SSC GD 2026 25 May 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Chaniya Choli with ornaments (traditional skirt and blouse) — Option (b)
Women who perform Tippani dance wear Chaniya Choli with ornaments as their traditional attire. About Tippani Dance: Tippani (also spelled Tippani or Tipani ) is a traditional folk dance of Gujarat, primarily from the Saurashtra region (especially the Bhavnagar and Amreli districts); Originally performed by women from the Koli and Charan communities; The dance involves women using a long-handled tipped stick (called ' tippani ') that they strike on the ground rhythmically while moving in groups; Traditional attire: Women performers wear the colorful Chaniya Choli ( Ghagra -Choli) — a traditional three-piece outfit consisting of a long circular skirt (Chaniya/ Ghagra ), blouse (Choli), and a dupatta/ odhni ; They adorn themselves with traditional Gujarati jewelry such as: Necklaces ( har ), bangles ( chuda ), earrings, and anklets; The costumes are usually brightly colored and embroidered; Cultural significance: Tippani dance is associated with the festival season; It symbolizes the hard work of construction laborers — the original performers were women laborers who compacted mud/soil using tipped sticks; The dance has been performed on national and international stages representing Gujarati folk culture; Recognized as part of India's rich intangible cultural heritage.
Option (a) Saree with heavy jewelry — Incorrect: While saree is a common Indian attire, Tippani dancers specifically wear Chaniya Choli (the traditional Gujarati three-piece outfit), not a saree; the distinctive colorful skirt-blouse combination is characteristic of this folk dance.
Option (c) Simple cotton dress — Incorrect: Tippani dancers wear the elaborate, colorful Chaniya Choli with traditional ornaments — not a simple cotton dress; the attire is vibrant and adorned with traditional Gujarati embroidery and jewelry.
Option (d) Pants and shirt — Incorrect: Pants and shirt are modern Western attire and have no connection with the traditional Tippani folk dance of Gujarat; performers wear the traditional Chaniya Choli with ornaments.

Correct Answer: SLV-3 — Option (a)
The SLV-3 (Satellite Launch Vehicle-3) was India's indigenous launch vehicle used for satellite launches in the 1980s. About SLV-3: Full name: Satellite Launch Vehicle-3; Developed under: Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (Project Director); Development organization: ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation ); Launch history: First test launch: 10 August 1979 (SLV-3 E1) — failed; First successful launch: 18 July 1980 — placed Rohini RS-1 satellite in orbit (India became 6th country to launch a satellite indigenously); Total launches: 4 (1979, 1980, 1981, 1983); The 1980 launch made India the first country in Asia to launch a satellite with its own rocket; Payload capacity: ~40 kg to Low Earth Orbit (LEO); Configuration: 4-stage solid- fuelled rocket; The SLV-3 demonstrated India's capability to develop indigenous space launch technology; About other launch vehicles: PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle): Became operational in 1993 — first successful launch September 1994; ASLV (Augmented Satellite Launch Vehicle): Successor to SLV-3; first flight 1987 but first successful mission in 1992; GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle): First launch 2001; used for heavier satellites; Chronological order of ISRO launch vehicles: SLV-3 (1980) → ASLV (1987/1992) → PSLV (1993/1994) → GSLV (2001).
Option (b) PSLV — Incorrect: The PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) became operational in 1994, not the 1980s; it was NOT used in the 1980s; the SLV-3 was India's indigenous launch vehicle of the 1980s. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) ASLV — Incorrect: The ASLV (Augmented Satellite Launch Vehicle) was developed after SLV-3 — its first test flight was in 1987 and first successful mission was in 1992; while it partially overlaps with the 1980s, the vehicle specifically used in early 1980s Indian satellite launches was SLV-3.
Option (d) GSLV — Incorrect: The GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) first flew in April 2001 — it was developed much later and has no connection with 1980s satellite launches; SLV-3 is the correct answer for the 1980s launch vehicle.

