SSC GD 2026 29 April 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Finance Commission — Option (c)
The Finance Commission is the constitutional body that recommends the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and States. Constitutional basis: Article 280 of the Indian Constitution provides for the constitution of the Finance Commission; The President of India constitutes the Finance Commission every five years (or earlier if necessary); Composition: A Chairman and four other members, appointed by the President; Key functions of the Finance Commission: Recommends the distribution between the Union and States of the net proceeds of taxes (vertical devolution); Recommends the allocation among States of the respective shares of such proceeds (horizontal devolution); Recommends grants-in-aid to States in need of assistance; Reviews the finances of the Union and States and makes recommendations; The 16th Finance Commission (constituted in 2023 under Dr. Arvind Panagariya) submitted its report for the period 2026-31.
Option (a) NITI Aayog — Incorrect: NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) is a policy think-tank set up in 2015 to replace the Planning Commission; it provides strategic and technical advice to the government but does NOT have the constitutional mandate to recommend tax distribution between Centre and States.
Option (b) Parliament — Incorrect: Parliament legislates on tax laws and decides the Union budget, but it does NOT specifically recommend the formula for distributing tax revenues between the Union and States — that is the constitutional role of the Finance Commission under Article 280. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Planning Commission — Incorrect: The Planning Commission (dissolved in 2014, replaced by NITI Aayog) was responsible for planning economic development and allocating resources; it was NOT the body constitutionally mandated to recommend distribution of tax revenues between Union and States — that role belongs to the Finance Commission.

Correct Answer: Reduce salaries of government employees — Option (a)
Under Article 360 (Financial Emergency) of the Indian Constitution, the President can, among other things, reduce the salaries of government employees. Powers of the President during Financial Emergency (Article 360): The President can give directions to any State to observe such canons of financial propriety as may be specified in the direction; The President can direct that all Money Bills or other Financial Bills passed by the State Legislature shall be reserved for the consideration of the President; The President can issue directions for reduction of salaries and allowances of ALL persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union, including Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts; Note: A Financial Emergency has never been proclaimed in India since the Constitution came into force.
Option (b) Dismiss State Governments — Incorrect: Dismissing State Governments (imposition of President's Rule) is done under Article 356 (State Emergency), not under Article 360 (Financial Emergency); the two types of emergencies are distinct constitutional provisions. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.
Option (c) Dissolve Parliament — Incorrect: The President does not have the power to dissolve Parliament (Lok Sabha) during a Financial Emergency; dissolution of the Lok Sabha follows the advice of the Prime Minister or upon loss of confidence; it has no connection to Article 360.
Option (d) Suspend Fundamental Rights — Incorrect: Suspension of Fundamental Rights (specifically Article 19 rights) can occur during a National Emergency under Article 352 and Article 358-359; suspension of Fundamental Rights is NOT a consequence of a Financial Emergency under Article 360.

Correct Answer: It uses many raga names still in use today — Option (c)
The Raga Tarangini (also written as Ragatarangini ) is an important medieval treatise on Indian classical music, authored by Locana Kavi (believed to have been composed around the 14th-15th century). It is considered highly important in Hindustani music history primarily because it documents and uses many raga names that are still in use today in Hindustani (North Indian) classical music. Significance of Raga Tarangini: It provides detailed descriptions of numerous ragas with their characteristics, moods (rasas), and appropriate times of performance; Many raga names and classifications mentioned in the text have survived into the modern Hindustani music tradition; The text bridges ancient music theory with medieval and modern Hindustani practice; It is an invaluable historical record of the evolution of raga nomenclature and classification in Indian classical music.
Option (a) It uses only southern ragas — Incorrect: The Raga Tarangini does not exclusively use southern (Carnatic) ragas; it is a text relevant to the Hindustani (North Indian) classical music tradition and documents ragas from both traditions, making it important for the history of Indian music broadly.
Option (b) It introduces tabla and harmonium — Incorrect: The tabla and harmonium are instruments that became prominent in Hindustani music much later; the Raga Tarangini's historical importance lies in its documentation of raga names and theory, not in introducing specific instruments.
Option (d) It rejects traditional Indian theories — Incorrect: The Raga Tarangini does not reject traditional Indian music theories; on the contrary, it is valued precisely because it upholds and documents traditional raga theory and nomenclature in a way that connects ancient and modern practice.

