SSC GD 2026 22 May 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Criticism of Vedic rituals — Option (b)
The rise of Buddhism and Jainism in the 6th century BCE is primarily associated with the criticism of Vedic rituals (yajnas/sacrifices) and the Brahminical religious order. Historical context — Factors leading to rise of Buddhism and Jainism: Criticism of Vedic rituals: The elaborate, expensive Vedic sacrifices (yajnas) had become inaccessible to the common people and were monopolized by the Brahmin priestly class; both Mahavira and Gautama Buddha rejected these rituals as unnecessary for spiritual liberation; Rejection of caste hierarchy: The rigid Varna system placed Brahmins at the top; Buddhism and Jainism were more egalitarian — they accepted people from all castes and emphasized karma over birth; The mercantile class: The rise of trade and the Vaishya (merchant) class who needed a religion that did not require expensive sacrifices also supported Buddhism and Jainism; Urban growth: The rise of Janapadas and Mahajanapadas (kingdoms and republics) in the Gangetic plains created an environment where new ideas flourished; Language accessibility: The Buddha preached in Pali (common people's language) instead of Sanskrit, making teachings accessible; Ahimsa (Non-violence): Both Buddhism and Jainism emphasized non-violence (ahimsa) — in contrast to Vedic sacrifices which involved animal slaughter; Key figures: Mahavira (599-527 BCE) — 24th Tirthankara of Jainism; Gautama Buddha (c. 563-483 BCE) — founder of Buddhism.
Option (a) Rise of monarchy — Incorrect: While the rise of Mahajanapadas (large kingdoms) and monarchy did occur in the same period (6th century BCE), the DIRECT association with the rise of Buddhism and Jainism is the criticism of Vedic rituals, not the rise of monarchy per se; monarchs supported both new religions but weren't the cause of their rise.
Option (c) Decline of agriculture — Incorrect: The 6th century BCE actually saw an EXPANSION of agriculture (iron tools enabled forest clearing and new cultivation) — there was no 'decline of agriculture'; the spread of iron tools supported both agriculture and urbanization in this period.
Option (d) Persian influence — Incorrect: While the Achaemenid Persian Empire had some contact with northwestern India (Gandhara), Persian influence is not the primary factor associated with the rise of Buddhism and Jainism in the 6th century BCE; both religions arose from internal Indian philosophical and social conditions.

Correct Answer: Female foeticide and socio-cultural prejudice — Option (b)
Female foeticide and socio-cultural prejudice best explain the low sex ratio seen in northwestern India. About sex ratio in northwestern India: Sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1,000 males; Northwestern states (especially Haryana, Punjab, and parts of Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh) consistently show India's lowest sex ratios; Census 2011 data: Haryana: 879 females per 1,000 males (one of India's lowest); Punjab: 895 per 1,000; Rajasthan: 928 per 1,000; National average: 943 per 1,000; Key factors — female foeticide : Sex-selective abortions (terminating female foetuses after sex determination through ultrasound) is the primary cause; Despite the Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PC-PNDT) Act, 1994 banning sex determination for sex selection, violations continue; Socio-cultural prejudice: 'Son preference' is deeply ingrained in these patriarchal societies; Sons are seen as carrying the family name, performing last rites, and providing financial support in old age; Daughters are seen as a 'burden' (dowry system makes daughters financially costly); The 'Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao ' campaign was specifically launched in Haryana, Punjab, and Rajasthan to address this issue; Child sex ratio (0-6 years): Even worse — Haryana: 834, Punjab: 846 (Census 2011), indicating active sex-selective practices.
Option (a) Male-dominant migration — Incorrect: Male-dominant out-migration typically explains LOW sex ratios in areas WHERE MEN EMIGRATE FROM (not northwestern India); northwestern India is actually a destination for male migrants from poorer states; the primary cause of low sex ratio in NW India is female foeticide , not male migration.
Option (c) Religious diversity — Incorrect: Religious diversity is not a primary explanation for the low sex ratio in northwestern India; states with religious diversity don't necessarily have low sex ratios; the sex ratio issue is caused by socio-cultural preference for sons and practices like female foeticide .
Option (d) Low fertility rate — Incorrect: Low fertility rate means fewer children are born overall, but this doesn't specifically explain a low SEX ratio (skewed male-female balance); the low sex ratio in northwestern India is caused by sex-selective practices (female foeticide ) and bias against girls, not by the overall fertility rate.

