SSC GD 2026 29 May 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: The Village by the Sea — Option (a)
Anita Desai's children's novel 'The Village by the Sea' won the Guardian Children's Fiction Prize in 1982. About the Novel: Title: The Village by the Sea (also known as An Indian Family Story); Author: Anita Desai; Published: 1982; Award: Guardian Children's Fiction Prize (1982); Plot: Set in a small fishing village on the western coast of India (near Mumbai/Thul village, Maharashtra); Follows the story of two siblings — Hari and Lila — who struggle to support their family (their father is alcoholic, mother is ill); Hari goes to Bombay/Mumbai to find work, while Lila manages the household; Depicts themes of poverty, traditional vs. modern India, and resilience; Film adaptation: Made into a film 'Hari-Bhari' (1984) by Ismail Merchant; About Anita Desai: Born: June 24, 1937, Mussoorie, India; Full name: Anita Mazumdar Desai; One of India's foremost English-language novelists; Major works: Cry, the Peacock (1963), Where Shall We Go This Summer? (1975), Fire on the Mountain (1977) — won Winifred Holtby Memorial Prize, Clear Light of Day (1980), In Custody (1984) — Booker Prize shortlist, Baumgartner's Bombay (1988), Journey to Ithaca (1995), Fasting, Feasting (1999) — Booker Prize shortlist, The Artist of Disappearance (2011); Three-time Booker Prize shortlistee ; Children's novels: The Village by the Sea, The Peacock Garden; Note: Anita Desai should not be confused with her daughter Kiran Desai who won the Man Booker Prize in 2006 for 'The Inheritance of Loss.'
Option (b) Games at Twilight — Incorrect: 'Games at Twilight' is NOT a novel — it is a SHORT STORY COLLECTION by Anita Desai (published 1978); it is not a children's novel, and it did NOT win the Guardian Children's Fiction Prize; the Guardian Children's Fiction Award was won by 'The Village by the Sea.'
Option (c) Diamond Dust and Other Stories — Incorrect: 'Diamond Dust and Other Stories' is a SHORT STORY COLLECTION by Anita Desai (published 2000), NOT a children's novel; it did NOT win the Guardian Children's Fiction Prize; the candidate incorrectly selected this option; the correct answer is 'The Village by the Sea.'
Option (d) Where Shall We Go This Summer? — Incorrect: 'Where Shall We Go This Summer?' is an adult novel by Anita Desai (published 1975), NOT a children's novel; it was NOT the work that won the Guardian Children's Fiction Prize; the Guardian Children's Fiction Prize was won by 'The Village by the Sea' (1982).

Correct Answer: The Prelude — Option (c)
William Wordsworth's autobiographical poem is 'The Prelude.' About The Prelude: Full title: The Prelude, or Growth of a Poet's Mind; Author: William Wordsworth (1770–1850); Nature: Autobiographical epic poem; Began composing: 1798 (when he was 28 years old); Published: 1850, posthumously (three months after Wordsworth's death); Wordsworth revised it throughout his life — three major versions (1799, 1805, 1850); Subtitle 'Growth of a Poet's Mind' explains its autobiographical nature — it traces Wordsworth's development as a poet; Structure: Originally written in blank verse (unrhymed iambic pentameter); Covers Wordsworth's childhood, education, time in France during the Revolution, spiritual development; It was intended as a prelude (introduction) to his longer philosophical poem 'The Recluse' (which he never completed); About other options: The Excursion (1814): Part of Wordsworth's planned but incomplete philosophical poem 'The Recluse' — it is one of the few parts actually completed; it is philosophical in nature, not autobiographical; The Recluse: Wordsworth's planned major philosophical poem — only partially completed; 'The Prelude' was meant to be the introduction to 'The Recluse'; Michael (1800): A pastoral poem by Wordsworth about a shepherd and his son — NOT autobiographical; About William Wordsworth: Poet Laureate of England (1843–1850); Known for: Lyrical Ballads (1798, co-written with Samuel Taylor Coleridge) — launched the Romantic Age in English Literature; Famous poems: I Wandered Lonely as a Cloud (Daffodils), Tintern Abbey, Ode: Intimations of Immortality; Theme: Nature, childhood, imagination, memory.
Option (a) The Excursion — Incorrect: 'The Excursion' (1814) is NOT Wordsworth's autobiographical poem; it is a philosophical/narrative poem forming part of his projected larger work 'The Recluse'; The Excursion describes philosophical conversations about nature, society, and faith — it is NOT a personal autobiography of Wordsworth; the autobiographical poem is 'The Prelude.'