Correct Answer: 1997 — Option (a)
The history of Indian Grand Prix started from 1997, when there was a plan to host the Indian Grand Prix in Kolkata. About the Indian Grand Prix history: 1997: The concept of hosting a Formula 1 Grand Prix in India was first seriously discussed in 1997, with Kolkata proposed as a potential venue; Early 2000s: Various proposals were made for different Indian cities; 2007: An agreement was made with Formula One Management (FOM); 2011: The first Indian Grand Prix was successfully held at Buddh International Circuit (BIC) in Greater Noida, Uttar Pradesh; 2011-2013: India hosted Formula 1 for three consecutive years; 2011 winner: Sebastian Vettel (Red Bull Racing); 2012 winner: Sebastian Vettel; 2013 winner: Sebastian Vettel; After 2013: India was dropped from the F1 calendar due to high taxes, infrastructure issues; About Buddh International Circuit (BIC): Located in Greater Noida, Uttar Pradesh (near Delhi); Circuit length: 5.125 km; Designed by Hermann Tilke; Was one of the most technologically advanced Formula 1 circuits when built; About Formula 1: Governed by FIA (Fédération Internationale de l'Automobile ); World's premier motorsport championship; Sebastian Vettel dominated the Indian GP during all three editions.
Option (b) 1994 — Incorrect: The planning and discussions for an Indian Grand Prix did not start in 1994; the first serious discussions about hosting F1 in India, particularly with Kolkata as a proposed venue, began in 1997. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) 1991 — Incorrect: 1991 has no historical connection to the planning of the Indian Grand Prix; the history of the Indian GP starting from this year is not supported by available records.
Option (d) 1981 — Incorrect: 1981 is far too early in the context of Indian Grand Prix planning discussions; the concept of hosting Formula 1 in India at Kolkata was discussed from 1997 onwards, not in 1981.

Correct Answer: Power tumbling — Option (a)
Power Tumbling is a gymnastics discipline and is commonly associated with gymnastics. About Power Tumbling: Power Tumbling is a gymnastics discipline recognized by FIG (Fédération Internationale de Gymnastique ); Involves performing a series of acrobatic skills (somersaults, twists, saltos ) on a 25-metre long spring track; The spring track is specially constructed for maximum bounce/spring; Gymnasts perform 8 tumbling passes (somersaults and twists) in a run; Skills include: back-flips, aerials, front/back somersaults with multiple twists; Major power tumbling skills: Round-off back-handspring double back tuck, Whip-backs, Triple twisting double somersault; It requires a combination of speed, strength, power, and body coordination; Part of the Trampoline Gymnastics discipline under FIG; Olympic connection: Trampoline gymnastics is an Olympic sport (since Sydney 2000), and power tumbling is closely related; Gymnastics disciplines: Artistic Gymnastics (floor exercise, vault, bars, beam), Rhythmic Gymnastics, Trampoline Gymnastics (including Power Tumbling), Acrobatic Gymnastics, Aerobic Gymnastics.
Option (b) Pen hold grip — Incorrect: Pen hold grip is a table tennis (ping pong) technique where the racket is held between the thumb and index finger, resembling how one holds a pen; it has NO connection to gymnastics. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Side spin drive — Incorrect: Side spin drive is a table tennis stroke technique where the ball is hit with sidespin; it is completely unrelated to gymnastics; gymnastics involves acrobatic body movements, not racket sports.
Option (d) Popping crease — Incorrect: Popping crease is a cricket term — it is a line marked on the cricket pitch 4 feet in front of the stumps; it defines the batting crease and no-ball line; it has absolutely no connection to gymnastics.

Correct Answer: Hampi — Option (b)
Vitthalswami Temple ( Vittala Temple) is located in Hampi , Karnataka. About Vittala Temple ( Vitthalswami Temple): Location: Hampi , Vijayanagara district (formerly Bellary district), Karnataka, India; Built during: Vijayanagara Empire period (primarily 15th-16th century); Dedicated to: Lord Vittala (a form of Vishnu); Famous for: Stone Chariot (Garuda Ratha): A beautifully carved stone chariot in the temple courtyard — now appears on the Indian Rs. 50 note; Musical Pillars: 56 musical pillars that produce musical notes when struck ( Saregama /musical scale sounds) — hence also called 'Musical Pillars Temple'; The pillars are called 'Sargam' or 'Musical Pillars'; Architecture: Dravidian style of architecture at its finest; Contains elaborate carvings, mandapas (pillared halls), and gateways (gopurams); About Hampi : UNESCO World Heritage Site (inscribed 1986) as the 'Group of Monuments at Hampi '; It was the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire (14th-16th century); Hampi is situated on the banks of the Tungabhadra River; Other notable temples in Hampi : Virupaksha Temple, Hazara Rama Temple, Lakshmi Narasimha statue.
Option (a) Puri — Incorrect: Puri in Odisha is famous for the Jagannath Temple (not Vitthalswami Temple); the Vittala / Vitthalswami Temple is in Hampi , Karnataka.
Option (c) Dispur — Incorrect: Dispur is the capital of Assam — it has no famous Vitthalswami temple; the Vitthalswami Temple is in Hampi , Karnataka.