Correct Answer: Bangladesh — Option (a)
The Tropic of Cancer (23.5°N latitude) passes through Bangladesh — one of India's neighboring countries. Tropic of Cancer and India: The Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 Indian states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram; It enters India from the west (Gujarat) and exits in the east (Mizoram); After leaving India eastward (through Mizoram), the Tropic of Cancer enters Bangladesh and Myanmar; Tropic of Cancer and Bangladesh: The Tropic of Cancer runs through the central part of Bangladesh; Bangladesh lies between approximately 20°34'N to 26°38'N latitude — hence the Tropic of Cancer (23.5°N) passes through it; About India's neighboring countries and the Tropic of Cancer: Bangladesh: YES — the Tropic of Cancer passes through it; Myanmar: YES — also passes through Myanmar (another neighbor); Pakistan: NO — Pakistan lies between 23°N to 37°N — some sources say the Tropic just barely touches Pakistan's extreme south, but it is generally NOT considered to pass through Pakistan; Bhutan: NO — Bhutan lies between approximately 26°N to 28°N — the Tropic (23.5°N) does NOT pass through Bhutan; Nepal: NO — Nepal lies between approximately 26°N to 30°N — the Tropic of Cancer does NOT pass through Nepal.
Option (b) Pakistan — Incorrect: The Tropic of Cancer does NOT significantly pass through Pakistan; Pakistan's southern tip is around 23°N but the Tropic (23.5°N) is generally considered to pass through India and then to the east (Bangladesh, Myanmar), not through Pakistan.
Option (c) Bhutan — Incorrect: Bhutan is located between approximately 26°N and 28°N latitude — well north of the Tropic of Cancer (23.5°N); the Tropic does NOT pass through Bhutan. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Nepal — Incorrect: Nepal is situated between approximately 26°N and 30°N latitude — entirely north of the Tropic of Cancer (23.5°N); the Tropic of Cancer does NOT pass through Nepal.

Correct Answer: Indian Councils Act, 1892 — Option (a)
The Indian Councils Act of 1892 allowed budget discussion in the Indian legislature for the first time. About the Indian Councils Act, 1892: This Act is also known as the Minto-Morley Reforms' predecessor — it was enacted during the tenure of Lord Lansdowne as Viceroy; Key provisions related to budget: Members of the legislative councils were given the right to DISCUSS (but NOT vote on) the budget for the first time; Members were also allowed to ask supplementary questions on matters of public interest; Significance: Before 1892, there was NO mechanism for legislative discussion of the budget in India; the 1892 Act marked the first step toward legislative involvement in financial matters; Progress of constitutional reforms: Regulating Act (1773): First parliamentary regulation of the Company; Charter Act (1853): Last Charter Act; Government of India Act (1858): Crown took over from Company; Indian Councils Act (1861): Created Imperial Legislative Council, but members had no real power; Indian Councils Act (1892): First budget discussion allowed; Morley-Minto Reforms (1909): Separate electorates introduced, more legislative members; Government of India Act (1919): Dyarchy introduced — transferred subjects included separate budget for transferred subjects; Government of India Act (1935): Introduced federation, provincial autonomy, responsible government.
Option (b) Indian Councils Act, 1861 — Incorrect: The Indian Councils Act of 1861 created the Imperial Legislative Council and allowed non-official (Indian) members to join — but it did NOT allow budget discussion; the first budget discussion provision came with the Indian Councils Act of 1892.
Option (c) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909 — Incorrect: The Indian Councils Act of 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms) introduced separate electorates for Muslims and increased the size of legislative councils — but the first budget discussion right was granted by the earlier Indian Councils Act of 1892.
Option (d) Government of India Act, 1919 — Incorrect: The Government of India Act of 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms) introduced dyarchy in provinces and the bicameral legislature at the centre — but budget discussion rights had already been established by the Indian Councils Act of 1892, 27 years earlier.

Correct Answer: Rs 3,000 — Option (d)
The one-time fee to avail the FASTag Annual Pass (in news in August 2025) is Rs 3,000. About the FASTag Annual Pass: The FASTag Annual Pass was launched/announced in August 2025 by NHAI (National Highways Authority of India) under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways; One-time fee: Rs 3,000 (lump sum payment for one year); Benefit: After paying Rs 3,000 once, the vehicle owner can travel on all national highways without paying toll at every plaza for one full year; Eligibility: For private cars and light motor vehicles (personal vehicle category); About FASTag : FASTag is an electronic toll collection system using RFID (Radio Frequency Identification) technology; Mandatory for all four-wheelers on national highways since February 16, 2021; FASTag is linked to a prepaid account from which toll charges are deducted automatically; Administrated by NHAI's one-stop portal — My FASTag App; About NHAI: National Highways Authority of India was established in 1988; Under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways; Manages more than 40,000 km of national highways; Significance of Annual Pass: Reduces transaction burden, saves time at toll plazas, promotes highway travel for frequent users, reduces cash/digital transactions at multiple toll points.
Option (a) Rs 1,000 — Incorrect: The one-time fee for the FASTag Annual Pass is Rs 3,000, not Rs 1,000; Rs 1,000 is significantly lower than the actual annual pass fee.
Option (b) Rs 1,500 — Incorrect: The FASTag Annual Pass requires a one-time payment of Rs 3,000, not Rs 1,500.