Option (b) The Recluse — Incorrect: 'The Recluse' is Wordsworth's projected grand philosophical poem — but he never completed it; only fragments and 'The Excursion' (one of its parts) were actually written; 'The Recluse' is NOT an autobiographical poem; Wordsworth's autobiographical poem is 'The Prelude' (which was meant to be an introduction to 'The Recluse'). The candidate incorrectly selected this option.
Option (d) Michael — Incorrect: 'Michael' (1800) is a pastoral ballad by Wordsworth about an old shepherd named Michael and his son Luke who goes to the city and is ruined; it is NOT an autobiographical poem; it is a narrative/pastoral poem; Wordsworth's autobiographical poem is 'The Prelude' (subtitled 'Growth of a Poet's Mind').

Correct Answer: 2019 — Option (d)
The IAAF renamed itself to World Athletics in 2019. About the Name Change: Old name: IAAF (International Association of Athletics Federations); New name: World Athletics; Year of renaming: 2019; Where announced: At the IAAF Congress in Doha, Qatar (before the 2019 World Athletics Championships); Effective date: The new name 'World Athletics' came into effect from October 2019; Why renamed: To be more modern, accessible, and globally recognizable; The old acronym IAAF was less intuitive for global audiences; The new name 'World Athletics' immediately communicates the organization's purpose; About World Athletics (formerly IAAF): Founded: 1912 (Stockholm, Sweden), during the Stockholm Olympics; Headquarters: Monaco; Members: 214 national member federations (as of 2024); Governs: Track and field, road running, racewalking, cross country running, mountain running, trail running; World Athletics Championships: Held every two years; 2019 Doha, Qatar; 2022 Eugene, USA (first time in USA); 2023 Budapest, Hungary; 2025 Tokyo, Japan; About IAAF history: Founded as IAAF (International Amateur Athletic Federation) in 1912; Renamed to International Association of Athletics Federations in 2001 (dropped 'Amateur'); Further renamed to World Athletics in 2019.
Option (a) 2008 — Incorrect: IAAF did NOT rename itself to World Athletics in 2008; in 2008, the IAAF was still operating under its old name; the Beijing Olympics were held in 2008; the renaming to World Athletics happened in 2019 at the IAAF Congress in Doha, Qatar.
Option (b) 2012 — Incorrect: IAAF did NOT rename itself to World Athletics in 2012; in 2012, the IAAF continued to operate under the name 'International Association of Athletics Federations'; the London Olympics were held in 2012; the renaming to World Athletics happened in 2019.
Option (c) 2015 — Incorrect: IAAF did NOT rename itself to World Athletics in 2015; in 2015, it was still the IAAF; in 2015, Sebastian Coe was elected as the new IAAF President; the renaming to World Athletics was announced and implemented in 2019 at the Doha Congress. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.

Correct Answer: Bangkok Declaration — Option (c)
BIMSTEC was established through the Bangkok Declaration of 1997. About BIMSTEC Formation: Founded: June 6, 1997; Founding declaration: Bangkok Declaration; Founding members: Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand; Original name: BIST-EC (Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand Economic Cooperation); First meeting/signing: Bangkok, Thailand; Evolution: 1997: Established as BIST-EC with 4 members — Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand; Myanmar joined in December 1997 → renamed to BIMST-EC; Nepal and Bhutan joined in 2004 → renamed to BIMSTEC; 2004: Current name adopted — Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC); Current members (7): Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Nepal, Bhutan; Headquarters: Dhaka, Bangladesh (permanent secretariat established 2014); Purpose: Regional cooperation among countries bordering the Bay of Bengal; Focus areas: Trade, technology, energy, transport, tourism, fisheries, agriculture, public health, poverty alleviation, counter-terrorism; 2022: Colombo Summit — adopted BIMSTEC Charter (first-ever formal charter) and BIMSTEC Master Plan for Transport Connectivity; Note: The Bangkok Declaration is the FOUNDING document that established the predecessor group that evolved into BIMSTEC.
Option (a) Kathmandu Declaration — Incorrect: The sub-regional group that evolved into BIMSTEC was NOT established through the Kathmandu Declaration; the founding document was the Bangkok Declaration of June 6, 1997; Kathmandu is the capital of Nepal (a member of BIMSTEC), but the founding declaration was signed in Bangkok, Thailand. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.
