SSC GD 2026 29 May 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Heavy industry — Option (b)
The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61) gave top priority to Heavy Industry. About the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61): Also known as: Nehru- Mahalanobis Plan; Duration: 1956-1961; Architect: Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis (formulated the Mahalanobis Model/Strategy); Approved by: Planning Commission under PM Jawaharlal Nehru; Top priority: Heavy industry (capital goods industries — steel, heavy engineering, heavy chemicals); Objective: Rapid industrialization with emphasis on heavy and basic industries; Key features of the Mahalanobis Model: Divided the economy into two sectors: Capital goods sector and Consumer goods sector; For long-run growth, investment in capital goods sector must be maximized; This would create machines that make machines — building India's industrial base; Heavy industries established: Bhilai Steel Plant (with Soviet Union assistance), Durgapur Steel Plant (with British assistance), Rourkela Steel Plant (with West German assistance) — all three major steel plants were set up during the 2nd Five Year Plan; Chittaranjan Locomotive Works (expanded), Heavy Engineering Corporation (Ranchi); Also set up: ONGC (Oil and Natural Gas Commission) in 1956; Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) in 1956; Difference from 1st Plan: 1st Five Year Plan (1951-56) gave priority to Agriculture (because of food shortage due to Partition); 2nd Plan shifted focus to Heavy Industry; This was the classic 'industry vs. agriculture' debate in Indian planning.
Option (a) Agriculture — Incorrect: Agriculture was the TOP PRIORITY of the FIRST Five Year Plan (1951-56), NOT the Second; the First Plan focused on agriculture and food production due to food shortages after Partition; the Second Plan (1956-61) deliberately shifted priority to Heavy Industry based on the Mahalanobis model. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Services — Incorrect: The Services sector was NOT the top priority of India's Second Five Year Plan; the Second Plan (1956-61) gave top priority to Heavy Industry (capital goods and basic industries); the services sector focus came much later in India's economic planning.
Option (d) Small-scale enterprises — Incorrect: Small-scale enterprises were NOT the top priority of India's Second Five Year Plan; the Second Plan focused on HEAVY and LARGE-SCALE industries (steel plants, heavy engineering, heavy chemicals); small-scale industries received attention as a secondary objective, not the primary focus.

Correct Answer: Former Soviet Union — Option (d)
The concept of Five Year Plans was borrowed from the Former Soviet Union (USSR). About Five Year Plans — Indian Context: India's Five Year Plans: India adopted centralized economic planning after independence; The Planning Commission was established in 1950; The First Five Year Plan began in 1951; India adopted this concept from the Soviet Union, which had introduced Five Year Plans in 1928; About Soviet Five Year Plans: The USSR introduced its first Five Year Plan ( Pyatiletka ) in 1928 under Joseph Stalin; The Soviet planning model aimed at rapid industrialization through centralized state control; It demonstrated that a relatively underdeveloped country could achieve rapid industrial growth through planned economic development; Key connection: India's first Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru admired the Soviet model of planned development; He had visited the Soviet Union and was impressed by its rapid industrialization; Nehru wanted to apply similar planning principles to India, though in a democratic framework (unlike the authoritarian Soviet model); The Mahalanobis model for India's Second Five Year Plan was explicitly inspired by Soviet planning methods; Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog): The Planning Commission was established in March 1950 by a Cabinet Resolution; P.C. Mahalanobis was its key figure; The Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog in January 2015 (by PM Narendra Modi); India completed 12 Five Year Plans (1951-2017); Currently India follows a 3-year Action Plan, 7-year Strategy, and 15-year Vision Document instead of Five Year Plans.
Option (a) United Kingdom — Incorrect: The concept of Five Year Plans was NOT borrowed from the United Kingdom; the UK follows a market economy with no five-year planning tradition; India borrowed the Five Year Plan concept from the Former Soviet Union (USSR), which started five-year planning in 1928.
Option (b) United States of America — Incorrect: The USA does NOT follow Five Year Plans — it is a market economy; the concept of centralized Five Year Planning came from the Soviet Union (USSR), not the USA; India borrowed the Five Year Plan concept from the USSR's example of rapid industrialization through planned development.
Option (c) France — Incorrect: France had indicative planning (commissions du Plan) but the concept of Five Year Plans as adopted by India was borrowed from the Former Soviet Union (USSR); France's planning was advisory rather than the centralized directive planning model that India and the USSR followed.