Option (c) Rs 2,500 — Incorrect: The correct one-time fee for the FASTag Annual Pass is Rs 3,000, not Rs 2,500; Rs 2,500 is Rs 500 less than the actual fee. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: AIIMS Delhi — Option (c)
In February 2025, AIIMS Delhi (All India Institute of Medical Sciences, New Delhi) announced the launch of India's first Centre for Advanced Research on Addictive Behaviour (CAR-AB). About CAR-AB: Full name: Centre for Advanced Research on Addictive Behaviour (CAR-AB); Established by: AIIMS New Delhi (All India Institute of Medical Sciences, New Delhi); Announced: February 2025; Purpose: To address the rapidly growing problem of internet addiction, social media addiction, gaming addiction, and technology-related addictive behaviours , especially among children and youth; Functions: Conduct advanced research on addictive behaviours related to digital technology; Develop evidence-based treatment protocols; Provide clinical services for affected individuals; Create public awareness and educational programs; Train healthcare professionals in digital addiction management; Context: The COVID-19 pandemic (2020-2022) significantly accelerated screen time and internet usage among children — leading to a rise in internet gaming disorder, social media addiction, and related mental health issues; About AIIMS Delhi: Established: 1956 under the AIIMS Act; Location: Ansari Nagar, New Delhi; A premier government medical college and research institute; Ranked consistently among India's top medical institutions; Part of the national network of AIIMS institutions established across India.
Option (a) AIIMS Guwahati — Incorrect: AIIMS Guwahati (in Assam) did not launch the CAR-AB; India's first Centre for Advanced Research on Addictive Behaviour was announced by AIIMS Delhi in February 2025.
Option (b) AIIMS Rajkot — Incorrect: AIIMS Rajkot (in Gujarat) is not the institution that announced CAR-AB; the launch was announced by AIIMS Delhi.
Option (d) AIIMS Patna — Incorrect: AIIMS Patna (in Bihar) did not announce the CAR-AB; AIIMS Delhi announced India's first Centre for Advanced Research on Addictive Behaviour in February 2025. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Asian Athletics Championship — Option (a)
Animesh Kujur broke the national record in men's 200 metres race at the Asian Athletics Championship in 2025. About Animesh Kujur: Animesh Kujur is an Indian sprinter specializing in the 200 metres event; He is from Jharkhand; He broke the national record in men's 200m at the Asian Athletics Championships in 2025; About the Asian Athletics Championships 2025: The Asian Athletics Championships is the premier continental athletics competition organized by Asian Athletics Association (AAA); The 2025 edition was held in Tokyo, Japan; Animesh Kujur's performance set a new national record for India in the men's 200m event; Context of Indian sprinting: India has been investing in sprinting talent development under Athletics Federation of India (AFI) and Sports Authority of India (SAI); Indian sprinters have been improving significantly at the Asian level; The Asian Athletics Championships provides a high-level platform for Asian athletes to compete and set records; About Athletics Federation of India (AFI): The national governing body for athletics in India; Affiliated to World Athletics and Asian Athletics Association; Develops athletics at all levels in India.
Option (b) Diamond League — Incorrect: The Diamond League is the premier global series of track and field athletics meetings organized by World Athletics — featuring the world's best athletes; Animesh Kujur broke his national record at the Asian Athletics Championship, not the Diamond League.
Option (c) Asian Games — Incorrect: Animesh Kujur broke the national record in men's 200m at the Asian Athletics Championship (2025) — not at the Asian Games; the Asian Games and Asian Athletics Championships are different events; the Asian Games are held every 4 years and include all sports.
Option (d) Commonwealth Games — Incorrect: Animesh Kujur broke the national 200m record at the Asian Athletics Championship in 2025 — not at the Commonwealth Games; the Commonwealth Games involve nations from the British Commonwealth of Nations. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: 12 — Option (a)
China's rank in the Energy Transition Index (ETI) 2025 is 12. About the Energy Transition Index (ETI): The Energy Transition Index is published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF) in collaboration with Accenture; It benchmarks countries on the performance of their energy systems and readiness for energy transition; ETI 2025 findings: Total countries assessed: 120; China's rank: 12th; ETI measures two key dimensions: Energy System Performance: Based on economic development and growth, environmental sustainability, energy security and access; Transition Readiness: Based on regulatory environment, political commitment, institutional framework, innovative business environment, human capital and consumer participation, infrastructure and innovative business environment; Top performers in ETI: Typically European nations — Sweden, Denmark, Finland, Norway, Switzerland dominate the top ranks; India's rank in ETI: India has been improving steadily — from 87th (2021) to 67th (2023) to around the 60s-70s range; India's improvement reflects renewable energy expansion (solar, wind), energy access improvements under schemes like PM Ujjwala Yojana, Saubhagya, etc.; Significance of energy transition: The global energy transition is the shift from fossil fuels (coal, oil, gas) to renewable energy (solar, wind, hydro) to reduce carbon emissions and combat climate change; China: Despite being the world's largest emitter of greenhouse gases, China has also become the world's largest producer of solar panels, wind turbines, and EVs.