Option (d) Gwalior — Incorrect: Gwalior in Madhya Pradesh is famous for the Gwalior Fort, Sas-Bahu temples, and Tansen's tomb — not for the Vitthalswami Temple; the Vitthalswami Temple is in Hampi , Karnataka.

Correct Answer: Kashmir — Option (a)
' Sufiana Kalam' is a classical Sufi music tradition associated with Kashmir. About Sufiana Kalam: Also spelled: Sufiana Kalaam , Sufiana Kalam; Origin: Kashmir Valley, Jammu and Kashmir; Type: Classical Sufi devotional music; ' Sufiana ' means 'of or relating to Sufism' (Islamic mysticism); 'Kalam' means 'word/speech' — referring to the devotional poetry sung in this tradition; Unique feature: It uses its own ragas called 'Maqam' ( Muqam ) — these are not the same as Hindustani classical ragas; The Maqam system has 6 main Maqams (modes/ragas) unique to Sufiana Kalam; Language: Persian and Kashmiri; Instruments used: Santoor (100-string struck dulcimer — most prominently), Sitar, Tabla , Wasul (a string instrument); Famous exponent: Ustad Mohammad Yaqoob Mashroo (renowned Sufiana Kalam artist from Kashmir); Cultural significance: Sufiana Kalam represents a unique synthesis of Persian Sufi poetry with the melodic traditions of the Kashmir Valley; It is a centuries-old tradition that flourished under the patronage of Kashmir's rulers; It has been performed in 'Mehfils' (musical gatherings) in Kashmir for generations; UNESCO recognition: Sufiana Kalam has been recognized as part of Kashmir's intangible cultural heritage.
Option (b) Kerala — Incorrect: Kerala is not associated with Sufiana Kalam; Kerala's classical music tradition includes Carnatic music, Sopana Sangeetham (temple music), and folk forms like Thiruvathirakali songs; Sufiana Kalam is specifically from Kashmir.
Option (c) Telangana — Incorrect: Telangana is associated with Carnatic classical music, Perini dance, and folk traditions like Lambadi — not with Sufiana Kalam; this Sufi classical music form is exclusively from the Kashmir Valley. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) West Bengal — Incorrect: West Bengal is famous for Baul music, Rabindra Sangeet (Tagore's songs), and Kirtan — not Sufiana Kalam; the Sufiana Kalam tradition with its unique Maqam ragas is specific to Kashmir.

Correct Answer: Victim-centric and restorative justice — Option (d)
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS) focuses on victim-centric and restorative justice. About Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023: The BNS replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 and came into effect from 1 July 2024; Part of the three criminal law reforms: BNS (replaced IPC), Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita/BNSS (replaced CrPC), Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam /BSA (replaced Indian Evidence Act); Key focus — Victim-centric justice: BNS shifts the focus from punishment- centric to victim-centric approach; Restorative justice: Emphasis on restitution to victims, community service, and rehabilitation; New provisions: Organized crime and terrorism defined explicitly; Community service introduced as punishment for minor offences; Trial in absentia allowed for those who flee; Terrorism given a broader definition; Sedition provisions modified; Fast-track trials for certain offences; Differences from IPC: IPC was a colonial law focused on maintaining British colonial order; BNS focuses on Indian constitutional values and victim welfare; IPC had 511 sections; BNS has 358 sections (restructured and rationalized); Historical context: IPC was drafted by the First Law Commission chaired by Lord Macaulay (1834) and enacted in 1860 — a colonial penal code.
Option (a) Colonial Penal Code — Incorrect: The BNS was specifically designed to REPLACE the Colonial Penal Code (IPC 1860) — the BNS moves AWAY from colonial justice; calling it a colonial penal code is the opposite of what BNS represents.
Option (b) Jury-based trial — Incorrect: India abolished the jury system in 1960 after the Nanavati case; BNS does NOT introduce jury-based trials; the Indian justice system uses judges to decide cases; this option has no connection to BNS. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Accused-oriented leniency — Incorrect: BNS does not focus on accused-oriented leniency — on the contrary, it introduces stricter provisions for serious crimes; the focus is on victim-centric justice, not on being lenient to the accused.