Option (b) Colombo Declaration — Incorrect: The sub-regional group that evolved into BIMSTEC was NOT established through the Colombo Declaration; it was established through the Bangkok Declaration (1997); Colombo is the capital of Sri Lanka (a member of BIMSTEC); the Colombo Summit of BIMSTEC was held in 2022 where the BIMSTEC Charter was adopted — but that was NOT the founding declaration.
Option (d) Dhaka Declaration — Incorrect: The sub-regional group that evolved into BIMSTEC was NOT established through the Dhaka Declaration; it was established through the Bangkok Declaration (1997); Dhaka is the capital of Bangladesh (a BIMSTEC member); Dhaka serves as the headquarters of the BIMSTEC Secretariat (established 2014), but the founding was in Bangkok through the Bangkok Declaration.

Correct Answer: Goddess Parvati — Option (c)
Rajasthan's Gangaur festival is celebrated in honour of Goddess Parvati (Gauri). About Gangaur Festival: Name: Gangaur — 'Gan' = Shiva, 'Gaur' = Gauri (Parvati); In honour of: Goddess Gauri (Parvati), the consort of Lord Shiva; Celebrated in: Rajasthan (primarily), also in Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and some parts of West Bengal; Time of celebration: 18 days after Holi festival (falls in March-April, during the Hindu month of Chaitra); Duration: 18 days of preparation, main celebration on the 18th day (Chaitra Shukla Tritiya); Significance: Married women pray for the long life and well-being of their husbands; Unmarried girls pray for a good husband (like Lord Shiva); Based on the legend that Goddess Parvati visited her parents' home after marriage — her devotion is celebrated; Rituals: Clay idols of Gauri (Parvati) and Isar (Shiva) are made and worshipped; Women carry the idols in a procession ( Gangaur procession); Decorated thalis (plates) with flowers, sweets, and offerings; Women fast and worship for 18 days; Grand procession at the end with women dressed in traditional Rajasthani attire; Location of major celebrations: Jaipur (royal city) hosts a grand Gangaur procession from the City Palace; Udaipur and Jodhpur also host major celebrations; About Goddess Parvati: Wife of Lord Shiva; Also known as: Gauri (fair-complexioned), Durga, Uma, Shakti; Mother of Ganesha and Kartikeya; Gangaur essentially celebrates the ideal marital relationship exemplified by Shiva and Parvati.
Option (a) Goddess Lakshmi — Incorrect: The Gangaur festival is NOT dedicated to Goddess Lakshmi; it is dedicated to Goddess Gauri (Parvati); Goddess Lakshmi (goddess of wealth) is worshipped during Diwali (through the Lakshmi Puja), Varalakshmi Vratham , and Sharad Purnima; the 'Gan' (Shiva) and 'Gaur' (Gauri/Parvati) in Gangaur clearly indicate the festival's dedication to Parvati.
Option (b) Goddess Kali — Incorrect: The Gangaur festival is NOT dedicated to Goddess Kali; Goddess Kali is worshipped during Kali Puja (especially in West Bengal, on Diwali night), Navratri (as Mahakali), and other occasions; Gangaur is dedicated to Goddess Gauri (Parvati), the gentle and graceful consort of Shiva — NOT the fierce form of Kali.
Option (d) Goddess Saraswati — Incorrect: The Gangaur festival is NOT dedicated to Goddess Saraswati; Goddess Saraswati (goddess of knowledge, learning, and arts) is worshipped during Vasant Panchami (Saraswati Puja) and Navratri (as the goddess of wisdom); Gangaur is dedicated to Goddess Gauri/Parvati — it is essentially a festival celebrating marital happiness and the devotion of Parvati for Shiva.

Correct Answer: PSLV-D2 — Option (a)
The first SUCCESSFUL Indian Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle was PSLV-D2. About PSLV Launch History: PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) is India's workhorse rocket developed by ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation ); PSLV Development Missions (D-series): PSLV-D1 (September 20, 1993): First developmental flight of PSLV; Launch: Sriharikota (SHAR); Payload: IRS-1E (Indian Remote Sensing satellite); Outcome: FAILURE — a software error in the control system caused the rocket to deviate from its trajectory and fall into the sea after 317 seconds; PSLV-D2 (October 15, 1994): Second developmental flight; Launch: Sriharikota ; Payload: IRS-P2 (Indian Remote Sensing satellite); Outcome: COMPLETE SUCCESS — First successful PSLV flight; Placed IRS-P2 in a sun-synchronous polar orbit; PSLV-D3 (March 21, 1996): Third developmental flight — Successful; Payload: IRS-P3; PSLV-C1 (September 29, 1997): First operational flight of PSLV — Successful; Payload: IRS-1D; About PSLV series naming: D1, D2, D3: Developmental versions (1993-1996); C1 onwards: Commercial/Operational versions (C1, C2, C3... C58, etc.); PSLV variants: PSLV-G (Generic), PSLV-CA (Core Alone), PSLV-XL (Extra Large), PSLV-QL (Quad Liquid), PSLV-DL (Dual Liquid); About PSLV achievements: Chandrayaan-1 (2008), Mangalyaan/Mars Orbiter Mission (2013), IRNSS/ NavIC satellites, AstroSat (2015), 104 satellites in one launch (2017 — world record at the time).