Correct Answer: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs — Option (a)
The nodal ministry for the AMRUT initiative is the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs ( MoHUA ). About AMRUT: Full form: Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation; Launched: June 25, 2015 (by PM Narendra Modi); Named after: Atal Bihari Vajpayee (former PM of India); Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs ( MoHUA ); 2025 milestone: India marked 10 years of AMRUT in 2025; Objectives: Ensure that every household has access to a tap with an assured supply of water; Ensure every household has access to sewerage connection; Increase the amenity value of cities by developing greenery and well-maintained open spaces; Reduce pollution by switching to public transport or constructing facilities for non- motorised transport; Mission coverage: Initially covered 500 cities with a population of 1 lakh and above; AMRUT 2.0: Launched on October 1, 2021; Extended to all cities with Urban Local Bodies (about 4,800 cities); Focus: Sewerage & septage management; Water supply; Urban transport; Green spaces and parks; About Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs ( MoHUA ): Created in 2017 by merging the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation with the Ministry of Urban Development; Handles all urban development schemes including PMAY (Urban), Smart Cities Mission, AMRUT, Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban), Heritage City Development Scheme (HRIDAY); Note: 'Ministry of Urban Development' as a separate ministry no longer exists after the 2017 merger.
Option (b) Ministry of Urban Development — Incorrect: The Ministry of Urban Development no longer exists as a separate entity — it was merged with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation in 2017 to form the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs ( MoHUA ); the AMRUT initiative is under MoHUA , NOT a separate 'Ministry of Urban Development.'
Option (c) Ministry of Finance — Incorrect: The Ministry of Finance handles India's financial and economic policies, budget, taxation, and banking regulation — it is NOT the nodal ministry for AMRUT; the nodal ministry for AMRUT (urban infrastructure scheme) is the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs ( MoHUA ).
Option (d) Ministry of Jal Shakti — Incorrect: The Ministry of Jal Shakti is responsible for water resources management — specifically the Jal Jeevan Mission (rural drinking water) and national water policy; while AMRUT also has water supply components, the nodal ministry for AMRUT is the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs ( MoHUA ), NOT the Ministry of Jal Shakti.

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Both PM-AJAY and SMILE are social development schemes in India. About PM-AJAY: Full form: Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana; Ministry: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment; Launched: 2021-22 (by merging three earlier schemes — Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Caste Sub Plan, Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana, and Dr. Ambedkar Pre-Matric and Post-Matric Scholarship for EBC); Beneficiaries: Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Economically Backward Classes (EBCs); Objectives: Improving socio-economic indicators of SC population; Providing Pre-Matric and Post-Matric scholarships; Constructing hostels for SC students; Reducing SC poverty through targeted interventions; About SMILE Scheme: Full form: Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise; Ministry: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment; Launched: 2022; Beneficiaries: Two groups — Transgender persons; People engaged in the act of begging; Objectives: Welfare and rehabilitation of transgender persons — education, healthcare, vocational training, livelihood support; Rehabilitation of persons engaged in begging — shelter, food, medical care, counseling, vocational training; Key components: SMILE for Transgender: Scholarship, skill development, PM-DAKSH, healthcare (Ayushman Bharat); SMILE for Beggars: Comprehensive rehabilitation; Both PM-AJAY and SMILE are administered by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and are clearly social development schemes.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: PM-AJAY IS a social development scheme (for Scheduled Castes), but so is the SMILE scheme (for transgender persons and persons engaged in begging); both are social development schemes under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment; 'Only I' is incorrect because SMILE is also a valid social development scheme.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: SMILE IS a social development scheme (for transgender persons and persons engaged in begging), but so is PM-AJAY (for Scheduled Castes); both schemes are under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment; 'Only II' is incorrect because PM-AJAY is also a valid social development scheme.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Both PM-AJAY and SMILE ARE social development schemes under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment; PM-AJAY supports Scheduled Castes through scholarships, hostels, and poverty reduction; SMILE supports transgender persons and persons engaged in begging; stating 'Neither I nor II' would be completely wrong.

Correct Answer: Shifting cultivation — Option (c)
The Gonds primarily practiced Shifting cultivation (also known as Podu cultivation or slash-and-burn/Jhum cultivation). About the Gonds: Who they are: One of the largest tribal communities in India; Population: Among the largest Scheduled Tribe groups in India; Location: Primarily found in: Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana; The Gondwana region (named after them) covers large parts of central India; Language: Gondi (Dravidian language family); About Shifting Cultivation ( Podu /Bewar): Also known as: Jhum cultivation (Northeast India), Bewar (in parts of MP), Podu (Andhra Pradesh/Telangana among Gonds and Koyas ); Process: A patch of forest is cleared by cutting and burning (slash-and-burn); Crops are grown for 2-3 years; When soil fertility declines, the farmers move to a new patch; The old patch is left to regenerate (fallowing); Repeat after several years (10-15 year cycle); Crops grown: Mixed cropping — millets, sorghum, pulses, vegetables; Advantages: Requires minimal inputs (no irrigation, fertilizers); Works in hilly terrain where plowing is difficult; Sustainable if the fallow period is long enough; Environmental concern: When population pressure reduces the fallow period, shifting cultivation leads to deforestation and soil erosion; Government policy: Indian government has discouraged shifting cultivation and promoted settled farming; Modern Gonds increasingly practice settled agriculture.
Option (a) Terrace cultivation — Incorrect: Terrace cultivation is practiced in hilly/mountainous regions to prevent soil erosion — typically by communities in the Himalayan foothills and northeastern India (like the Nagas); the Gonds of central India primarily practiced Shifting cultivation ( Podu /Bewar), not terrace cultivation. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Permanent farming — Incorrect: Permanent farming (settled agriculture) was NOT the PRIMARY traditional practice of the Gonds; their traditional agricultural practice was Shifting cultivation ( Podu /Bewar); while modern Gond communities have increasingly adopted settled agriculture due to government policies and population pressure, their traditional/primary practice was shifting cultivation.
Option (d) Irrigation-based farming — Incorrect: Irrigation-based farming was NOT the primary cultivation practice of the Gonds; shifting cultivation (slash-and-burn) is rain-dependent and does NOT use irrigation infrastructure; irrigation-based farming is characteristic of settled agricultural communities in river plains, not tribal communities practicing shifting cultivation.