Correct Answer: Chidambara — Option (c)
Sumitranandan Pant received the Jnanpith Award — India's highest literary honour — in 1968 for his poetic collection 'Chidambara'. Key facts about Sumitranandan Pant: He was born on May 20, 1900 in Kausani, Uttarakhand (then United Provinces) and passed away on December 28, 1977; He is one of the greatest and most celebrated poets of the Chhayavad (Romantic movement) in Hindi literature; Padma Bhushan (1961), Sahitya Akademi Award (1960), and Jnanpith Award (1968) are among his honours . Major works: Veena (1918) — his first published collection; Pallav (1926) — considered a masterpiece of Chhayavad poetry; Gunjan (1932); Gramya (1940); Yugvani (1938); Chidambara (1958) — the Jnanpith-winning collection; Kala Aur Budhha Chand (1959). A museum in his memory — 'Sumitranandan Pant Veetheeka ' — exists in Kausani, Uttarakhand.
Option (a) Pallav — Incorrect: Pallav (1926) is one of Pant's most celebrated works and a landmark of Chhayavad poetry; however, it did not win him the Jnanpith Award — that honour went to 'Chidambara' (1958).
Option (b) Kala Aur Budhha Chand — Incorrect: 'Kala Aur Budhha Chand' (1959) is another important work by Sumitranandan Pant that won the Sahitya Akademi Award; it is NOT the Jnanpith Award-winning collection — that was 'Chidambara'.
Option (d) Veena — Incorrect: 'Veena' (1918) was Pant's debut/first published poetic collection; while it introduced him as a significant Hindi poet, it did not win the Jnanpith Award — 'Chidambara' is the correct Jnanpith-winning collection. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Virat Kohli — Option (d)
Virat Kohli won the ICC Men's ODI Cricketer of the Year award for 2023 (announced at the ICC Awards ceremony in January 2024). Virat Kohli's outstanding 2023 ODI performance: He scored 765 runs in the 2023 ICC Cricket World Cup (held in India) at an average of 95.62, making him the highest run-scorer in the tournament; He scored 3 centuries and 6 half-centuries in the World Cup; He broke Sachin Tendulkar's record of 49 ODI centuries, achieving his 50th ODI century during the 2023 World Cup; He was the leading run-scorer in ODIs in 2023 overall; He was named the ICC Men's Cricketer of the Year (Sir Garfield Sobers Trophy) as well for 2023. This was his third time winning the ICC ODI Cricketer of the Year award (previously won in 2012 and 2017).
Option (a) Pat Cummins — Incorrect: Pat Cummins (Australia's captain) won the ICC Men's Test Cricketer of the Year award for 2023 and led Australia to the World Cup title; he did not win the ICC Men's ODI Cricketer of the Year — that award went to Virat Kohli.
Option (b) Suryakumar Yadav — Incorrect: Suryakumar Yadav won the ICC Men's T20I Cricketer of the Year award for 2023 (and also for 2022); he is renowned for his T20 batting, not ODIs — the ODI Cricketer of the Year for 2023 was Virat Kohli.
Option (c) Usman Khawaja — Incorrect: Usman Khawaja had an outstanding Test career performance in 2023 for Australia; however, he did not win the ICC Men's ODI Cricketer of the Year award for 2023 — that was won by Virat Kohli.