Correct Answer: 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015 — Option (c)
The 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015 gave effect to the acquisition of certain territories by India and transfer of certain territories to Bangladesh. About the 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015: This amendment implemented the Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) between India and Bangladesh; The original LBA was signed in 1974 (Indira Gandhi and Sheikh Mujibur Rahman) but was ratified only in 2015 under PM Narendra Modi and PM Sheikh Hasina; Key provisions of the amendment: India acquired 51 Bangladeshi enclaves within Indian territory (~17,160 acres); India transferred 111 Indian enclaves within Bangladesh to Bangladesh (~17,161 acres); The amendment added/modified the First Schedule of the Constitution relating to territories of India; What are enclaves (chitmahals)? Enclaves are small pockets of land from one country completely surrounded by territory of another country; These enclaves existed due to historical wager games between the rulers of Koch Bihar and Rangpur in the 17th-18th centuries; Effect: Approximately 50,000 people living in these enclaves were given the choice of citizenship; Most chose to remain where they were and take the respective country's citizenship; This historic settlement resolved a 68-year-old border issue between India and Bangladesh.
Option (a) 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 — Incorrect: The 91st Amendment Act (2003) amended Articles 75 and 164 to cap the size of the Council of Ministers at 15% of the total members of the legislature — it has nothing to do with India-Bangladesh territorial exchange.
Option (b) 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 — Incorrect: The 97th Amendment Act (2011) dealt with Co-operative Societies — it inserted Part IXB (Articles 243ZH to 243ZT) in the Constitution relating to co-operatives; it has no connection with India-Bangladesh territorial exchange. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) 96th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 — Incorrect: The 96th Amendment Act (2011) substituted the entry 'Oriya' with 'Odia' in the Eighth Schedule (recognized languages); it has no connection with India-Bangladesh territorial exchange; the 100th Amendment Act is correct.

Correct Answer: Constitutional Amendment Bill — Option (b)
In India, Rajya Sabha has powers equal to Lok Sabha in passing a Constitutional Amendment Bill. About Rajya Sabha's equal powers in Constitutional Amendment Bill: Article 368 of the Constitution deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution; For a Constitutional Amendment Bill: Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha must pass it separately (no joint sitting possible); Each house must pass it by a special majority — 2/3 of members present and voting AND majority of total membership; Rajya Sabha has an EQUAL say — it can reject or amend a constitutional amendment bill; The Bill must be passed by both houses separately — if Rajya Sabha rejects it, the Bill fails (unlike ordinary bills where a joint session can be called); About other powers and differences: Money Bill (Article 110): Lok Sabha has DOMINANT power — a Money Bill can only be introduced in Lok Sabha; Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations within 14 days, which Lok Sabha can accept or reject; Rajya Sabha has NO equal power here; No-confidence motion: Can only be passed in Lok Sabha against the Council of Ministers; Rajya Sabha has NO jurisdiction over no-confidence motions; Election of President (Article 54): Both houses participate BUT the vote is weighted by state representation — not exactly 'equal' in the same legislative sense; Special powers of Rajya Sabha: Rajya Sabha alone can pass resolutions (Art. 249) to allow Parliament to legislate on State List subjects; Rajya Sabha alone votes to create new All India Services (Art. 312).
Option (a) Money Bill — Incorrect: Rajya Sabha does NOT have equal powers in Money Bills — Money Bills can only be introduced in Lok Sabha; Rajya Sabha can only suggest amendments within 14 days; if Lok Sabha disagrees, Rajya Sabha's amendments are rejected; Lok Sabha has supreme power in Money Bills.
Option (c) No-confidence motion — Incorrect: No-confidence motion (Vote of No Confidence) can only be moved in Lok Sabha, not in Rajya Sabha; the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible only to Lok Sabha (not Rajya Sabha); Rajya Sabha has no role in no-confidence motions.
Option (d) Election of President — Incorrect: While both houses participate in the election of the President, the vote is proportionally weighted (based on state population and number of MLAs) — it is not a case where Rajya Sabha has 'equal' legislative powers in the same sense as Constitutional Amendment Bills. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Sawar — Option (b)
In the Mansabdari system, the cavalry soldiers maintained by the Mansabdar were referred to as 'Sawar.' About the Mansabdari System: Introduced by: Emperor Akbar (during the 1560s-1570s); The term 'Mansab' means rank or position; Each Mansabdar held two numerical ranks: (1) Zat rank: Personal rank of the mansabdar indicating his salary and status in the imperial hierarchy; (2) Sawar rank: Military rank indicating the number of cavalry (horsemen) the mansabdar was required to maintain; About Sawar: Sawar literally means 'rider' or 'cavalryman'; The sawar rank indicated the number of mounted soldiers (cavalry/horsemen) a mansabdar had to keep ready for the Mughal army; A mansabdar with 'Sawar' rank of 5000 had to maintain 5000 cavalry soldiers; The cavalry was a crucial component of the Mughal army; About other terms: Zat : The personal rank of the mansabdar (not the cavalry soldiers); Zamindar: Land revenue intermediaries — not directly part of the Mansabdari system's cavalry structure; Jagir: A land grant given to mansabdars to collect revenue as salary substitute (instead of cash payment); Types of Mansabdars : Emperor → Noble → Mansabdars at various levels (500-10,000 Zat ).