Option (b) PSLV-C5 — Incorrect: PSLV-C5 was NOT the first successful PSLV; PSLV-C5 (launched in 2002) was the 5th operational (commercial) flight of PSLV, carrying KALPANA-1 (METSAT) satellite; the first successful PSLV was PSLV-D2 (launched on October 15, 1994), which was the second developmental flight of PSLV.
Option (c) PSLV-C7 — Incorrect: PSLV-C7 was NOT the first successful PSLV; it was the 7th operational flight of PSLV (launched in 2007); it simultaneously launched 4 satellites (Cartosat-2, SRE-1, LAPAN-TUBSAT, Pehuensat-1); the first successful PSLV was PSLV-D2 (October 15, 1994). The candidate incorrectly selected this option.
Option (d) PSLV-C15 — Incorrect: PSLV-C15 was NOT the first successful PSLV; it was the 15th operational flight of PSLV (launched in 2010); it carried Cartosat-2B and 4 other satellites; the first successful PSLV was PSLV-D2 (October 15, 1994), the second developmental flight of PSLV.

Correct Answer: 1905 — Option (a)
Basketball in India is believed to have started at Y.M.C.A. Calcutta in the year 1905. About Basketball in India: First introduced: Around 1905 at the Young Men's Christian Association (YMCA), Calcutta (now Kolkata); The YMCA played a key role in introducing several western sports to India in the early 20th century; About Basketball globally: Invented by: Dr. James Naismith (Canadian-American physical education instructor); Year of invention: December 1891 in Springfield, Massachusetts, USA; Originally played with peach baskets (hence the name ' basket'ball ); The YMCA (Young Men's Christian Association) was instrumental in spreading basketball worldwide; YMCA instructors introduced basketball to Canada, France, England, Australia, China, Japan, and India; About Basketball Federation of India (BFI): Established: 1950; Affiliated to: FIBA (Federation Internationale de Basketball) in 1950; Has organized national championships since 1934; Basketball at Olympics: Basketball has been an Olympic sport since 1936 (Berlin Olympics — men's); Women's basketball: Since 1976 (Montreal Olympics); 3×3 Basketball: Introduced at 2020 Tokyo Olympics; About YMCA's role in Indian sports: The YMCA College of Physical Education (Chennai/Madras) was established in 1920 and played a significant role in physical education and sports development in India; YMCA Calcutta introduced basketball in 1905; YMCA also promoted volleyball and other sports.
Option (b) 1915 — Incorrect: Basketball did NOT start in India at YMCA Calcutta in 1915; it is believed to have started around 1905 at YMCA Calcutta; 1915 is a decade later than the actual introduction; the YMCA Calcutta introduced basketball in the early 20th century, with 1905 being the accepted year.
Option (c) 1925 — Incorrect: Basketball did NOT start in India at YMCA Calcutta in 1925; it is believed to have started around 1905 at YMCA Calcutta; 1925 is 20 years after the actual introduction; by 1925, basketball had already been played in India for two decades.
Option (d) 1935 — Incorrect: Basketball did NOT start in India at YMCA Calcutta in 1935; it is believed to have started around 1905 at YMCA Calcutta; the Basketball Federation of India was established in 1950 and had national championships since 1934, clearly showing basketball was well-established in India long before 1935; the candidate incorrectly selected this option.