Correct Answer: 1960 — Option (b)
India's men's national football team last qualified for (and participated in) the Olympic Games at the 1960 Rome Olympics. History of India in Olympic Football: 1948 London Olympics: India participated and lost 2-0 to France; 1952 Helsinki Olympics: India participated and lost 1-10 to Yugoslavia; 1956 Melbourne Olympics: India's best performance — they finished 4th place (won bronze play-off tie vs. Bulgaria but lost the bronze medal on goal average); 1960 Rome Olympics: India qualified and participated — they were eliminated in the first round (lost 1-3 to Hungary); After 1960, India could not qualify for the Olympic Games football tournament. Why India stopped qualifying: The standard of Indian football fell relative to the improving global level; The transition from barefoot to boot football was one challenge cited; Changes in FIFA qualification criteria and the increasing competitiveness of Asian football made it harder for India to qualify.
Option (a) 1956 — Incorrect: India participated in the 1956 Melbourne Olympics football tournament and had their best-ever Olympic football performance (finishing 4th), but India ALSO participated in 1960, making 1956 not the LAST time; the last qualifying was 1960.
Option (c) 1964 — Incorrect: India did not participate in the 1964 Tokyo Olympics football tournament; the last time India qualified and participated in Olympic football was the 1960 Rome Olympics.
Option (d) 1972 — Incorrect: India did not qualify for the 1972 Munich Olympics football tournament; the last Olympic football participation for India was the 1960 Rome Olympics. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.

Correct Answer: Event Horizon Telescope — Option (b)
The Event Horizon Telescope (EHT) provided the first-ever direct image of a black hole, released on April 10, 2019. Key facts: The image captured was of the supermassive black hole M87* (located at the center of the Messier 87 galaxy, about 55 million light-years from Earth); The EHT is not a single telescope but a network of synchronized radio telescopes spread across the globe (in Hawaii, Arizona, Chile, Spain, Mexico, and the South Pole), forming a virtual telescope the size of Earth; The image showed the black hole's shadow (event horizon) surrounded by a bright ring of superheated plasma; In May 2022, the EHT also released the first image of Sagittarius A* ( Sgr A*) — the supermassive black hole at the center of our own Milky Way galaxy; The EHT collaboration received the Breakthrough Prize in Fundamental Physics in 2019 for this achievement.
Option (a) Hubble — Incorrect: The Hubble Space Telescope is an optical/ultraviolet/infrared telescope that has made many groundbreaking astronomical discoveries; however, it was NOT the telescope that provided the first direct image of a black hole — that was achieved by the Event Horizon Telescope in 2019.
Option (c) Spitzer — Incorrect: The Spitzer Space Telescope (NASA, decommissioned in 2020) was an infrared space observatory; while it contributed to our knowledge of stars, galaxies, and exoplanets, it did not provide the first direct image of a black hole — the EHT did in 2019.
Option (d) Kepler — Incorrect: The Kepler Space Telescope (NASA, operated 2009-2018) was designed to find exoplanets using the transit method; it discovered thousands of exoplanets but was not involved in imaging black holes. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: The weight of the fluid displaced — Option (c)
Archimedes' Principle states that when a body is immersed (fully or partially) in a fluid, it experiences an upward buoyant force equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the body. Mathematical expression: Buoyant Force ( F_b ) = Weight of fluid displaced = ρ_fluid × V_displaced × g; where ρ_fluid = density of the fluid, V_displaced = volume of fluid displaced, g = acceleration due to gravity. Key implications: If the buoyant force exceeds the weight of the object, it floats; if the weight exceeds the buoyant force, it sinks; if they are equal, the object is in neutral buoyancy. Applications: Ship design, submarines (which control their depth by adjusting buoyancy), hot air balloons, hydrometers (used to measure the density of liquids), and determining the purity of gold (as Archimedes famously did for King Hiero II's crown).
Option (a) Its own weight — Incorrect: The buoyant force is NOT equal to the object's own weight (unless the object is in neutral buoyancy/floating); the buoyant force equals the weight of the FLUID DISPLACED, which may be more, less, or equal to the object's own weight.
Option (b) The volume of the body — Incorrect: The buoyant force is not equal to the volume of the body; volume is part of the calculation (buoyant force = density of fluid × volume displaced × gravity), but the buoyant force itself equals the WEIGHT (not volume) of fluid displaced. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) The density of the fluid — Incorrect: The density of the fluid alone does not equal the buoyant force; density is one factor in calculating the buoyant force (along with volume displaced and gravity), but Archimedes' principle specifically states the buoyant force equals the WEIGHT of the fluid displaced.