Correct Answer: Meghalaya — Option (b)
The Nongkrem dance is associated with Meghalaya. About Nongkrem Dance: Origin: Khasi tribe of Meghalaya; Associated Festival: Nongkrem Festival (also called Ka Pomblang Nongkrem ); Location: Performed at Smit village (near Shillong), the traditional seat of the Khyrim Syiemship (chieftainship); Duration: 5-day festival; When: Held in October or November after harvest; About the Nongkrem Festival: Khasi community's biggest festival; A religious ceremony held to please the Goddess Ka Blei Synshar for a bountiful harvest; Presided over by the chief ( Syiem ) of Khyrim ; Involves rituals: sacrifice of goats and cocks; Nongkrem Dance: Performed by young maidens (girls) wearing rich silk clothes, gold and silver ornaments, and crowns with plumes; Also performed by young men carrying swords and yak-tail fly whisks ( chouris ); The dance is performed in concentric circles around a sacred tree or altar; A dignified, slow, graceful dance with religious significance; About Meghalaya: Capital: Shillong; Major tribes: Khasi, Garo, Jaintia; Other famous Meghalaya festivals: Shad Suk Mynsiem (Khasi dance festival), Wangala (Garo harvest festival), Behdeinkhlam (Jaintia tribe); Nongkrem is specifically the Khasi tribe's festival — closely associated with Meghalaya.
Option (a) Gujarat — Incorrect: The Nongkrem dance is NOT associated with Gujarat; Gujarat's folk dances include Garba, Dandiya Raas, Tippani , and Bhavai ; Nongkrem is the traditional dance of the Khasi tribe of Meghalaya in northeastern India; it has no connection with Gujarat.
Option (c) West Bengal — Incorrect: The Nongkrem dance is NOT associated with West Bengal; West Bengal's folk dances include Chhau (shared with Odisha/Jharkhand), Gambhira, Brita, and Lathial ; Nongkrem is the traditional dance/festival of the Khasi tribe of Meghalaya; West Bengal and Meghalaya are different states.
Option (d) Ladakh — Incorrect: The Nongkrem dance is NOT associated with Ladakh; Ladakh's traditional dances include Shondol (Leh Festival dance), Jabro, and Buddhist Cham (mask dance); Nongkrem is specifically a Khasi tribal dance festival from Meghalaya in northeastern India, not from Ladakh in the western Himalayas.

Correct Answer: Goa — Option (a)
The folk dance form ' Ranmale ' is associated with Goa. About Ranmale : Type: Traditional folk art/dance-drama form; Origin: Goa; Nature: Ranmale combines folk dance with elements of theater and drama; It depicts martial themes (Ran = battle/war in Marathi/Konkani); Traditionally performed at rural festivals and community gatherings; About Goa's folk dances: Goa has a rich tradition of folk dances and performing arts; Major folk dance forms: Fugdi : Performed by women in circles during festivals; Dekhni : A combination of classical and folk elements; Mussal : A traditional male dance; Ghode Modni : A victory dance depicting martial arts performed on 'horses' (dummy horses); Mando: A traditional song-dance form; Goff: Performed during Shigmo festival; Dhalo : Women's dance during Dhanurmas ; Ranmale : A folk theater/dance depicting war scenes; Shigmo Festival: Goa's spring festival where various folk dances (including Ranmale ) are performed; About Goa: Capital: Panaji (Panji); Known for: Beaches, Portuguese heritage, Carnival festival, Christmas celebrations; The Konkani language is prominent in Goa; India's smallest state by area; 26th state of India (achieved statehood in 1987).
Option (b) Telangana — Incorrect: Ranmale is NOT associated with Telangana; Telangana's folk dances include Perini Shivatandavam (ancient warrior dance), Lambadi, Gusadi , Dhimsa , and Kolattam ; Ranmale is a folk theater/dance form of Goa.
Option (c) Manipur — Incorrect: Ranmale is NOT associated with Manipur; Manipur is famous for its classical dance Manipuri (one of India's 8 classical dances), as well as folk dances like Thang-Ta (martial arts dance) and Lai Haraoba; Ranmale is a folk dance form of Goa. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Jammu and Kashmir — Incorrect: Ranmale is NOT associated with Jammu and Kashmir; J&K's folk dances include Rouf (a Kashmiri women's dance), Bhand Pather (a satirical folk theater), Kud, and Hikat; Ranmale is a folk dance/theater form of Goa that depicts martial/war themes.