Option (a) Zat — Incorrect: Zat was the personal rank of the Mansabdar himself (indicating his salary and personal status in the Mughal hierarchy) — NOT the term for cavalry soldiers maintained by him; Sawar was the cavalry rank.
Option (c) Zamindar — Incorrect: Zamindar refers to landowning intermediaries who collected land revenue on behalf of the Mughal state — they were a separate category from Mansabdars ; the term for cavalry maintained by Mansabdars was Sawar. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Jagir — Incorrect: Jagir was a land grant/revenue assignment given to a Mansabdar as salary substitute — it was the land from which a Mansabdar collected revenue; it does NOT refer to cavalry soldiers; Sawar was the correct term for cavalry.

Correct Answer: A. Jayatilak — Option (a)
A. Jayatilak was appointed as the 50th Chief Secretary of Kerala in April 2025. About A. Jayatilak: A. Jayatilak is a senior IAS (Indian Administrative Service) officer of the Kerala cadre; He was appointed as the 50th Chief Secretary of Kerala in April 2025; As Chief Secretary, he is the highest-ranking civil servant in the state government of Kerala; He succeeded the previous Chief Secretary in this position; The Chief Secretary heads the state civil services and coordinates between various departments of the government; About the Chief Secretary position: The Chief Secretary is the top bureaucrat (IAS officer) in a state government; Appointed by the Chief Minister with the approval of the Cabinet; Functions as the principal adviser to the Chief Minister on administrative matters; Heads the state secretariat; Coordinates the work of all departments; About Kerala's government: Kerala is governed by the Left Democratic Front (LDF) under Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan; The state is known for its high human development indicators (Kerala Model); Capital: Thiruvananthapuram.
Option (b) Shailesh C. Mehta — Incorrect: Shailesh C. Mehta was not appointed as the 50th Chief Secretary of Kerala in April 2025; A. Jayatilak holds this position. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) S. Mahendra Dev — Incorrect: S. Mahendra Dev is an economist known for his work on agriculture and development — he is not a Kerala IAS officer; A. Jayatilak was appointed as the 50th Chief Secretary of Kerala in April 2025.
Option (d) Sudarshan Venu — Incorrect: Sudarshan Venu is associated with TVS Motors (CEO of TVS Motor Company) — not with the Kerala administrative service; the 50th Chief Secretary of Kerala is A. Jayatilak.

Correct Answer: Lt. Gen. Pratik Sharma — Option (b)
Lt. Gen. Pratik Sharma was appointed as the Commander-in-Chief of the Northern Army Command in May 2025. About Lt. Gen. Pratik Sharma: Lieutenant General Pratik Sharma is a senior Indian Army officer; He was appointed as the General Officer Commanding-in-Chief (GOC-in-C) of the Northern Army Command in May 2025; His appointment reflects the Indian Army's continued focus on operational readiness along the northern borders; About the Northern Army Command: The Northern Command is one of the seven commands of the Indian Army; Headquarters: Udhampur, Jammu and Kashmir; Area of responsibility: Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh, and parts of Himachal Pradesh; It is responsible for guarding India's borders with Pakistan (LoC) and China (LAC) in the northern sector; The Northern Command is considered one of the most strategically important commands given border disputes with both Pakistan and China; About Indian Army Commands: The Indian Army has 7 commands: Northern (Udhampur), Western (Chandigarh), South Western (Jaipur), Southern (Pune), Central (Lucknow), Eastern (Kolkata), Army Training Command (Shimla).
Option (a) Lt. Gen. Dheeraj Seth — Incorrect: Lt. Gen. Dheeraj Seth was not appointed as Commander-in-Chief of the Northern Army Command in May 2025; Lt. Gen. Pratik Sharma holds this position. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Lt. Gen. Anindya Sengupta — Incorrect: Lt. Gen. Anindya Sengupta was not appointed as the Commander-in-Chief of the Northern Army Command in May 2025; Lt. Gen. Pratik Sharma is the correct appointee.
Option (d) Lt. Gen. Ram Chandra Tiwari — Incorrect: Lt. Gen. Ram Chandra Tiwari was not appointed as the Commander-in-Chief of the Northern Army Command in May 2025; the correct answer is Lt. Gen. Pratik Sharma.