Correct Answer: 117 N — Option (b)
Weight on the Moon = Mass × Gravitational acceleration on Moon. Calculation: On Earth: Weight = mass × g_Earth = 70 kg × 10 m/s² = 700 N (using g = 10 m/s²); On the Moon: g_Moon = g_Earth / 6 = 10 / 6 m/s²; Weight on Moon = 70 × (10/6) = 700/6 ≈ 116.67 N ≈ 117 N. Alternatively using g = 9.8 m/s²: Weight on Earth = 70 × 9.8 = 686 N; Weight on Moon = 686 / 6 ≈ 114.3 N ≈ 114 N (closest to 117 N among the options). Key concept: Mass remains the same everywhere (70 kg on Earth, 70 kg on Moon); Weight changes with gravitational acceleration; The Moon's surface gravity is approximately 1.62 m/s² (about 1/6th of Earth's 9.8 m/s²); Astronauts on the Moon experience 'reduced weight' (not reduced mass) — they feel lighter and can jump higher.
Option (a) 70 N — Incorrect: 70 N would mean the astronaut's weight on the Moon equals their mass in newtons, which is incorrect; weight on Moon = mass × (g/6) = 70 × (10/6) ≈ 117 N, not 70 N.
Option (c) 420 N — Incorrect: 420 N would represent the weight if g_Moon = 6 m/s² (70 × 6), which is wrong; the Moon's gravity is 1/6th of Earth's, not 6 m/s². The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) 686 N — Incorrect: 686 N is the astronaut's weight on Earth (70 kg × 9.8 m/s² = 686 N); on the Moon, the weight would be 686/6 ≈ 114 N ≈ 117 N — not the same as on Earth.

Correct Answer: Ganga and Brahmaputra — Option (b)
The Sundarbans Delta is formed by the confluence of the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers (along with the Meghna river ) as they flow into the Bay of Bengal. Key facts about the Sundarbans Delta: It is the world's largest river delta (and mangrove delta), spanning approximately 10,000 sq km between India (West Bengal) and Bangladesh; The Sundarbans literally means 'beautiful forest' and is named after the Sundari tree ( Heritiera fomes) found in the mangrove forests; It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site (both the Indian and Bangladeshi portions are separately listed); It is the habitat of the Royal Bengal Tiger, Irrawaddy dolphins, saltwater crocodiles, and numerous migratory birds; The Indian portion (Sundarbans National Park) is a Biosphere Reserve and Ramsar Wetland; The delta's formation: The Ganga (known as Padma in Bangladesh) and Brahmaputra (known as Jamuna in Bangladesh) converge to form the Meghna, which then empties into the Bay of Bengal.
Option (a) Ganga and Yamuna — Incorrect: The Ganga and Yamuna merge at Prayagraj (the Triveni Sangam); this confluence is in the Gangetic plains and does not form the Sundarbans Delta, which is located where the Ganga and Brahmaputra systems reach the Bay of Bengal.
Option (c) Godavari and Krishna — Incorrect: The Godavari and Krishna are rivers of peninsular India (Deccan), flowing through Andhra Pradesh and Telangana; they form their own deltas on the eastern coast of India, not the Sundarbans Delta.
Option (d) Mahanadi and Godavari — Incorrect: The Mahanadi and Godavari are separate peninsular rivers forming their own deltas in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh respectively; they have no connection to the Sundarbans Delta, which is formed by the Ganga-Brahmaputra river system.