Option (b) 22 — Incorrect: China's rank in the Energy Transition Index 2025 is 12, not 22; 22nd would imply a lower ranking for China than its actual 12th place.
Option (c) 33 — Incorrect: China ranks 12th in the Energy Transition Index 2025, not 33rd; China's rank of 12 reflects its significant investments in renewable energy, EVs, and clean technology.
Option (d) 41 — Incorrect: China's rank in the ETI 2025 is 12, not 41; 41st would significantly underestimate China's energy transition performance as measured by the World Economic Forum's index.

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Both statements are correct — Both I and II were objectives of India's 10th Five Year Plan. About India's 10th Five Year Plan (2002-2007): The 10th Five Year Plan was the first plan to set MONITORABLE TARGETS — specific, measurable goals with timelines; It was formulated under the chairmanship of the Planning Commission (headed by PM Atal Bihari Vajpayee initially, then PM Manmohan Singh); Main objective: Achieve 8% GDP growth rate (highest growth target until that time); Statement I — Improvement in Literacy (CORRECT): The 10th Plan set a specific monitorable target: Increase literacy rate to 75% by 2007 (from ~65% in 2001); Significant focus on universalization of elementary education (Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan — SSA — was a flagship program of the 10th Plan); Statement II — Reduction in Infant and Maternal Mortality (CORRECT): The 10th Plan targeted: Reduce Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) to 45 per 1,000 live births by 2007; Reduce Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR) to 2 per 1,000 live births; Programs like Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) and National Rural Health Mission (NRHM — launched 2005) supported these goals; Other monitorable targets: Reduce poverty ratio by 5 percentage points by 2007; All children to complete 5 years of schooling by 2007; Reduce gender gaps in literacy and wage rates by at least 50%; Increase forest and tree cover to 25% by 2007; Clean drinking water to all villages by 2012.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Both Statement I (literacy improvement) and Statement II (reducing infant and maternal mortality) were objectives of the 10th Five Year Plan; selecting 'Only I' ignores the important health objectives of the plan.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Both statements are objectives of the 10th Five Year Plan — Statement I (literacy) was also explicitly included as a monitorable target; selecting 'Only II' is incomplete. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Both literacy improvement and reduction in infant/maternal mortality were explicitly stated as monitorable targets of the 10th Five Year Plan (2002-2007); 'Neither I nor II' is completely incorrect.

Correct Answer: Capital Account — Option (b)
In the context of the government budget, the Capital Account includes the government's assets and liabilities. About the Government Budget Structure: The Union Budget of India has two main components: Revenue Budget (Revenue Account): Revenue Receipts: Tax revenue (direct taxes + indirect taxes) + Non-tax revenue (dividends, fees, interest); Revenue Expenditure: Day-to-day functioning expenses — salaries, subsidies, interest payments, pensions; Revenue budget does NOT create assets or liabilities; A Revenue Deficit means revenue expenditure exceeds revenue receipts; Capital Budget (Capital Account): Capital Receipts: Borrowings (market loans, external loans, treasury bills), Disinvestment proceeds, Loans recovered from states; Capital Expenditure: Investment in infrastructure, creation of assets, repayment of loans; The Capital Account DIRECTLY DEALS WITH ASSETS AND LIABILITIES: Assets created (infrastructure, buildings, machinery) are on the assets side; Borrowings, loans outstanding, and debt are liabilities; A Capital Deficit (Fiscal Deficit) arises when total expenditure > total receipts (excluding borrowings); Key fiscal concepts: Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure - Total Receipts (excluding borrowings); Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments; Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure - Revenue Receipts.
Option (a) Revenue Account — Incorrect: The Revenue Account records the government's day-to-day income (taxes, non-tax revenue) and recurring expenditure (salaries, subsidies, interest); it does NOT primarily deal with assets and liabilities — that is the domain of the Capital Account. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Suspense Account — Incorrect: A Suspense Account is a temporary account used when transactions cannot be immediately classified — it is NOT the budget account that includes government's assets and liabilities; the Capital Account is the correct answer.
Option (d) Foreign Exchange Account — Incorrect: Foreign Exchange Accounts deal with a country's foreign currency reserves managed by the RBI — while foreign exchange reserves are assets, the budget account that specifically captures government assets and liabilities (created through borrowings and capital expenditure) is the Capital Account.