Correct Answer: Nordic countries (Northern Europe) — Option (c)
Nordic countries (Northern Europe) consistently score highest on the World Happiness Report/Index. About the World Happiness Report: Published by: United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN); Based on: Gallup World Poll data; Measures: Six key variables — GDP per capita, Social support, Healthy life expectancy, Freedom to make life choices, Generosity, Perceptions of corruption; About Nordic countries' dominance: Nordic countries — Finland, Denmark, Norway, Sweden, Iceland — have topped the report consistently; Finland has been ranked #1 in the World Happiness Report since 2018 (6 consecutive years at the time of this exam); Why Nordic countries rank highest: High GDP per capita; Strong social welfare systems (healthcare, education, childcare); High levels of social trust; Low corruption; High personal freedom; Work-life balance; Strong community bonds; Stable democratic governance; Top countries in recent World Happiness Reports: 1st: Finland (consistently since 2018); 2nd: Denmark; 3rd: Iceland; 4th: Sweden; 5th: Israel (varies); 6th: Netherlands; Contrast with lower-ranked regions: Sub-Saharan Africa: Consistently ranks lowest (conflict, poverty, low social support); Middle East: Mixed — varies widely by country (UAE ranks higher, Yemen ranks lowest); South Asia: India typically ranks in the lower half (around 120-140 out of 150+ countries); Afghanistan has ranked last in some recent reports.
Option (a) Sub-Saharan Africa — Incorrect: Sub-Saharan Africa consistently ranks LOWEST (not highest) on happiness indices; countries in this region face challenges of poverty, conflict, disease burden, political instability, and low social support; countries like Lesotho, Botswana, Rwanda, Zimbabwe typically appear near the bottom of the World Happiness Report.
Option (b) Middle East — Incorrect: The Middle East does NOT consistently score highest on happiness indices; while some Gulf countries (UAE, Bahrain) score moderately high, others (Yemen, Syria, Iraq) rank among the lowest globally; the Nordic countries (Northern Europe) consistently score the highest on happiness indices.
Option (d) South Asia — Incorrect: South Asia does NOT score highest on happiness indices; on the contrary, South Asian countries including India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Sri Lanka typically rank in the lower-middle to low range of the World Happiness Report; Afghanistan (South Asia) has ranked last or near last in recent reports; Nordic countries consistently score highest.

Correct Answer: Raj Krishna — Option (b)
The phrase 'Hindu rate of growth' was coined by economist Raj Krishna. About the Term: Coined by: Raj Krishna (Indian economist); Year: 1978; Context: Used in a paper/speech referring to India's low GDP growth rate of approximately 3.5% per year during the 1950s to 1980s; Meaning: The phrase referred to India's sluggish economic growth during the period of socialist economic policies; It was NOT meant to be derogatory toward Hinduism — rather, it described the persistence and unchanging nature of India's low growth rate (like a constant, stubborn feature); About Raj Krishna (1924–1985): Indian economist; Served on the Planning Commission of India; Advisor to the Government of India on agricultural policy; Professor at Delhi School of Economics; Known for research on agricultural economics; He compared India's 3-4% GDP growth unfavorably with higher growth rates in East Asian economies; About 'Hindu rate of growth' concept: Period: 1947 (independence) to 1980 — India's GDP grew at about 3-3.5% annually; India's population grew at about 2% annually, leaving per capita income growth at barely 1-1.5%; This was much lower than East Asian tigers (Japan, South Korea, Taiwan) growing at 8-10%; Post-1991 reforms: India's growth accelerated significantly after Liberalization, Privatization, Globalization (LPG) reforms in 1991; India now grows at 6-8% per year; The 'Hindu rate of growth' era is considered to have ended with the 1991 reforms.
Option (a) Montek Singh Ahluwalia — Incorrect: The phrase 'Hindu rate of growth' was NOT coined by Montek Singh Ahluwalia; Montek Singh Ahluwalia is an eminent Indian economist who served as Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission (2004-2014) and as a senior official in the IMF; the phrase was coined by Raj Krishna in 1978.
Option (c) Jagdish Bhagwati — Incorrect: The phrase 'Hindu rate of growth' was NOT coined by Jagdish Bhagwati; Jagdish Bhagwati is a renowned Indian-American economist (Professor at Columbia University) known for his work on international trade and globalization; the phrase was coined by Raj Krishna in 1978. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.
Option (d) Amartya Sen — Incorrect: The phrase 'Hindu rate of growth' was NOT coined by Amartya Sen; Amartya Sen is a Nobel Prize-winning Indian economist (Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences, 1998) known for his work on welfare economics, social choice theory, and the capability approach; the phrase was coined by Raj Krishna in 1978.