Correct Answer: Kerala — Option (c)
The Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS) is located in Kerala. About Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS): Location: Thumba village, near Thiruvananthapuram (Trivandrum), Kerala; Significance: India's FIRST rocket launching station; First rocket launch: November 21, 1963 — India's first sounding rocket (Nike Apache) was launched from Thumba ; This date is celebrated as National Space Day (now also called Antariksh Diwas); Why Thumba was chosen: Thumba lies near the magnetic equator of the Earth (Dip Equator passes through Thumba ); The geomagnetic equator is ideal for studying ionosphere and equatorial phenomena; Rockets launched near the magnetic equator can enter equatorial orbits efficiently; The facility was initially established as a collaborative project with NASA, Soviet Union, France, and other countries; INCOSPAR: Indian National Committee for Space Research — the predecessor to ISRO; established in 1962 by Jawaharlal Nehru and Vikram Sarabhai; It was under INCOSPAR that TERLS was established; About Dr. Vikram Sarabhai: Father of India's Space Programme ; He chose Thumba for the rocket launching station; ISRO headquarters is in Bengaluru (Karnataka) but TERLS is in Kerala; Current status: TERLS is now part of VSSC (Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre), the major technical centre of ISRO in Thiruvananthapuram; VSSC develops rockets and space vehicles for ISRO.
Option (a) Karnataka — Incorrect: The Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station is NOT in Karnataka; it is in Thiruvananthapuram (Trivandrum), Kerala; ISRO's main headquarters is in Bengaluru, Karnataka, but TERLS (India's first rocket launching station) is specifically located in Thumba , Kerala. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Gujarat — Incorrect: The Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station is NOT in Gujarat; it is in Kerala; Gujarat is home to the ISRO Launch Vehicle Unit and other space facilities, but TERLS — India's first rocket launching station — is at Thumba , near Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala.
Option (d) Maharashtra — Incorrect: The Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station is NOT in Maharashtra; it is at Thumba , Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala; Maharashtra has VSSC development units and the National Remote Sensing Centre, but India's first rocket launching station (TERLS) is in Kerala.

Correct Answer: APSARA-U — Option (b)
APSARA-U is the BARC-developed reactor that achieved first criticality with LEU (Low Enriched Uranium) fuel. About APSARA-U: Full name: APSARA-Upgraded; Type: Swimming pool type research reactor; Developer: BARC (Bhabha Atomic Research Centre), Mumbai; Achievement: Achieved first criticality on September 10, 2018; Fuel: LEU (Low Enriched Uranium) — uses 20% enriched uranium; Power: 2 MW (upgraded from original APSARA's 1 MW); About the original APSARA: India's FIRST nuclear reactor; Achieved criticality on August 4, 1956 (the day India became 'nuclear capable'); Built with British assistance; Named 'Apsara' by PM Jawaharlal Nehru; Was shut down in 2009 after 53 years of operation; APSARA-U replaced the original APSARA with Indian-made LEU fuel instead of the imported Highly Enriched Uranium (HEU); About LEU vs HEU: HEU (Highly Enriched Uranium): >20% U-235; used in nuclear weapons; original APSARA used HEU; LEU (Low Enriched Uranium): <20% U-235; safer, proliferation-resistant; APSARA-U uses LEU — a significant achievement showing India's self-sufficiency in nuclear fuel; About other BARC reactors: PURNE: Pakistan's reactor? Not BARC's; DHRUVA: India's largest research reactor (100 MW thermal); achieved criticality in 1985; uses natural uranium fuel; KAMINI: World's first reactor using Uranium-233 fuel; located at Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR), Kalpakkam , Tamil Nadu; 30 kW power; The APSARA-U is specifically the one that achieved first criticality with LEU (indigenously developed).
Option (a) PURNE — Incorrect: PURNE is NOT a BARC reactor that achieved first criticality with LEU fuel; this is not a standard name of a well-known Indian research reactor; the reactor that achieved first criticality with LEU is APSARA-U (at BARC, Mumbai).
Option (c) DHRUVA — Incorrect: DHRUVA is a BARC research reactor but it did NOT achieve first criticality with LEU fuel — it uses Natural Uranium (unenriched) as fuel; DHRUVA achieved criticality in 1985 and operates at 100 MW thermal power; it is used for plutonium production and neutron research; APSARA-U achieved first criticality with LEU fuel.
Option (d) KAMINI — Incorrect: KAMINI is a unique research reactor (located at IGCAR Kalpakkam , NOT BARC Mumbai) that runs on Uranium-233 (from thorium breeding cycle) — NOT LEU; KAMINI ( Kalpakkam Mini reactor) achieved criticality in 1996 and operates at 30 kW; it is the world's first reactor using U-233 fuel; APSARA-U (at BARC) achieved first criticality with LEU fuel.