Correct Answer: Union Bank of India — Option (a)
Andhra Bank was amalgamated into Union Bank of India as part of the 2020 mega bank merger. About the 2019-2020 Public Sector Bank Mergers: In August 2019, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced the merger of 10 public sector banks into 4, effective April 1, 2020; The four merger groups: Group 1: Punjab National Bank (anchor) + Oriental Bank of Commerce + United Bank of India; Group 2: Canara Bank (anchor) + Syndicate Bank; Group 3: Union Bank of India (anchor) + Andhra Bank + Corporation Bank; Group 4: Indian Bank (anchor) + Allahabad Bank; Andhra Bank merger: Andhra Bank was merged into UNION BANK OF INDIA (along with Corporation Bank); The anchor bank (Union Bank of India) is the surviving entity; Andhra Bank's brand was dissolved; About Union Bank of India: Founded: 1919; Headquarters: Mumbai; Post-merger, Union Bank of India became one of India's larger public sector banks; Earlier mergers (2019): Bank of Baroda + Vijaya Bank + Dena Bank (effective April 1, 2019); SBI merger (2017): SBI absorbed 5 associate banks (State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur, State Bank of Hyderabad, State Bank of Mysore, State Bank of Patiala, State Bank of Travancore) and Bharatiya Mahila Bank.
Option (b) Indian Bank — Incorrect: Indian Bank was a DIFFERENT merger — Allahabad Bank was merged into Indian Bank (effective April 1, 2020); Andhra Bank was merged into Union Bank of India, NOT Indian Bank. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Punjab National Bank — Incorrect: Punjab National Bank absorbed Oriental Bank of Commerce and United Bank of India — NOT Andhra Bank; Andhra Bank went into Union Bank of India.
Option (d) Canara Bank — Incorrect: Canara Bank absorbed Syndicate Bank — NOT Andhra Bank; Andhra Bank (along with Corporation Bank) was merged into Union Bank of India effective April 1, 2020.

Correct Answer: NITI Aayog — Option (a)
The National Multidimensional Poverty Index (National MPI) in India is released by NITI Aayog. About National MPI: India's National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is released by NITI Aayog; It measures poverty across multiple dimensions (not just income); Based on the global MPI methodology developed by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and UNDP; Dimensions measured by India's National MPI: 3 dimensions and 12 indicators: Health: Nutrition, Child and Adolescent Mortality, Antenatal Care; Education: Years of Schooling, School Attendance; Living Standards: Cooking Fuel, Sanitation, Drinking Water, Electricity, Housing, Assets, Bank Accounts; Recent findings: India has significantly reduced multidimensional poverty — from 29.17% (2013-14) to 11.28% (2022-23) as per NITI Aayog's National MPI reports; About NITI Aayog: Established: January 1, 2015 (replaced the Planning Commission); Full name: National Institution for Transforming India; It is the Government of India's premier policy think-tank; Chaired by the Prime Minister; Vice-Chairman and CEO lead day-to-day operations; Functions: Provides strategic policy vision, designs programs, monitors implementation, promotes cooperative federalism; Key reports: National MPI, SDG India Index, Health Index, State Energy Efficiency Index, Composite Water Management Index.
Option (b) IDSA — Incorrect: IDSA (now known as Manohar Parrikar Institute for Defence Studies and Analyses — MP-IDSA) is a defence and security research institution — it does NOT publish the National Multidimensional Poverty Index; NITI Aayog is the correct publisher.
Option (c) NHRC — Incorrect: NHRC (National Human Rights Commission) is an independent statutory body that protects human rights in India — while poverty is a human rights concern, the NHRC does NOT release the National MPI; it is released by NITI Aayog.
Option (d) IIB — Incorrect: IIB (Insurance Information Bureau of India) is an industry-level data repository for the Indian insurance sector — it has nothing to do with poverty measurement or the National MPI; NITI Aayog releases the National MPI. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Jabro — Option (a)
Jabro is a traditional folk dance that originated from the Union Territory of Ladakh. About Jabro Dance: Jabro (also spelled Jabro or Jabru) is a traditional folk dance of Ladakh; It is performed during festivals, celebrations, and special occasions in the Ladakh region; The dance is characterized by colorful traditional Ladakhi costumes and is accompanied by traditional music; About Ladakh: Ladakh became a Union Territory on October 31, 2019 (when the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act, 2019 bifurcated J&K into two UTs — J&K with legislature, and Ladakh without legislature); Ladakh is one of the world's highest inhabited plateaus; It has a rich cultural heritage influenced by Tibetan Buddhism; Major festivals: Losar (Ladakhi New Year), Hemis Festival, Dosmoche ; Ladakh's culture is distinct from the rest of India — with Tibetan Buddhist traditions, Ladakhi language, unique cuisine, and traditional dress; Other folk arts of Ladakh: Shondol dance (classical dance associated with Ladakhi royalty, recognized by Sangeet Natak Akademi ), Cham dance (monastic mask dance), Lo Sar celebrations; About other options: Sattriya — Classical dance from Assam (one of 8 classical dances); Kachhi Ghodi — Folk dance from Rajasthan, performed on horseback (dummy horse); Kathi — a type of dance associated with certain communities.
Option (b) Kathi — Incorrect: Kathi is not a dance form associated with Ladakh; Jabro is the traditional dance of Ladakh.