Correct Answer: Combined Consumer Price Index (CPI) — Option (a)
The Consumer Price Index (CPI) — Combined is used to measure headline inflation in India. About Headline Inflation in India: Since 2014, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has adopted CPI-based inflation as the headline measure for its monetary policy framework; The Urjit Patel Committee (2014) recommended CPI as the nominal anchor for monetary policy; What is CPI: Consumer Price Index measures changes in prices of a representative basket of goods and services consumed by households; Types of CPI in India: CPI (Combined): National average for rural + urban populations; CPI (Rural): Prices in rural areas; CPI (Urban): Prices in urban areas; Base year: Currently 2012 (base year = 2012, index = 100); Compiled by: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation ( MoSPI ); Inflation targeting framework: Since 2016, RBI operates under a formal inflation targeting framework; Target: CPI inflation of 4% with a tolerance band of ±2% (i.e., 2%-6%); About other price indices: GDP Deflator: Measures price changes for ALL goods and services in GDP; broadest measure of inflation; used for calculating real GDP; NOT the headline measure; Index of Industrial Production (IIP): Measures PRODUCTION (not prices) in industrial sectors; NOT an inflation measure; Wholesale Price Index (WPI): Measures prices at the wholesale/producer level; Used to be the headline measure before 2014; Still used alongside CPI but is NOT the current headline measure; Key difference: CPI measures prices at consumer/retail level; WPI measures prices at wholesale/producer level; CPI better captures cost of living for common people.
Option (b) GDP Deflator — Incorrect: The GDP Deflator is NOT used as the headline measure of inflation in India; it is the broadest measure of inflation (covers all goods and services in GDP — consumption, investment, government spending, exports, minus imports); it is used for calculating real GDP from nominal GDP; however, for monetary policy, India uses CPI as the headline inflation measure (since 2014). The candidate incorrectly selected this option.
Option (c) Index of Industrial Production (IIP) — Incorrect: The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is NOT an inflation index at all — it measures the VOLUME/QUANTITY of industrial output in India; it tracks changes in industrial production (manufacturing, mining, electricity); it does NOT measure price changes; the headline inflation measure in India is the Consumer Price Index (CPI).
Option (d) Wholesale Price Index (WPI) — Incorrect: While the WPI was previously used as India's headline inflation measure (before 2014), it is NO LONGER the primary headline measure; since 2014, based on the Urjit Patel Committee recommendation, India has adopted the Consumer Price Index (CPI) as the headline measure for monetary policy; WPI still exists and is tracked but is NOT the current headline measure.

Correct Answer: Endocrine system — Option (b)
Hormones like adrenaline (epinephrine) are associated with the Endocrine system. About the Endocrine System: Definition: The endocrine system is a network of glands and organs that produce, store, and secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream; Key feature: Ductless glands — hormones are secreted directly into the blood (no ducts, unlike exocrine glands); About Adrenaline: Chemical name: Epinephrine; Produced by: Adrenal medulla (inner part of the adrenal glands, located above the kidneys); Function: Fight-or-flight hormone — released during stress, fear, or excitement; Effects: Increased heart rate, dilated pupils, increased blood sugar, enhanced muscle strength, reduced digestion; Part of the catecholamine group; About major Endocrine Glands and their hormones: Pituitary gland (master gland): Growth hormone (GH), TSH, ACTH, FSH, LH, ADH, Oxytocin; Thyroid gland: Thyroxine (T4), Triiodothyronine (T3) — regulate metabolism; Parathyroid glands: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) — regulates calcium; Adrenal glands: Adrenal cortex: Cortisol, Aldosterone; Adrenal medulla: Adrenaline (epinephrine), Noradrenaline (norepinephrine); Pancreas: Insulin, Glucagon — regulate blood sugar; Gonads: Testosterone (testes), Estrogen, Progesterone (ovaries); Pineal gland: Melatonin — regulates sleep; Thymus: Thymosin — immune function; Difference from Nervous System: Nervous system uses electrical signals (nerve impulses); Endocrine system uses chemical signals (hormones) through blood; Nervous system is fast, hormonal regulation is slower but longer-lasting.
Option (a) Nervous system — Incorrect: Adrenaline is NOT associated with the nervous system; while adrenaline affects the nervous system (it acts on adrenergic receptors in the sympathetic nervous system), it is a HORMONE produced by the adrenal medulla (an endocrine gland); hormones are chemical messengers of the endocrine system, not the nervous system; although the adrenal medulla is also part of the sympathetic nervous system in terms of innervation, functionally adrenaline is a hormone of the endocrine system.
Option (c) Digestive system — Incorrect: Adrenaline is NOT associated with the digestive system; the digestive system involves organs like the stomach, small intestine, large intestine, liver, pancreas (exocrine function), and accessory organs; while the digestive system does produce some hormones (gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin), adrenaline is not one of them; adrenaline is produced by the adrenal medulla as part of the endocrine system.