Correct Answer: 5 — Option (c)
At the Olympic Games, the team event in table tennis is a best of 5 affair. About Table Tennis Team Event at Olympics: Format: Each team match consists of 5 individual matches; Team composition: Each team has 3 players; Format of matches: Match 1 — Singles; Match 2 — Singles; Match 3 — Singles; Match 4 — Doubles (optional — played if needed); Match 5 — Singles (if needed, to decide the tie); A team wins the tie when it wins 3 matches out of the 5; The tie ends as soon as one team wins 3 matches (so all 5 matches may not always be played); This format replaced the old format where teams had 5 players; Olympic Table Tennis: Team event was introduced at the 2008 Beijing Olympics (replacing the doubles event); Men's and Women's team events are both held; Format of individual matches within the tie: Each match is best of 7 games (a game is won by reaching 11 points, must win by 2); About singles/doubles Table Tennis at Olympics: Singles events (men's and women's) have been part of Olympics since 1988 Seoul Olympics; Mixed doubles was added at 2020 Tokyo Olympics; Most successful nations: China has dominated Olympic table tennis; Japan, Korea, Germany, Sweden are other strong nations; India's performance: Sharath Kamal, Manika Batra are India's prominent table tennis players.
Option (a) 9 — Incorrect: The Olympic team table tennis event is NOT a best of 9 affair; it is a best of 5 affair (5 individual matches per team match); a 'best of 9' format would mean playing until one team wins 5 matches, which is not the Olympic format; the team that wins 3 out of 5 matches wins the tie.
Option (b) 3 — Incorrect: The Olympic team table tennis event is NOT a best of 3 affair; it is a best of 5 affair; a 'best of 3' would mean only 3 individual matches and the first team to win 2 wins; the actual format has up to 5 individual matches, with the first team to win 3 matches winning the tie.
Option (d) 7 — Incorrect: The Olympic team table tennis event is NOT a best of 7 affair; it is a best of 5 affair; however, each individual MATCH within the team event IS best of 7 GAMES (first to 7 games wins the match, each game to 11 points); the candidate may have confused 'games' within each match with 'matches' in the team event. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: 3.66 metres — Option (a)
In field hockey, the distance between the inner edges of the goalposts is 3.66 metres (12 feet). About Field Hockey Goal Dimensions: Width of goal (between inner edges of goalposts): 3.66 metres (12 feet); Height of goal (from ground to inner edge of crossbar): 2.14 metres (7 feet); Depth of goal: Backboards 460 mm (at the sides and back); Goal frame: Made of wood or metal; Traditionally white; Backboard and side boards at the rear of the goal; Net attached to backboards to catch the ball; FIH (International Hockey Federation) specifications: These measurements are set by FIH (Fédération Internationale de Hockey); All international matches must use goals of these standard dimensions; About Hockey Field Dimensions: Playing field length: 91.40 m (100 yards); Playing field width: 55.00 m (60 yards); Shooting circle (D-circle): Semicircular area, 14.63 m (16 yards) from each goal post; Penalty spot: 6.40 m from the centre of the goal line; Penalty stroke spot: 6.40 m from the midpoint of the goal line; Centre circle: Radius of 91.40 cm; Striking circle: Also called the 'D' — only shots from within this area can score; About other dimensions: The 2.44 metres in option (b) is the height of a football (soccer) goal post from ground to crossbar, or close to the hockey goal height; The standard hockey goal width of 3.66 m is the key measurement for this question.
Option (b) 2.44 metres — Incorrect: 2.44 metres is NOT the distance between inner edges of hockey goalposts; 2.44 m (8 feet) is the height of a football (soccer) goal; the hockey goal WIDTH is 3.66 metres ; the hockey goal HEIGHT is 2.14 metres ; so 2.44 m matches neither the hockey goalpost width nor height. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) 1.12 metres — Incorrect: 1.12 metres is NOT the distance between the inner edges of hockey goalposts; it is far too narrow for a hockey goal; the actual distance between the inner edges of hockey goalposts is 3.66 metres (12 feet); 1.12 m is not a standard measurement for any significant hockey goal dimension.
Option (d) 2.98 metres — Incorrect: 2.98 metres is NOT the distance between the inner edges of hockey goalposts; the actual distance is 3.66 metres (12 feet); 2.98 m is not a standard measurement in hockey rules and is approximately 0.68 m less than the actual goalpost width.

Correct Answer: Executive power of the Union — Option (b)
Article 53 of the Indian Constitution deals with the 'Executive power of the Union.' About Article 53: Title: Executive power of the Union; Part: Part V — The Union; Chapter I — The Executive; Content: The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution; The supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union shall be vested in the President, and the exercise thereof shall be regulated by law; Key points: The President is the nominal/constitutional head of the Union executive; In practice, the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers (Article 74); Article 53 establishes the President as the repository of executive power; The military is also under the President as Supreme Commander; Parliamentary context — key Articles around Article 53: Article 52: The President of India; Article 53: Executive power of the Union (vested in President); Article 54: Election of President; Article 55: Manner of election of President; Article 56: Term of office of President; Article 57: Eligibility for re-election; Article 58: Qualifications for election as President; Article 60: Oath or affirmation by the President; Article 61: Procedure for impeachment of the President; State-level equivalent: Article 154: Executive power of the State (vested in Governor); Article 166: Conduct of business of the State Government.
Option (a) Term of office of President — Incorrect: The term of office of the President is covered under Article 56 (NOT Article 53); Article 56 states that the President shall hold office for a term of 5 years from the date on which he enters upon his office; Article 53 specifically deals with the vesting of Executive power of the Union in the President.
Option (c) Qualifications for election as President — Incorrect: Qualifications for election as President are covered under Article 58 (NOT Article 53); Article 58 specifies that a person must be a citizen of India, have completed 35 years of age, and be qualified for election as a member of Lok Sabha; Article 53 deals with Executive power of the Union.
Option (d) Election of President — Incorrect: The election of the President is covered under Article 54 and 55 (NOT Article 53); Article 54 provides for election of President by an Electoral College; Article 55 specifies the manner of election; Article 53 specifically deals with the vesting of Executive power of the Union in the President.

