top Asian swimmers and won gold in the inaugural edition; Legacy: Sachin Nag's achievement is celebrated as a landmark moment in Indian sports history; He inspired future generations of Indian swimmers; His feat was accomplished in the very first Asian Games, making it historically significant.
Option (b) Golf — Incorrect: Sachin Nag is not associated with golf; he was a swimmer who won gold in the 100m freestyle at the 1951 Asian Games; golf is a different sport entirely.
Option (c) Football — Incorrect: Sachin Nag is not a footballer — he was a swimmer; India had a famous football team in the early 1950s-60s (4th place at the 1956 Melbourne Olympics), but Sachin Nag's achievement was in swimming. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Hockey — Incorrect: While India has a legendary hockey tradition (multiple Olympic gold medals), Sachin Nag is not a hockey player; he was a swimmer who won gold at the inaugural 1951 Asian Games in New Delhi.

Correct Answer: Only II — Option (b)
Only Statement II is correct — a cricket Bat is mainly made of wood. Statement I Analysis — Cricket Helmet (INCORRECT — not mainly wood): A cricket helmet is made of: Outer shell: High-density polycarbonate or carbon fibre ; Grill/Grille: Steel or titanium bars protecting the face; Padding inside: Foam (polyurethane/memory foam) for impact absorption; Fastening straps: Synthetic materials; A cricket helmet is NOT mainly made of wood; Statement II Analysis — Cricket Bat (CORRECT — mainly wood): The cricket bat blade is made from White Willow wood (Salix alba var. caerulea) — English Willow (Grade 1-5) or Kashmir Willow; The handle is made from Cane ( sarawak cane) with rubber grips; The bat is primarily/mainly a wooden implement; ICC rules: Laws of Cricket specify that the bat blade must be made of wood; Material: English Willow is the premium choice for professional bats; Total bat weight: typically 1.1 to 1.4 kg; Bat dimensions: Maximum length 965mm (38 inches), maximum width 108mm (4.25 inches); About cricket: International cricket is governed by the ICC (International Cricket Council); 'Bat' comes from the Old English word 'batt' (cudgel/club).
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Cricket Helmet is NOT mainly made of wood (it is made of polycarbonate/metal/foam); only the Bat (Statement II) is mainly made of wood.
Option (c) Both I and II — Incorrect: Only the Bat (II) is mainly made of wood — the Helmet (I) is made of polycarbonate, metal, and foam; therefore 'Both I and II' is incorrect. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Statement II IS correct — the cricket bat IS mainly made of wood (willow); selecting 'Neither I nor II' is incorrect as the bat is definitively a wooden implement per ICC Laws of Cricket.

Correct Answer: Steeplechase — Option (d)
Avinash Sable won a gold medal in the 3000m Steeplechase event at the Asian Games 2023 (held in Hangzhou, China). About Avinash Sable: Full name: Avinash Mukund Sable; Born: September 13, 1994, in Beed district, Maharashtra; He is India's top long-distance runner specializing in the 3000m Steeplechase; Asian Games 2023 achievement: Won GOLD medal in 3000m Steeplechase at the 19th Asian Games, Hangzhou, China (September-October 2023); He also set a new Asian Games record in the event; Time: 8:19.50 (Asian Games record); About 3000m Steeplechase: A track and field middle-distance running event; Involves 28 barrier hurdles and 7 water jumps over 3000 metres ; Requires a combination of speed, endurance, and obstacle-clearing ability; It is one of the most physically demanding track events; Other Avinash Sable achievements: Multiple national records in Steeplechase; Represented India at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics and 2024 Paris Olympics; Won multiple medals at Asian Athletics Championships; Commonwealth Games medal winner; He holds the Indian national record in the 3000m Steeplechase; He is an army personnel (serving in the Indian Army, Indian Army sports cell).
Option (a) Badminton — Incorrect: Avinash Sable is an athlete (runner) specializing in steeplechase — he is NOT a badminton player; India's badminton stars include PV Sindhu, Saina Nehwal, Chirag-Satwik etc. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Golf — Incorrect: Avinash Sable does not play golf — he is a 3000m steeplechase runner; India's golfer at Asian Games includes Aditi Ashok and Shubhankar Sharma.
Option (c) Cycling — Incorrect: Avinash Sable is not a cyclist — he is an athletics (track) competitor in steeplechase; he won gold in the 3000m Steeplechase at the 2023 Asian Games in Hangzhou.