Option (c) Sattriya — Incorrect: Sattriya is a classical dance form of Assam — it originated in the Vaishnavite monasteries ( sattras ) of Assam founded by the saint-scholar Srimanta Sankardeva in the 15th century; it is NOT from Ladakh.
Option (d) Kachhi Ghodi — Incorrect: Kachhi Ghodi (literally 'wooden/toy horse') is a folk dance from Rajasthan — performed by men on dummy horses during weddings and celebrations; it is NOT from Ladakh. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: National Institute of Animal Biotechnology — Option (a)
India's first animal stem cell (stem cell) biobank was inaugurated at the National Institute of Animal Biotechnology (NIAB), Hyderabad. About NIAB Stem Cell Biobank: India's first Animal Stem Cell Biobank was established at the National Institute of Animal Biotechnology (NIAB) in Hyderabad; The biobank stores stem cells from various animal species — including livestock and endangered species; About NIAB: Full name: National Institute of Animal Biotechnology (NIAB); Location: Hyderabad, Telangana; It is a constituent laboratory of CSIR (Council of Scientific and Industrial Research) under the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research (DSIR), Ministry of Science and Technology; Founded: 2010 (relatively new CSIR lab); Focus areas: Animal biotechnology, genomics, transgenics, stem cell research, reproductive biotechnology, livestock improvement; Significance of Animal Stem Cell Biobank: Conservation of endangered animal species (cells can be preserved for potential future cloning/revival); Livestock improvement through stem cell technologies; Development of cell-based therapies for animals; Research into disease resistance and genetic improvement; Applications include preserving genetic material of rare/endangered animals like the Asiatic lion, Snow leopard, One-horned rhinoceros; India's animal diversity: India is one of the world's most biodiverse countries — with 91,000+ known animal species; the biobank helps in conservation of this rich heritage.
Option (b) IIT Madras — Incorrect: IIT Madras (Indian Institute of Technology, Madras/Chennai) is a premier engineering and technology institution — while it conducts research in biotechnology, India's first animal stem cell biobank was inaugurated at NIAB, Hyderabad, not at IIT Madras.
Option (c) Indian Institute of Toxicology Research — Incorrect: IITR (Indian Institute of Toxicology Research) is a CSIR laboratory in Lucknow focused on toxicology research — it is not where India's first animal stem cell biobank was established; NIAB Hyderabad is the correct institution.
Option (d) Indian Institute of Science — Incorrect: IISc (Indian Institute of Science) in Bengaluru is India's premier research university — while it conducts cutting-edge research, India's first animal stem cell biobank was inaugurated at NIAB (National Institute of Animal Biotechnology), Hyderabad.

Correct Answer: Jallikattu — Option (c)
Jallikattu is the traditional sport of Tamil Nadu that involves taming/controlling a bull, practiced as part of the Mattu Pongal (Pongal) festival. About Jallikattu : Also known as Eruthazhuvuthal (bull embracing), Manju Virattu (chasing the bull), or Eru Thazhuvuthal ; It is a traditional bull-taming sport of Tamil Nadu with a history of over 2,000 years; Practiced during: Mattu Pongal — the third day of the Pongal festival (January 15-16 every year), which is dedicated to cattle; Process: A bull is released into a crowd, and participants (men) attempt to tame/hold onto the bull's hump for a specific distance or time; The goal is to grab the bull's hump and hold on — the bull owners win if the bull breaks free; Famous locations: Alanganallur and Palamedu in Madurai district are the most famous Jallikattu venues; Controversy: Jallikattu was banned by the Supreme Court in 2014 citing animal cruelty concerns; After massive protests across Tamil Nadu in January 2017 (especially Marina Beach, Chennai), the Tamil Nadu government promulgated an ordinance (followed by legislation) to allow Jallikattu ; Currently conducted under regulations to minimize animal cruelty; About the Pongal festival: 4-day harvest festival of Tamil Nadu (celebrated in January): Day 1 — Bhogi Pongal; Day 2 — Thai Pongal (main day); Day 3 — Mattu Pongal (cattle day); Day 4 — Kaanum Pongal.
Option (a) Thang-Ta — Incorrect: Thang-Ta (also called Huyen Lallong) is a traditional martial art and dance of Manipur — it involves sword (Thang) and spear (Ta) fighting; it is NOT from Tamil Nadu and has no connection to bull-taming or the Pongal festival.
Option (b) Vallam Kali — Incorrect: Vallam Kali (Snake Boat Race) is a traditional water sport/boat race of Kerala — featuring decorated longboats raced on Kerala's backwaters during Onam festival; it is NOT from Tamil Nadu and does not involve bull-taming.