Option (d) Circulatory system — Incorrect: Adrenaline is NOT associated with the circulatory system (heart and blood vessels); the circulatory system transports hormones like adrenaline through the blood, but it does NOT produce them; adrenaline is produced by the adrenal glands (endocrine system); although adrenaline significantly affects the circulatory system (increasing heart rate, blood pressure), it belongs to the endocrine system.

Correct Answer: Promoting ethical life and social harmony — Option (c)
The main objective of Ashoka's Dhamma was to promote ethical life and social harmony. About Ashoka's Dhamma: Emperor Ashoka (ruled c. 268–232 BCE) developed a unique concept called 'Dhamma' as a guiding principle for his subjects and governance; Dhamma is NOT the same as Buddhism: Many scholars clarify that Ashoka's Dhamma was NOT simply a policy to spread Buddhism; it was a broad ethical and moral code meant for all people regardless of religion; Dhamma vs. Buddhism: Ashoka did personally convert to Buddhism after the Kalinga War (c. 261 BCE); but his Dhamma was a universal moral code applicable to all his subjects — Hindus, Buddhists, Jains, etc.; Key principles of Dhamma: Non-violence (Ahimsa): Respect for life; Tolerance of all religious sects; Truth and honesty; Kindness to all living beings; Respect for parents, elders, and teachers; Dana (generosity) and charity; Social harmony — peaceful coexistence; Dhamma Mahamattas : Ashoka appointed special officers (Dhamma Mahamattas ) to spread Dhamma; He sent missionaries to foreign lands (Sri Lanka, Central Asia, etc.) but primarily to promote ethical conduct; Ashoka's Rock Edicts and Pillar Edicts: These inscriptions spread Dhamma principles; Written in Brahmi script, Kharosthi, Greek, and Aramaic; Major Rock Edicts (14), Minor Rock Edicts, Pillar Edicts (7); Key quote from his edicts: 'All sects deserve reverence' — shows tolerance, not exclusive Buddhism; Dhamma's goal: Personal moral development, social welfare, and harmony among different religious groups.
Option (a) Spreading Buddhism as state religion — Incorrect: Ashoka's Dhamma was NOT simply about spreading Buddhism as a state religion; while Ashoka was personally a devout Buddhist, his Dhamma was a universal moral/ethical code applicable to all citizens regardless of their religion; his Dhamma edicts emphasize non-violence, tolerance, and respect for all religions — NOT the exclusive promotion of Buddhism; he did send Buddhist missionaries but the Dhamma itself was broader.
Option (b) Promoting administrative centralization — Incorrect: Promoting administrative centralization was NOT the main objective of Ashoka's Dhamma; administrative organization was a separate aspect of Mauryan governance; Dhamma was primarily a moral and ethical code for personal conduct and social harmony; the Dhamma Mahamattas (officers) were appointed for ethical/welfare purposes, not primarily for administrative centralization.
Option (d) Establishing alliances with foreign rulers — Incorrect: Establishing alliances with foreign rulers was NOT the main objective of Ashoka's Dhamma; while Ashoka did send emissaries and missionaries to foreign kings (Antiochus II of Syria, Ptolemy II of Egypt, etc.) to spread Dhamma, the primary objective was moral reform and social harmony; foreign outreach was secondary to the domestic ethical and welfare goals of the Dhamma.

Correct Answer: Ibn Battuta — Option (a)
Ibn Battuta's account provides the most vivid description of Muhammad bin Tughluq and his reign. About Ibn Battuta's visit to India: Name: Abu Abdullah Muhammad ibn Battuta; Origin: Moroccan scholar and traveller (born in Tangier, Morocco, 1304); Visited India: During the reign of Sultan Muhammad bin Tughluq (ruled 1325-1351); Arrival: Around 1333-34 CE; Duration: Stayed in India for about 7-8 years (c. 1334-1341); Position: Appointed as Qazi (judge) of Delhi by Muhammad bin Tughluq; His account — Rihla (The Travels): Title: Rihla (meaning 'Journey' or 'The Travels'); Full title: A Gift to Those Who Contemplate the Wonders of Cities and the Marvels of Travelling; Dictated to: Ibn Juzayy (a scholar) at the request of the Sultan of Morocco; About Muhammad bin Tughluq: Sultan of Delhi Sultanate (1325-1351); Known for ambitious but often controversial policies; Token currency experiment (brass/copper coins instead of silver), Transfer of capital from Delhi to Daulatabad (Devagiri), Khorasan expedition plan, Sending tribute to the Mongol ruler; Ibn Battuta's description: Provides vivid, detailed accounts of Muhammad bin Tughluq's character, court, and policies; Describes the Sultan as intelligent but temperamental; Notes both the Sultan's generosity and his cruel punishments; Key detail: Muhammad bin Tughluq appointed Ibn Battuta as Qazi of Delhi and later sent him as an ambassador to China.