Correct Answer: Western Himalayas — Option (a)
The Himalayas are wider in the western sector compared to the eastern sector. Key geographic facts: Width comparison: The Western Himalayas (between the Indus and Kali rivers, covering Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh) are approximately 400 km wide; The Eastern Himalayas (between the Tista and Brahmaputra rivers, covering Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, parts of Assam and West Bengal) are approximately 150-200 km wide; The narrowing of the Himalayas from west to east is attributed to the geomorphological forces and geological formation history; Other features: The Western Himalayas contain the world's highest concentration of peaks above 7,000 m; The Karakoram Range (with K2, the world's second-highest peak) lies northwest of the main Himalayan range; The Zanskar, Ladakh, and Pir Panjal ranges are prominent in the western sector.
Option (b) Central Himalayas — Incorrect: The Central Himalayas (between Nepal and the Uttarakhand/UP region) are of intermediate width; the Himalayas are WIDEST in the western sector, not the central sector.
Option (c) Eastern Himalayas — Incorrect: The Eastern Himalayas are actually the NARROWEST section of the Himalayas (about 150 km wide); the widest section is the Western Himalayas (about 400 km wide). The candidate incorrectly selected this option.
Option (d) Shiwalik Himalayas — Incorrect: The Shiwalik (or Sub-Himalayan) range is the southernmost and lowest range of the Himalayas, running parallel to the main Himalayas; ' Shiwalik Himalayas' refers to a specific sub-range, not a geographic sector (west/central/east), making this not a valid answer to the question about wider sector.

Correct Answer: High dependence on monsoonal variability — Option (b)
High dependence on monsoonal variability is the most critical structural constraint limiting agricultural productivity in India. Key facts: Approximately 55-60% of India's net sown area is rain-fed (dependent on monsoon), not under irrigation; The South-West Monsoon (June-September) accounts for about 70-75% of India's annual rainfall; Monsoon variability leads to: Droughts in deficit monsoon years (as seen in 2014, 2015, 2018, 2023), causing significant crop failures and farmer distress; Floods in excess monsoon years, damaging standing crops and agricultural infrastructure; Uneven spatial distribution of rainfall — some regions receive too little, others too much; Impact: A deficient monsoon can reduce agricultural GDP growth by 2-3 percentage points; it affects food security, rural incomes, and the overall economy; Even with improved irrigation infrastructure, India's agriculture remains heavily dependent on monsoon rainfall, making this the most critical structural constraint.
Option (a) Inadequacy of fertile soils across major regions — Incorrect: India actually has several fertile soil types — alluvial soils in the Northern Plains (very fertile), black cotton soil (Deccan), red/laterite soils (peninsular); while soil degradation is a concern, 'inadequacy of fertile soils' is not the most critical structural constraint compared to monsoon dependency.
Option (c) Chronic shortage of agricultural labor — Incorrect: India does not face a chronic shortage of agricultural labor — quite the opposite; with a large rural population, agricultural labor supply is generally adequate, though mechanization and migration patterns affect availability seasonally; monsoon dependency remains the more critical constraint.
Option (d) Weakness of domestic market linkages — Incorrect: While weak market linkages do affect farmers' ability to get fair prices, they are not the most critical STRUCTURAL constraint on agricultural PRODUCTIVITY; the fundamental dependence on monsoon variability for water availability is the more critical factor limiting overall productivity.