Correct Answer: IIT Guwahati — Option (d)
In February 2025, researchers from IIT Guwahati developed a water-repellent (hydrophobic), conductive textile. About the development: Institution: IIT Guwahati (Indian Institute of Technology Guwahati), Assam; Timeline: February 2025; Innovation: Water-repellent AND electrically conductive textile; About the technology: The textile combines two properties typically considered contradictory — water-repellency (hydrophobicity) and electrical conductivity; Traditional conductive materials are often hydrophilic (water-attracting), making water-repellent conductive textiles a significant technical achievement; Applications: Smart wearable electronics, health monitoring garments, military and defense applications, sportswear with electronic sensing capabilities, e-textiles for Internet of Things (IoT) devices; The development has potential for use in sensors, flexible electronics, and protective clothing; About IIT Guwahati: Established: 1994; Location: Guwahati, Assam (northeast India); One of the premier IITs known for research in materials science, biotechnology, and electronics; About conductive textiles in general: Conductive textiles contain electrically conductive materials (carbon nanotubes, silver nanowires, metallic fibres ) integrated into fabric; Used in wearable technology, smart clothing, medical sensors, and electromagnetic shielding.
Option (a) IIT Delhi — Incorrect: IIT Delhi did not develop water-repellent conductive textile in February 2025; this breakthrough was achieved by researchers at IIT Guwahati.
Option (b) IIT Madras — Incorrect: IIT Madras is not associated with this particular development in February 2025; the water-repellent conductive textile was developed by IIT Guwahati researchers.
Option (c) IIT Kharagpur — Incorrect: IIT Kharagpur did not develop this water-repellent conductive textile in February 2025; IIT Guwahati is the correct institution. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Cayman Islands — Option (a)
Cayman Islands is ranked 79th in the Global Business Complexity Index 2025. About the Global Business Complexity Index (GBCI): Published by: TMF Group (a global professional services firm); Purpose: Ranks countries and jurisdictions by the complexity of doing business there — covering factors like accounting, tax, HR, payroll, and legal compliance; Methodology: The index assesses how complex it is to establish and run businesses across various jurisdictions; Higher rank = More complex business environment; Lower rank = Simpler/easier business environment; 2025 rankings context: Most complex: Typically countries with intricate regulatory frameworks, multiple layers of compliance; Least complex: Countries with streamlined, simple business environments; Cayman Islands at 79th: The Cayman Islands (a British Overseas Territory in the Caribbean) ranked 79th in the GBCI 2025; Despite being known as a global financial centre with relatively light regulation, it appears at this rank due to specific compliance complexities; About Cayman Islands: Location: Caribbean Sea (British Overseas Territory); Known as: Global offshore financial centre ; Major industries: Financial services, banking, tourism; It is considered a tax haven with no direct taxes; About TMF Group: Global professional services company; Operates in 80+ countries; Helps businesses navigate complex regulatory environments.
Option (b) Netherlands — Incorrect: The Netherlands is NOT ranked 79th in the Global Business Complexity Index 2025; the Cayman Islands holds this rank; the Netherlands is known for its business-friendly environment and typically ranks differently in such indices.
Option (c) Norway — Incorrect: Norway is NOT ranked 79th in the Global Business Complexity Index 2025; the Cayman Islands is ranked 79th; Norway is known for its strong economy and transparent business environment.
Option (d) Mauritius — Incorrect: Mauritius is NOT ranked 79th in the Global Business Complexity Index 2025; the Cayman Islands holds the 79th rank; Mauritius is an African island nation known as a financial services hub with a relatively simple business environment. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Udhwa Lake — Option (a)
Udhwa Lake is the first Ramsar site of Jharkhand. About Udhwa Lake: Location: Sahebganj district, Jharkhand, on the banks of the Ganges (Ganga) river; Udhwa Lake was designated as Jharkhand's first Ramsar site; It is a natural floodplain wetland along the Ganga; Importance: It is a significant bird habitat — home to a large number of migratory birds, especially from Siberia and Central Asia; Species: Hosts various waterfowl, waders, herons, egrets, and other migratory birds; About the Ramsar Convention: International treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands; Named after Ramsar, Iran, where it was signed in 1971; India is a signatory (ratified 1982); A Ramsar site gets international recognition and protection; India has a growing list of Ramsar sites (75+ as of 2024); About other options: Khecheopalri Wetland: A sacred lake in Sikkim — a Ramsar site but not in Jharkhand; Sakkarkoil Bird Sanctuary: Located in Tamil Nadu — not related to Jharkhand's Ramsar sites; Therthangal Bird Sanctuary: Also in Tamil Nadu — not related to Jharkhand.