Correct Answer: Only I — Option (a)
Statement I is CORRECT (Article 27 = Freedom from paying taxes for promotion of a religion). Statement II is INCORRECT (Article 28 is about freedom from religious instruction in certain educational institutions, NOT prohibition of trafficking). About Article 27 — Statement I (TRUE): Title: Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion; Content: No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes, the proceeds of which are specifically appropriated in payment of expenses for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination; Significance: Ensures the principle of secular state — taxpayers' money cannot be used to promote any specific religion; If temple funds collected from taxes are used for temple maintenance, it is permissible as it's not using general public taxes; About Article 28 — Statement II (FALSE): The actual title of Article 28: 'Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions'; Content: No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds; Exceptions: Institutions established under any endowment or trust; About Prohibition of trafficking and forced labour : Article 23: Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour (NOT Article 28); Article 23 prohibits: Traffic in human beings; Begar (forced labour ) and other similar forms of forced labour ; Human trafficking; Bonded labour ; So Statement II wrongly attributes the content of Article 23 to Article 28 — hence Statement II is FALSE.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Statement II is INCORRECT — Article 28 does NOT deal with 'Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour '; that is Article 23; Article 28 deals with 'Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions'; Statement I is correct (Article 27 = Freedom from paying taxes for religious promotion); so the correct answer is Only I, not Only II.
Option (c) Both I and II — Incorrect: Both statements cannot be correct because Statement II is INCORRECT — Article 28 deals with religious instruction in educational institutions, NOT prohibition of trafficking (which is Article 23); only Statement I is correct (Article 27 = freedom from paying taxes for promotion of a religion); therefore, 'Both I and II' is wrong.
Option (d) Neither I Nor II — Incorrect: Statement I IS correct — Article 27 DOES deal with 'Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion'; therefore 'Neither I Nor II' is incorrect because at least Statement I is true; the correct answer is 'Only I.'

Correct Answer: Obligation of States and the Union — Option (b)
Article 256 of the Indian Constitution deals with 'Obligation of States and the Union.' About Article 256: Title: Obligation of States and the Union; Part: Part XI — Relations between the Union and the States; Chapter II — Administrative Relations; Content: The executive power of every State shall be so exercised as to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament and any existing laws which apply in that State; The executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of such directions to a State as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose; Significance: Establishes the principle of federal supremacy — States must comply with Union laws; The Union can give directions to states to ensure such compliance; If a state fails to comply with Union directions, the Union can take over (leading to President's Rule under Article 356); This article ensures the smooth functioning of the federal system; About neighbouring articles: Article 255: Requirements as to recommendations and previous sanctions to be regarded as matters of procedure only; Article 256: Obligation of States and the Union; Article 257: Control of the Union over States in certain cases; Article 258: Power of the Union to confer powers, etc., on States in certain cases; Article 260: Jurisdiction of the Union in relation to territories outside India; Article 261: Public acts, records and judicial proceedings; The correct content of each option: Option (a) — Power of Union to confer powers on States = Article 258 (not 256); Option (b) — Obligation of States and Union = Article 256 (CORRECT); Option (c) — Jurisdiction of Union outside India = Article 260 (not 256); Option (d) — Power of States to entrust functions to Union = Article 258A (not 256).
Option (a) Power of the Union to confer powers, etc., on States in certain cases — Incorrect: This describes Article 258 of the Indian Constitution (NOT Article 256); Article 258 allows the Union to confer powers and impose duties on States or their officers and authorities in certain cases; Article 256 deals with the Obligation of States and the Union. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Jurisdiction of the Union in relation to territories outside India — Incorrect: This describes Article 260 of the Indian Constitution (NOT Article 256); Article 260 deals with the jurisdiction of the Union government in relation to territories outside India (extraterritorial jurisdiction); Article 256 deals with the Obligation of States and the Union to comply with Parliamentary laws.
Option (d) Power of the States to entrust functions to the Union — Incorrect: This describes Article 258A of the Indian Constitution (NOT Article 256); Article 258A (added by the 7th Constitutional Amendment) allows States to entrust functions to the Union; Article 256 deals with the Obligation of States and the Union to comply with laws made by Parliament.

Correct Answer: The relief is highly even — Option (c)
The statement 'The relief is highly even' is INCORRECT about the Peninsular Plateau of India. About the Peninsular Plateau: The Peninsular Plateau is a massive tablelands south of the Indo-Gangetic plain; One of the oldest and most stable landmasses (formed from the Gondwana landmass); Area: About 16 lakh sq km; General shape: Roughly triangular; Evaluation of each statement: Option (a) — 'It lies in the south of northern plains' — TRUE: The Peninsular Plateau lies to the south of the Northern Plains (Indo-Gangetic Plain); it is separated from the northern plains by the Vindhya and Satpura ranges; Option (b) — 'It is triangular in shape' — TRUE: The peninsular plateau has a roughly triangular shape, with the apex pointing southward (Cape Comorin/Kanyakumari) and the base along the Vindhyas in the north; Option (c) — 'The relief is highly even' — FALSE/INCORRECT: The Peninsular Plateau does NOT have highly even relief; it has highly VARIED relief including: Western Ghats (reaching 2,695 m at Anamudi in Kerala), Eastern Ghats (lower and discontinuous), Deccan Plateau (varies from 500-900 m), Chota Nagpur Plateau (900+ m), Malwa Plateau, Marathwada Plateau, rivers cut deep valleys, rocky terrain; The relief is NOT at all 'highly even' — this is the INCORRECT statement; Option (d) — 'Aravali hills, one of the oldest ranges of the world, border it on the north-west side' — TRUE: The Aravallis are indeed one of the world's oldest fold mountains; they run NE-SW through Rajasthan and Delhi; they border the peninsular plateau on the north-west side.
Option (a) It lies in the south of northern plains — Incorrect as an answer (statement is TRUE): The Peninsular Plateau DOES lie to the south of the Northern Plains (Indo-Gangetic Plain); this is a geographically correct statement; the question asks for the INCORRECT statement, and this is NOT the incorrect one.
Option (b) It is triangular in shape — Incorrect as an answer (statement is TRUE): The Peninsular Plateau IS roughly triangular in shape — widest in the north (along the Vindhyas) and tapering to a point at Kanyakumari in the south; this is a geographically correct statement; the question asks for the INCORRECT statement, and this is NOT the incorrect one.
Option (d) Aravali hills, one of the oldest ranges of the world, border it on the north-west side — Incorrect as an answer (statement is TRUE): The Aravallis ARE one of the world's oldest fold mountains (Pre-Cambrian) and they DO border the Peninsular Plateau on its north-west side; this is a geographically correct statement; the candidate incorrectly selected this as the wrong answer; the actual INCORRECT statement is Option (c) about the relief being 'highly even.'