Correct Answer: 6 — Option (c)
The World Happiness Report (which ranks countries by the Happiness Index) uses 6 key variables to explain the variation in happiness scores across countries. The 6 key variables are: 1) GDP per capita (standard of living/economic wellbeing); 2) Social support (having someone to count on in times of trouble); 3) Healthy life expectancy at birth (how long and healthy people live); 4) Freedom to make life choices (satisfaction with freedom to choose what to do with one's life); 5) Generosity (recent donations to charity); 6) Perceptions of corruption (perceived level of corruption in government and business). The World Happiness Report is published annually by the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN); The happiness score is based on a ' Cantril ladder' survey where respondents rate their own lives on a scale from 0 to 10; Finland has consistently ranked as the world's happiest country in recent years; India typically ranks in the lower half of the happiness rankings.
Option (a) 4 — Incorrect: The World Happiness Index does not use only 4 variables; it uses 6 key variables (GDP per capita, social support, healthy life expectancy, freedom of choice, generosity, and perceptions of corruption) to rank countries.
Option (b) 5 — Incorrect: The World Happiness Index uses 6 (not 5) key variables to explain happiness differences across countries; all six dimensions — including generosity and corruption perception — are essential components of the framework.
Option (d) 7 — Incorrect: The World Happiness Index uses exactly 6 key variables, not 7; while there may be additional factors studied in the report, the standard ranking framework is based on these 6 specific variables.

Correct Answer: 1960s — Option (b)
The Minimum Support Price (MSP) system was introduced in India in the 1960s. Key facts about MSP introduction: MSP was formally introduced in India in 1966-67 (during the mid-1960s) as part of the agricultural policy reforms associated with the Green Revolution; The concept emerged from the recommendations of the L.K. Jha Committee and was implemented to provide farmers with guaranteed minimum prices for their crops; The first MSP was announced for wheat in 1966-67; The MSP system was strengthened with the establishment of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) in 1965 (initially as the Agricultural Prices Commission); The MSP was introduced to: Provide price security to farmers; Ensure adequate food grain production; Protect farmers from distress selling during bumper harvest years; The MSP is currently announced for 23 crops including cereals (wheat, rice, maize, etc.), pulses, oilseeds, and commercial crops.
Option (a) 1950s — Incorrect: While agricultural price support concepts were discussed in the early planning period, the formal Minimum Support Price (MSP) system was not introduced in the 1950s — it was formally introduced in 1966-67 (the 1960s).
Option (c) 1970s — Incorrect: The MSP was introduced in the 1960s (specifically 1966-67), not the 1970s; the 1970s saw the expansion and consolidation of the MSP system, not its introduction.
Option (d) 1980s — Incorrect: By the 1980s, the MSP system was already well-established and had been operational for nearly two decades; the system was introduced in the 1960s. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.

Correct Answer: 2014 — Option (c)
The Make in India initiative was officially launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on September 25, 2014. Key facts about Make in India: Launched at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi, on September 25, 2014; The initiative aims to transform India into a global manufacturing hub and encourage both domestic and foreign companies to manufacture their products in India; The logo/mascot of Make in India is a lion made of gear wheels — representing manufacturing, strength, and the national animal of India; 25 sectors were initially identified as focus areas (expanded to 27 sectors), including automobiles, defense, electronics, food processing, pharmaceuticals, textiles, IT & BPM, aerospace, ports, etc.; The initiative promotes ease of doing business, infrastructure development, FDI (Foreign Direct Investment) attraction, and skill development; It complements other government initiatives like Skill India, Digital India, Startup India, and Smart Cities Mission.
Option (a) 2010 — Incorrect: Make in India was not launched in 2010; it was launched in 2014 after the Modi government came to power in May 2014.
Option (b) 2012 — Incorrect: 2012 was during the UPA-II government's tenure; Make in India was launched in 2014 by the newly elected NDA government under PM Narendra Modi.
Option (d) 2015 — Incorrect: While several related initiatives and programs under Make in India were expanded or launched in 2015, the Make in India initiative itself was formally launched on September 25, 2014. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.