Option (b) Khecheopalri Wetland — Incorrect: Khecheopalri (also spelled Khicheodpalri ) is a lake in Sikkim — it is sacred to Buddhists and Hindus; while it has ecological significance, it is NOT in Jharkhand and is NOT Jharkhand's first Ramsar site.
Option (c) Sakkarkoil Bird Sanctuary — Incorrect: Sakkarkoil ( Sakkarakottai ) Bird Sanctuary is located in Ramanathapuram district, Tamil Nadu — it is not a Ramsar site of Jharkhand; Jharkhand's first Ramsar site is Udhwa Lake. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Therthangal Bird Sanctuary — Incorrect: Therthangal Bird Sanctuary is located in Ramanathapuram district, Tamil Nadu — it is not connected to Jharkhand; Udhwa Lake in Sahebganj , Jharkhand is the state's first Ramsar site.

Correct Answer: Diamond — Option (a)
Majhgawan mine in Madhya Pradesh is famous for Diamonds. About Majhgawan Diamond Mine: Location: Panna district, Madhya Pradesh; Operator: NMDC Limited (National Mineral Development Corporation); It is the only mechanized diamond mine in India; Type: Primary kimberlite diamond mine (diamonds found in volcanic kimberlite pipes); Historical context: The Panna diamond mines have been known since ancient times; The region was historically associated with diamond mining even during the Mughal era; Significance: India is one of the few countries in the world with diamond mines; Panna city is called the 'Diamond City of India'; The Majhgawan mine is India's principal source of natural diamonds; Production: The mine produces gem-quality and industrial-grade diamonds; Famous diamonds from Panna: The Panna mines have produced several famous diamonds throughout history; About diamonds in India: India was historically the world's only source of diamonds for centuries (before discoveries in Brazil in 1720s and South Africa in 1860s); Famous Indian diamonds: Koh-i-Noor (from Golconda mines, Andhra Pradesh), Hope Diamond, Orloff Diamond; Other mineral resources of Madhya Pradesh: Copper ( Malajkhand ), Coal ( Singrauli ), Limestone, Manganese.
Option (b) Lithium — Incorrect: Majhgawan mine is NOT famous for lithium; lithium deposits in India are found in Jammu and Kashmir ( Reasi district) and Rajasthan; the Majhgawan mine in Panna, MP is India's only mechanized diamond mine.
Option (c) Cobalt — Incorrect: Majhgawan mine is not associated with cobalt; cobalt is often found as a byproduct of nickel/copper mining; the Majhgawan mine in Panna, Madhya Pradesh is specifically famous for diamond mining.
Option (d) Silver — Incorrect: Majhgawan mine is not known for silver production; India's primary silver source is the Zawar mines in Rajasthan (lead-zinc-silver); the Majhgawan mine in Panna district, MP is famous for diamond production.

Correct Answer: South America — Option (d)
MERCOSUR is a trading bloc associated with South America. About MERCOSUR: Full name: Mercado Común del Sur (Southern Common Market) in Spanish; Established: 26 March 1991 by the Treaty of Asunción; Headquarters: Montevideo, Uruguay; Full members: Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, Uruguay, and Bolivia (Bolivia joined in 2024); Associate members: Chile, Colombia, Ecuador, Guyana, Peru, Suriname; Suspended member: Venezuela (suspended since 2016 for breach of democratic clause); About MERCOSUR's role: The largest trading bloc in Latin America; Allows free movement of goods, services, people, and capital among member countries; Accounts for approximately 70% of South America's GDP; Total GDP: Approximately US$ 2.2 trillion; Total population: Around 280 million people; MERCOSUR-EU Agreement: MERCOSUR and the European Union signed a historic trade agreement in 2019 (though full ratification was still pending); India-MERCOSUR: India and MERCOSUR signed a Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA) in 2004; MERCOSUR and trade: The bloc promotes reduced tariffs and common external tariffs among members; Functions similarly to the EU in terms of regional economic integration; Headquarters: Permanent administrative offices in Montevideo, Uruguay.
Option (a) Asia — Incorrect: MERCOSUR is a South American trading bloc — not an Asian organization; Asia has its own trade groupings like ASEAN (Southeast Asia), SAARC (South Asia), RCEP (Asia-Pacific).