Option (d) Bihu Nas — Incorrect: Bihu Nas (Bihu dance) is a traditional folk dance of Assam performed during the Bihu festival — it is NOT from Tamil Nadu and has nothing to do with bull-taming; the Bihu festival is Assam's spring harvest festival. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Canada — Option (d)
Canada is NOT one of the primary target countries where KABIL is looking to acquire Lithium and Cobalt mineral assets. About KABIL: Full name: Khanij Bidesh India Limited; Established: 2019; It is a joint venture company formed by three Navratna CPSEs (Central Public Sector Enterprises): NALCO (National Aluminium Company Limited), HCL (Hindustan Copper Limited), MECL (Mineral Exploration Corporation Limited); Purpose: To identify, acquire, explore, and develop strategic mineral assets (critical minerals) abroad for India's domestic needs; Focus minerals: Lithium (for EV batteries, energy storage), Cobalt (for batteries, aerospace), Nickel, and other critical minerals; Countries where KABIL is actively pursuing acquisitions: Argentina: MoU signed with CAMYEN SE (Catamarca province) for lithium exploration; Argentina is part of the 'Lithium Triangle' (Argentina, Bolivia, Chile — which hold over 50% of world's lithium reserves); Chile: One of the world's top lithium producers; KABIL exploring opportunities; Australia: Rich in both lithium (major global producer) and cobalt; KABIL is exploring Australian mineral opportunities; Bolivia: Part of the Lithium Triangle; Significant lithium salt flats (Salar de Uyuni); Canada: While Canada has significant mineral resources (nickel, cobalt in Ontario), Canada is NOT typically listed as a primary target country for KABIL's current strategic mineral acquisition efforts.
Option (a) Australia — Incorrect: Australia IS one of KABIL's target countries — Australia is among the world's top lithium and cobalt producers; KABIL is actively exploring acquisition opportunities there; Australia is therefore NOT the answer to 'which is NOT a target country'.
Option (b) Argentina — Incorrect: Argentina IS a major target country for KABIL — KABIL signed an MoU with Argentina's CAMYEN SE for lithium exploration in the Catamarca region; Argentina is part of the 'Lithium Triangle'; therefore Argentina is a KABIL target, not the answer. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Chile — Incorrect: Chile IS a target country for KABIL's mineral acquisition efforts — Chile is the world's second-largest lithium producer and has significant cobalt reserves; Chile is part of the 'Lithium Triangle' and KABIL is exploring opportunities there.

Correct Answer: Berlin — Option (a)
Usain Bolt set his 100 meter world record in Berlin, Germany in 2009. About Usain Bolt's 2009 Berlin World Record: Event: 2009 World Athletics Championships (IAAF World Championships in Athletics); Venue: Olympiastadion Berlin, Berlin, Germany; Date: August 16, 2009; World Record: 9.58 seconds — the current world record in 100 metres (as of 2026); Previous record: Bolt's own record of 9.69 seconds (set at the 2008 Beijing Olympics); Bolt's 100m world records progression: 9.76 seconds (2007) — Rieti, Italy; 9.72 seconds (2008) — New York; 9.69 seconds (2008) — Beijing Olympics; 9.58 seconds (2009) — Berlin World Championships (current WR); At the same 2009 Berlin championships, Bolt also set the 200m world record: 19.19 seconds; Usain Bolt's achievements: Born: August 21, 1986, Trelawny, Jamaica; Retired: 2017; 8 Olympic Gold Medals (100m, 200m, 4×100m relay — 2008, 2012, 2016 — though 2017 relay DQ changed some counts); 11 World Championship Gold Medals; Currently holds world records in 100m (9.58s) and 200m (19.19s); Nicknamed 'Lightning Bolt'; Considered the greatest sprinter in history.
Option (b) New York City — Incorrect: Usain Bolt did set a 100m world record (9.72 seconds) in New York City (Reebok Grand Prix, 2008) — but his MOST FAMOUS and CURRENT world record of 9.58 seconds was set in Berlin (2009 World Championships), not New York. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Beijing — Incorrect: Usain Bolt set the 100m Olympic record (and then-world record) of 9.69 seconds in Beijing at the 2008 Olympics — but the 2009 world record of 9.58 seconds was set in Berlin; Beijing was 2008, not 2009.
Option (d) Seoul — Incorrect: Seoul is historically famous for Ben Johnson's 100m record (9.79s) at the 1988 Seoul Olympics — later disqualified due to doping; Usain Bolt set his 2009 world record of 9.58 seconds in Berlin, not Seoul.

Correct Answer: 2 — Option (a)
In football (soccer), there are 2 types of free kicks awarded based on the nature of the offence. The two types of free kicks in football: Direct Free Kick: Awarded for more serious offences — deliberately kicking, tripping, jumping at, charging, striking (or attempting to), pushing an opponent; deliberate handball (except for the goalkeeper in the penalty area); Can be scored DIRECTLY by kicking the ball straight into the goal (without any other player touching it); If a direct free kick is awarded inside the penalty area, it becomes a PENALTY KICK; Indirect Free Kick: Awarded for less serious/technical offences — dangerous play (not involving physical contact), obstruction, goalkeeper offences (handling a back-pass), offside, goalkeeper holding the ball for more than 6 seconds; The ball MUST touch at least one other player (from either team) before it can score; The referee signals an indirect free kick by raising one arm upward (which remains raised until the ball is touched); Key distinction: The NATURE of the offence determines which type is awarded: physical foul = direct; technical offence = indirect; About football rules: Governed by FIFA (Fédération Internationale de Football Association); Laws of the Game are maintained by IFAB (International Football Association Board); Football is played with 11 players per side on a rectangular field.