Correct Answer: Wholesale Price Index — Option (d)
The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) measures the average change in the prices of goods traded in bulk at the wholesale level (i.e., between traders/manufacturers, not at the retail/consumer level). Key facts about WPI in India: Base year: 2011-12 (revised from the earlier 2004-05 base year); Coverage: WPI covers 697 commodities in three major groups — Primary Articles (22.62%), Fuel & Power (13.15%), and Manufactured Products (64.23%); WPI is calculated and published monthly by the Office of the Economic Adviser, Ministry of Commerce and Industry; WPI captures price changes at the primary/wholesale market level, before retail markup; WPI in India does NOT include services (only goods/commodities); WPI is often used as a deflator in national accounts and as a leading indicator of inflation in the manufacturing sector.
Option (a) Gross Domestic Product Deflator — Incorrect: The GDP Deflator measures the ratio of nominal GDP to real GDP, indicating the overall price level change in the entire economy (goods and services); it is broader than WPI and is not specifically called a 'wholesale prices' index.
Option (b) Consumer Price Index — Incorrect: The Consumer Price Index (CPI) measures the change in prices of a basket of goods and services at the RETAIL level — i.e., what consumers pay; it is the opposite of wholesale prices and is used to measure consumer inflation. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.
Option (c) Index of Industrial Production — Incorrect: The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) measures the VOLUME/QUANTITY of industrial output (manufacturing, mining, electricity), not prices; it indicates how much has been produced, not how much it costs at the wholesale level.

Correct Answer: Bhargavastra — Option (c)
India successfully tested the Bhargavastra micro-missile/rocket system in 2025. Key facts about Bhargavastra : Bhargavastra is an indigenous anti-drone micro-missile/short-range rocket system developed by Economic Explosives Limited (EEL) under the Ministry of Defence ; It is designed primarily as a counter-drone/counter-UAV (Unmanned Aerial Vehicle) weapon system — to shoot down enemy drones and aerial threats; The system can fire multiple micro-rockets/missiles in rapid succession, creating a 'wall' of projectiles to intercept drone swarms; It is a cost-effective solution against the emerging threat of drone swarms in modern warfare; The successful trials of Bhargavastra in 2025 demonstrated India's growing capability in counter-drone technology; The system can be mounted on vehicles, making it mobile and tactically versatile; ' Bhargavastra ' is named after the powerful weapon (astra) of the sage Bhrigu (Bhargava) in Hindu mythology.
Option (a) Astra-II — Incorrect: Astra-II is an air-to-air beyond-visual-range (BVR) missile developed by DRDO for the Indian Air Force; while it is an advanced missile system, Astra-II is not a micro-missile/counter-drone system and is different from the Bhargavastra tested in 2025.
Option (b) Vibhavasu — Incorrect: Vibhavasu is not a well-known Indian missile or micro-missile system tested in 2025; the micro-missile system India tested in 2025 was the Bhargavastra anti-drone system. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Pralay — Incorrect: Pralay is a surface-to-surface quasi-ballistic missile developed by DRDO, capable of striking targets at ranges of 150-500 km; it is a battlefield missile, not a micro-missile/counter-drone system, and is distinct from the Bhargavastra .

Correct Answer: December 2024 — Option (b)
In December 2024, the Central Government of India officially announced the scrapping of the 'No-Detention Policy' for Classes 5 and 8 in central government-run schools ( Kendriya Vidyalayas , Navodaya Vidyalayas , and other centrally administered schools). Key facts about the No-Detention Policy: The No-Detention Policy was introduced under the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which mandated that no student should be held back or expelled from school up to Class 8; The policy was aimed at reducing dropout rates by eliminating the fear of failing; However, concerns grew about declining academic standards and students being promoted without basic competency; The amendment: In 2019, Parliament amended the RTE Act to allow States/UTs to decide whether to implement detention from Classes 5 and 8; In December 2024, the Centre formally scrapped the No-Detention Policy for its own schools, allowing students who fail the board/year-end examination even after re-examination to be detained.
Option (a) November 2024 — Incorrect: The official announcement of scrapping the No-Detention Policy for central government schools was made in December 2024, not November 2024.
Option (c) January 2025 — Incorrect: The announcement was made in December 2024, not January 2025; the policy change was officially declared in the last month of 2024.
Option (d) October 2024 — Incorrect: The Centre's official announcement to scrap the No-Detention Policy for Classes 5 and 8 in central schools was made in December 2024, not October 2024.