Correct Answer: Butterfly — Option (a)
Zographetus mathewi is a new species of butterfly (a skipper butterfly) discovered in the Western Ghats in 2025. About Zographetus mathewi : Type: Butterfly — specifically a skipper butterfly (family Hesperiidae ); Discovered: 2025; Location of discovery: Western Ghats, India; Naming: Named after the discoverer/in honor of a researcher; Significance: A new species addition to India's butterfly diversity; Western Ghats context: The Western Ghats (also called Sahyadri) is one of the world's eight 'hottest hotspots' of biological diversity (UNESCO World Heritage Site); Rich in endemic species; A biodiversity treasure house; About Skipper butterflies ( Hesperiidae ): A large family of butterflies; Characterized by stout bodies and hooked antennae; Rapid, darting flight; India has hundreds of species of skipper butterflies; About Western Ghats biodiversity: The Western Ghats runs along the western edge of the Indian peninsula (~1,600 km) through states of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala; Has a high rate of endemism — species found nowhere else in the world; Regular new species discoveries are made here — plants, insects, reptiles, amphibians, fish, and birds; Recent discoveries: Multiple new species of frogs, geckos, snakes, fishes, and insects (including butterflies) are regularly discovered in the Western Ghats; India has about 1,300+ species of butterflies, making it one of the most butterfly-rich countries in the world.
Option (b) Cat — Incorrect: Zographetus mathewi is NOT a cat species; it is a butterfly (skipper butterfly) discovered in the Western Ghats in 2025; new cat species discoveries in India would be major news events; the genus Zographetus belongs to the family Hesperiidae (skippers) — a butterfly family.
Option (c) Bat — Incorrect: Zographetus mathewi is NOT a bat species; it is a butterfly (skipper butterfly) discovered in the Western Ghats in 2025; bat species belong to the order Chiroptera , while butterflies belong to the order Lepidoptera; the genus Zographetus is a butterfly genus in the family Hesperiidae . The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Ant — Incorrect: Zographetus mathewi is NOT an ant species; it is a butterfly (skipper butterfly) discovered in the Western Ghats in 2025; ants belong to the order Hymenoptera (like bees and wasps), while butterflies belong to the order Lepidoptera; the genus Zographetus belongs to the butterfly family Hesperiidae (skippers).

Correct Answer: Friction can be decreased by making the surface rough — Option (d)
The statement 'Friction can be decreased by making the surface rough' is NOT correct — making surfaces rough INCREASES friction. About Friction: Friction is a force that opposes the relative motion between two surfaces in contact; Types of friction: Static friction: Friction between surfaces when there is no relative motion (trying to start moving); highest value; Sliding friction (kinetic friction): Friction between surfaces when they slide against each other; less than static friction; Rolling friction: Friction when an object rolls on a surface; least among the three; Fluid friction: Friction in fluids (liquids and gases); Evaluation of each statement: Statement (a) — 'Sliding friction is smaller than static friction' — TRUE: Sliding friction (kinetic friction) is always LESS than static friction; this is why it's harder to start moving an object than to keep it moving once started; Statement (b) — 'Friction depends on how hard the two surfaces press together' — TRUE: Friction force = μ × Normal force (N); where μ is the coefficient of friction; the harder the surfaces press together (greater normal force), the greater the friction — this is TRUE; Statement (c) — 'Friction is important for many of our activities' — TRUE: Walking (friction between feet and ground), Writing (friction between pen and paper), Braking vehicles, Holding objects, Playing sports — all depend on friction; Statement (d) — 'Friction can be decreased by making the surface rough' — FALSE/INCORRECT: Making surfaces rough INCREASES friction; to DECREASE friction, surfaces should be made smooth, or lubrication should be used; Methods to decrease friction: Lubrication (oil, grease), Smooth surfaces, Ball bearings/rolling wheels, Streamlining (air resistance), Polishing.
Option (a) Sliding friction is smaller than static friction — Incorrect as an answer (statement is TRUE): Sliding friction (kinetic friction) IS smaller than static friction; this is a well-established physics principle; it's harder to START moving an object (overcome static friction) than to KEEP it moving (kinetic friction); this statement is TRUE and NOT the incorrect one.
Option (b) Friction depends on how hard the two surfaces press together — Incorrect as an answer (statement is TRUE): Friction DOES depend on the normal force (how hard the surfaces press together); F = μN (friction = coefficient × normal force); greater the normal force, greater the friction; this is TRUE and NOT the incorrect one.
Option (c) Friction is important for many of our activities — Incorrect as an answer (statement is TRUE): Friction IS important for many activities — walking, writing, driving, sports, gripping objects; without friction we couldn't walk or hold anything; this statement is TRUE and NOT the incorrect one.