Option (b) 3 — Incorrect: There are only 2 types of free kicks in football (Direct and Indirect) — not 3; the penalty kick is sometimes counted separately, but it is a consequence of a direct free kick offence inside the penalty area, not a third TYPE of free kick.
Option (c) 4 — Incorrect: Football has 2 types of free kicks (Direct and Indirect) based on the nature of the offence — not 4. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) 5 — Incorrect: There are 2 types of free kicks in football — Direct and Indirect — not 5; 5 is not the correct number of free kick types in association football.

Correct Answer: Only I — Option (a)
Only Statement I is correct about G-20. Statement I Analysis — 'G-20 summit is organized every year' (CORRECT): The G-20 Leaders' Summit is indeed held every year — rotating among member countries; Past summits: 2018 — Buenos Aires, Argentina; 2019 — Osaka, Japan; 2020 — Riyadh, Saudi Arabia (virtual due to COVID); 2021 — Rome, Italy; 2022 — Bali, Indonesia; 2023 — New Delhi, India; 2024 — Rio de Janeiro, Brazil; 2025 — Johannesburg, South Africa; The Presidency rotates annually among G-20 members; Statement II Analysis — 'India has not hosted any summit after its establishment' (INCORRECT): India DID host the G-20 Leaders' Summit on September 9-10, 2023 in New Delhi; Venue: Bharat Mandapam, Pragati Maidan, New Delhi; Key outcome: The New Delhi Declaration (consensus document adopted by all 20 members); Significant achievement: The African Union (AU) was admitted as a permanent G-20 member during the India Presidency; India's G-20 theme: ' Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam ' (One Earth, One Family, One Future); Statement II is therefore INCORRECT — India has hosted a G-20 summit.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Statement II ('India has not hosted any summit') is FALSE — India hosted the G-20 Summit in September 2023 in New Delhi; Statement II cannot be 'correct'; Only Statement I is correct.
Option (c) Both I and II — Incorrect: Statement I is correct (G-20 summit is held every year) but Statement II is INCORRECT (India DID host the 2023 G-20 Summit); therefore 'Both I and II' is wrong. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Statement I IS correct — the G-20 Leaders' Summit IS organized every year; 'Neither I nor II' would mean both statements are wrong, which is incorrect since Statement I is true.

Correct Answer: 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz — Option (c)
The audible range of sound for humans is 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz (20 kHz). Classification of sound by frequency: Infrasound: Below 20 Hz; Humans cannot hear these frequencies; Produced by earthquakes, volcanoes, waterfalls, large animals (elephants, whales); Some animals (elephants, rhinoceroses) use infrasound for long-distance communication; Audible sound (for humans): 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz (20 kHz); This is the normal human hearing range; The range narrows with age — older adults typically cannot hear frequencies above 15,000-16,000 Hz; Ultrasound: Above 20,000 Hz (20 kHz); Humans cannot hear these frequencies; Bats and dolphins use ultrasound for echolocation (navigation and hunting); Applications: medical ultrasound imaging, sonar, industrial testing (non-destructive testing); Dog hearing: 40 Hz to 65,000 Hz (hence dog whistles work at frequencies humans cannot hear); Bat hearing: 20 Hz to 120,000 Hz; Dolphin hearing: up to 150,000 Hz; About sound: Sound is a mechanical wave that requires a medium (solid, liquid, or gas) to propagate; Speed of sound in air at 20°C: approximately 343 m/s; Speed increases in denser media: faster in water (1,480 m/s) and even faster in solids (steel: ~5,000 m/s).
Option (a) 2 Hz to 2000 kHz — Incorrect: The human audible range starts at 20 Hz (not 2 Hz) and ends at 20,000 Hz = 20 kHz (not 2000 kHz); 2000 kHz = 2,000,000 Hz is far beyond any biological hearing range.
Option (b) 20 Hz to 200 kHz — Incorrect: The human audible range is 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz (20 kHz) — NOT up to 200 kHz; 200 kHz = 200,000 Hz is well into the ultrasound range; some bats and marine mammals can hear up to such frequencies, but not humans.
Option (d) 20 Hz to 2000 Hz — Incorrect: The human audible range extends up to 20,000 Hz (20 kHz) — NOT just 2,000 Hz; 2,000 Hz is only 2 kHz, which is a mid-frequency sound; limiting human hearing to 2,000 Hz is incorrect. The candidate selected this incorrect option.