Correct Answer: Saadat Ali Khan — Option (b)
Saadat Ali Khan was NEVER the Nawab of Bengal — he was the Nawab of Awadh (Oudh), not Bengal. Saadat Ali Khan (reigned as Nawab of Awadh from 1798-1814) was from an entirely different dynasty ruling a different territory. The Nawabs of Bengal and their distinction: Alivardi Khan — Was a Nawab of Bengal (1740-1756); he was the grandfather of Sirajuddaulah ; Sirajuddaulah — Was the last independent Nawab of Bengal (1756-1757); he was defeated by the British at the Battle of Plassey (1757); Mir Qasim — Was a Nawab of Bengal (1760-1763); he was appointed by the British but later fought against them in the Battle of Buxar (1764); Nawab of Awadh vs. Bengal: The Nawabs of Bengal (Murshidabad) and the Nawabs of Awadh (Lucknow) were entirely separate dynasties ruling different regions; Saadat Ali Khan belonged to the Nawab of Awadh lineage, not Bengal.
Option (a) Alivardi Khan — Incorrect: Alivardi Khan WAS a Nawab of Bengal (1740-1756); he successfully defended Bengal from Maratha incursions ( Bargis ) and was a powerful ruler; the question asks who was NEVER the Nawab of Bengal, so Alivardi Khan cannot be the answer.
Option (c) Mir Qasim — Incorrect: Mir Qasim WAS a Nawab of Bengal (1760-1763); he was installed by the British and later fought them at the Battle of Buxar (1764); the question asks who was NEVER the Nawab of Bengal, so Mir Qasim cannot be the answer. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.
Option (d) Sirajuddaulah — Incorrect: Sirajuddaulah WAS the Nawab of Bengal (1756-1757); he is famous for the Black Hole of Calcutta incident and his defeat at the Battle of Plassey (1757) by Robert Clive; the question asks who was NEVER the Nawab of Bengal, so Sirajuddaulah cannot be the answer.

Correct Answer: Awadh — Option (a)
Sir Henry Montgomery Lawrence (1806-1857) was the Chief Commissioner of Awadh (Oudh) during the Revolt of 1857. Key facts about Henry Lawrence and the Revolt of 1857: He was appointed Chief Commissioner of Awadh in 1857, shortly before the outbreak of the Sepoy Mutiny/Revolt of 1857; When the revolt broke out in May 1857, he organized the defense of the British Residency in Lucknow (the capital of Awadh); The Siege of Lucknow (July-November 1857) is one of the most famous episodes of the 1857 Revolt; Henry Lawrence was mortally wounded on July 2, 1857 when an artillery shell struck his room in the Residency; He died on July 4, 1857 and was buried in the Lucknow Residency compound; His famous epitaph reads: 'Here lies Henry Lawrence who tried to do his duty. May God have mercy on him.'; His brother John Lawrence was the Chief Commissioner of Punjab (which remained loyal to the British).
Option (b) Odisha — Incorrect: Henry Lawrence was the Chief Commissioner of Awadh (Oudh), not Odisha; Odisha (then Orissa) was administered separately and was not under Henry Lawrence's jurisdiction during the 1857 Revolt.
Option (c) Maharashtra — Incorrect: Maharashtra (then the Bombay Presidency) was under the Bombay Government during the 1857 Revolt; Henry Lawrence was specifically the Chief Commissioner of Awadh (Oudh) based in Lucknow.
Option (d) Punjab — Incorrect: Punjab was under John Lawrence (Henry's brother), not Henry Lawrence, during the 1857 Revolt; John Lawrence kept Punjab loyal to the British and sent troops to help relieve the Siege of Delhi. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.