Correct Answer: Bijak — Option (a)
The Bijak is the most important and famous collection where the verses of Saint Kabir are mainly found. About Bijak: Compiler: Kabir's disciple, Dharmadas; Contents: The Bijak is the primary scripture of the Kabir Panth (followers of Kabir); It contains Kabir's verses in three sections: Ramani: Long mystical poems in epic style; Shabda: Short mystical poems (Pads/songs); Sakhi: Short couplets ( dohas ) with practical wisdom; Themes: Monotheism, devotion to one God, criticism of caste discrimination, criticism of empty rituals, synthesis of Hindu and Muslim spiritual practices; About Saint Kabir (1440-1518 CE): One of the greatest mystic poets and saints of India; Born in Varanasi (Kashi); Disciple of: Ramananda; Kabir was raised by a Muslim weaver family ( Julahas ) but his spiritual teachings transcended religion; His poetry is in a mixture of Hindi/Braj Bhasha/Awadhi/Punjabi — the language of common people; His teachings influenced: Sikhism (many of Kabir's verses are included in the Guru Granth Sahib); The Bhakti Movement; About other options: Padavali : A collection of verses — used by several saint-poets (Chandidas, Jayadeva, etc.) — NOT specifically Kabir's; Gitagovinda : A Sanskrit lyrical poem by Jayadeva (12th century) about Lord Krishna and Radha — NOT Kabir's; Prabandha Chintamani: A Sanskrit work of poetics — NOT Kabir's.
Option (b) Padavali — Incorrect: Padavali is NOT the specific collection associated with Kabir's verses; the term ' Padavali ' refers to collections of devotional songs — for example, Chandidas's Padavali is famous, and Tagore compiled a collection called 'Vaishnava Padabali'; Kabir's primary collection is the Bijak.
Option (c) Gitagovinda — Incorrect: The Gitagovinda is NOT a collection of Kabir's verses; it is a Sanskrit lyrical poem composed by the 12th-century poet Jayadeva; it describes the love of Lord Krishna and Radha; it has nothing to do with Kabir's dohas or mystical poetry; Kabir's primary collection is the Bijak.
Option (d) Prabandha Chintamani — Incorrect: Prabandha Chintamani is NOT a collection of Kabir's verses; it is a Sanskrit work on poetics and rhetoric; it has no connection with Kabir's devotional and mystical poetry; the candidate incorrectly selected this; Kabir's primary collection is the Bijak.

Correct Answer: Yellow — Option (b)
The middle zone of partial combustion in a candle flame is Yellow in colour . About the Zones of a Candle Flame: A candle flame has three distinct zones: Zone 1 — Innermost zone (Dark/Black zone): Location: Core/center of the flame; Nature: No combustion; Contains unburned wax vapors (volatile hydrocarbon gases); The hottest in terms of fuel vapors but no burning occurs here; Relatively cool; Appears dark/sooty blue at the base; Zone 2 — Middle zone (Yellow/Luminous zone): Location: Middle part of the flame; Nature: PARTIAL combustion — incomplete burning of carbon; The wax vapors burn partially, producing incandescent carbon particles (soot/glowing carbon particles); The yellow/orange glow is due to these hot, glowing carbon particles; Temperature: Moderate (~1000°C); This is the luminous part of the flame — carbon particles glow yellow/orange when heated; Zone 3 — Outermost zone (Blue/Non-luminous zone): Location: Outer periphery of the flame; Nature: COMPLETE combustion — carbon burns completely with oxygen from air; Products: Carbon dioxide (CO₂) and water (H₂O); Hottest zone (approximately 1200-1500°C); Appears blue/almost invisible; Why yellow? In the middle zone, carbon particles are heated but not completely oxidized — they emit yellowish light when incandescent, similar to how a piece of iron glows yellow/orange when heated.
Option (a) Red — Incorrect: The middle zone of partial combustion in a candle flame is NOT red — it is yellow/orange; red might be seen in some flames but is NOT the characteristic color of the middle zone of a candle; the yellow color of the middle zone comes from incandescent carbon particles undergoing incomplete combustion. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Green — Incorrect: The middle zone of a candle flame is NOT green; green flames are produced by certain chemical compounds (like copper salts, boric acid, or barium compounds) when burned; a simple candle wax flame produces yellow (middle zone) due to incandescent carbon particles and blue (outer zone) due to complete combustion — NOT green.
Option (d) Brown — Incorrect: The middle zone of a candle flame is NOT brown; brown is not a characteristic color of any zone of a candle flame; the three zones of a candle flame are: dark/no-combustion (innermost), yellow/luminous/partial combustion (middle), and blue/complete combustion (outermost); none of these zones appears brown.