Correct Answer: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs — Option (a)
The Municipal Performance Index (MPI) is associated with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs ( MoHUA ). About the Municipal Performance Index (MPI): The Municipal Performance Index is a comprehensive framework to assess urban local bodies (municipalities/municipal corporations) in India; Released by: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs ( MoHUA ); It evaluates municipalities on parameters like: Services (water supply, sewerage, solid waste management, storm water drainage); Finance (own revenue generation, expenditure efficiency, debt management); Technology (use of IT, e-governance); Governance (urban planning, social infrastructure, citizen grievance redressal); It covers 111 cities (class 1 cities across India); Objectives: Promote competitive and cooperative federalism at the urban local body level; Identify best practices and areas needing improvement; Help municipalities benchmark their performance; Promote data-driven urban governance; About Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs ( MoHUA ): Responsible for urban planning, housing, and development of cities and towns; Key schemes: Smart Cities Mission, AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation), PM Awas Yojana (Urban), Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban), HRIDAY, National Urban Livelihood Mission; Also releases: Swachh Survekshan (urban cleanliness ranking), Ease of Living Index.
Option (b) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment — Incorrect: The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment deals with welfare of SCs, OBCs, persons with disabilities, elderly — it does NOT release the Municipal Performance Index; that is MoHUA's domain.
Option (c) Ministry of Home Affairs — Incorrect: The Ministry of Home Affairs deals with internal security, border management, disaster management, and Union Territories administration — it does NOT release the Municipal Performance Index; that is released by MoHUA .
Option (d) Ministry of Jal Shakti — Incorrect: The Ministry of Jal Shakti deals with water resources, drinking water, and rural sanitation (Swachh Bharat Mission Grameen, Jal Jeevan Mission) — the Municipal Performance Index is a MoHUA initiative for urban governance, not Jal Shakti.

Correct Answer: Human Development Index — Option (d)
The Human Development Index (HDI) is NOT published by the World Economic Forum — it is published by UNDP (United Nations Development Programme ). About the Human Development Index (HDI): Published by: UNDP (United Nations Development Programme ) — annually in the Human Development Report; Measures: Three dimensions: Health (Life expectancy at birth), Education (Mean years of schooling + Expected years of schooling), Living Standard (GNI per capita); First published: 1990 (concept developed by Mahbub ul Haq and Amartya Sen); India's HDI rank: Around 130-135 out of ~193 countries (medium human development); About WEF (World Economic Forum) and the indices it publishes: Global Gender Gap Index: Measures gender equality in 4 areas — Economic participation, Educational attainment, Health and survival, Political empowerment; Annual report; Energy Transition Index (ETI): Measures performance of countries on energy system and readiness for energy transition; Published jointly by WEF and Accenture; Global Competitiveness Index (GCI): Assesses competitiveness of nations across 12 pillars (institutions, infrastructure, skills, innovation, etc.); WEF also publishes: Global Risks Report, Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Index, Financial Development Index; About UNDP: Part of the United Nations system; Works in 170 countries on sustainable development, poverty eradication, and democratic governance.
Option (a) Global Gender Gap Index — Incorrect: The Global Gender Gap Index IS published by the World Economic Forum (WEF) — it measures gender equality across 4 dimensions; therefore it CANNOT be the answer to 'NOT published by WEF'. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Energy Transition Index — Incorrect: The Energy Transition Index IS published by the World Economic Forum (in partnership with Accenture); it IS a WEF publication, so it cannot be the answer.
Option (c) Global Competitiveness Index — Incorrect: The Global Competitiveness Index IS published by the World Economic Forum — it is one of WEF's flagship annual publications assessing 12 pillars of economic competitiveness; it cannot be the 'NOT published by WEF' answer.