Option (b) Europe — Incorrect: MERCOSUR is NOT a European trading bloc — Europe has the European Union (EU) as its major trade and political bloc; MERCOSUR is based in South America.
Option (c) Africa — Incorrect: MERCOSUR has no connection to Africa; Africa has its own regional economic communities like the African Union (AU), ECOWAS, SADC, etc.; MERCOSUR is specifically a South American trading bloc. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Janaagraha Centre for Citizenship and Democracy — Option (a)
The Annual Survey of India's City-Systems (ASICS) is published by Janaagraha Centre for Citizenship and Democracy. About Janaagraha Centre for Citizenship and Democracy: Type: Non-governmental organization (NGO); Headquarters: Bengaluru, Karnataka, India; Founded: 2001; Mission: To transform the quality of life in India's cities and towns by transforming urban governance; About ASICS (Annual Survey of India's City-Systems): Full form: Annual Survey of India's City-Systems; Published by: Janaagraha Centre for Citizenship and Democracy; Purpose: Evaluates and benchmarks urban governance in Indian cities; Covers: About 30-40 major cities across India; Parameters: Urban planning and design capacity, urban capacities and resources, empowered and legitimate political representation, transparency and accountability in urban governance; The ASICS report scores cities on these urban governance parameters; Significance: ASICS helps identify gaps in urban governance, best practices, and areas needing reform; It complements government schemes like Smart Cities Mission; It provides evidence-based data for urban policy reform; Other indices related to urban governance: Municipal Performance Index (MPI): By Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs; Ease of Living Index: Also by MoHUA ; Swachh Survekshan : Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (urban cleanliness).
Option (b) NITI Aayog — Incorrect: NITI Aayog publishes various indices (State Health Index, SDG India Index, Innovation Index) but NOT the Annual Survey of India's City-Systems (ASICS); ASICS is published by Janaagraha .
Option (c) Council for Social Development — Incorrect: The Council for Social Development (CSD) is a social science research institute — it does NOT publish the ASICS; the Annual Survey of India's City-Systems is published by Janaagraha Centre for Citizenship and Democracy. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment — Incorrect: This ministry deals with welfare of SC/ST/OBC and differently-abled persons — it does NOT publish urban governance surveys; ASICS is a Janaagraha publication focused on city governance systems.

Correct Answer: Jayaprakash Narayan — Option (d)
Jayaprakash Narayan, popularly known as ' Loknayak ' (People's Leader), gave the concept of 'Sampurna Kranti' (Total Revolution). About Jayaprakash Narayan (JP): Born: October 11, 1902, in Sitab Diara, Bihar; Died: October 8, 1979; Title: ' Loknayak ' (People's Leader) — given by the people of Bihar; He was a socialist activist, freedom fighter, and political reformer; About Sampurna Kranti (Total Revolution): On 5 June 1974, JP gave the call for 'Sampurna Kranti' (Total Revolution) at a massive rally in Patna (Gandhi Maidan); The concept involved revolution in all aspects of life — social, economic, political, cultural, intellectual, educational, and spiritual; This movement was launched against the government of Indira Gandhi, demanding her resignation over corruption, election fraud (Allahabad High Court judgment), and authoritarianism; The movement mobilized lakhs of students, farmers, and citizens across India; As a response, Prime Minister Indira Gandhi declared the Emergency (June 25, 1975 to March 21, 1977); Janata Party: After Emergency, JP united opposition parties into the Janata Party, which won the 1977 elections (India's first non-Congress government); Bharat Ratna: JP was awarded the Bharat Ratna (posthumously, 1999); Other contributions: JP participated in the Quit India Movement (1942); He was also a socialist thinker who advocated for Gandhian socialism.
Option (a) Morarji Desai — Incorrect: Morarji Desai was a senior Congress leader who later became India's 4th Prime Minister (1977-79) after the Emergency — he was part of the JP movement but was NOT known as ' Loknayak ' and did not give the concept of Sampurna Kranti; that was Jayaprakash Narayan.
Option (b) Rajendra Prasad — Incorrect: Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India (1950-1962) and a freedom fighter — he has no connection to the ' Loknayak ' title or 'Sampurna Kranti' concept; Jayaprakash Narayan authored this concept in 1974.
Option (c) Lal Bahadur Shastri — Incorrect: Lal Bahadur Shastri was India's 2nd Prime Minister (1964-1966), known for the slogan 'Jai Jawan Jai Kisan' and leadership during the 1965 war with Pakistan — he is not associated with ' Loknayak ' or 'Sampurna Kranti'; Jayaprakash Narayan is the correct answer.