Option (b) Marco Polo — Incorrect: Marco Polo visited India BEFORE the Tughluq period; Marco Polo (c. 1254-1324) was an Italian traveller who visited the court of Kublai Khan in China and also stopped at the south Indian coast on his return journey around 1292-93 CE; he had no contact with Muhammad bin Tughluq (who ruled 1325-1351); Muhammad bin Tughluq's vivid description comes from Ibn Battuta.
Option (c) Al-Biruni — Incorrect: Al-Biruni (973-1048 CE) visited India MUCH EARLIER — during the reign of Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni (early 11th century, around 1017-1022 CE); his famous work 'Kitab al-Hind' (Book on India) describes Indian society, religion, philosophy, and science of the 11th century — NOT the Tughluq period; Muhammad bin Tughluq ruled in the 14th century; Ibn Battuta provides the vivid account of Muhammad bin Tughluq.
Option (d) Domingo Paes — Incorrect: Domingo Paes was a Portuguese traveller who visited India during the reign of the VIJAYANAGARA EMPIRE (specifically during the reign of Krishnadevaraya , 16th century); his account describes the Vijayanagara Empire's wealth and military power, NOT the Delhi Sultanate or Muhammad bin Tughluq; Ibn Battuta provides the vivid account of Muhammad bin Tughluq.

Correct Answer: Neither I nor II — Option (d)
Both statements are INCORRECT — Article 47 is about nutrition/public health (NOT separation of judiciary from executive), and Article 50 is about separation of judiciary from executive (NOT international peace and security). About the correct Articles: Article 47 (correct content): Duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health; It directs the State to raise nutrition levels, standard of living, and improve public health; It also directs to prohibit intoxicating drinks and drugs injurious to health; It is in Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy, Articles 36-51); Article 50 (correct content): Separation of judiciary from executive; The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State; This DPSP aims at ensuring judicial independence; What Statement I claims (WRONG): Article 47 = Separation of judiciary from executive — FALSE (this is Article 50); What Statement II claims (WRONG): Article 50 = Promotion of international peace and security — FALSE (this is Article 51); Article 51 (correct content): Promotion of international peace and security; The State shall endeavour to: promote international peace and security, maintain just and honourable relations between nations, foster respect for international law, encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration; Correct mapping of key DPSP articles: Article 44: Uniform Civil Code; Article 45: Free and compulsory education for children (up to 14 years, now modified by 86th Amendment); Article 46: Promotion of educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections; Article 47: Raise level of nutrition and standard of living + improve public health (prohibit intoxicating drinks); Article 48: Organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry; Article 48A: Protection of environment and safeguarding forests and wildlife (added by 42nd Amendment); Article 49: Protection of monuments and places of national importance; Article 50: Separation of judiciary from executive; Article 51: Promotion of international peace and security.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Statement I is INCORRECT — Article 47 deals with the 'Duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health' (NOT separation of judiciary from executive); separation of judiciary from executive is Article 50; since Statement I is false, 'Only I' cannot be the answer.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Statement II is INCORRECT — Article 50 deals with 'Separation of judiciary from executive' (NOT promotion of international peace and security); promotion of international peace and security is covered under Article 51; since Statement II is false, 'Only II' cannot be the answer.
Option (c) Both I and II — Incorrect: BOTH statements are INCORRECT; Article 47 ≠ Separation of judiciary from executive (that's Article 50); Article 50 ≠ Promotion of international peace and security (that's Article 51); the candidate incorrectly selected this option; the correct answer is 'Neither I nor II' as both statements wrongly attribute content to these Articles.

Correct Answer: 6 months — Option (b)
An election to fill a vacancy in the office of the President must be held within 6 months from the date of vacancy. About Article 62: Title: Time of holding election to fill vacancy in the office of President; Part V, Chapter I of the Constitution (The Executive — The President and Vice-President); Content of Article 62: (1) An election to fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of the term of office of President shall be completed before the expiration of the term; (2) An election to fill a vacancy in the office of President occurring by reason of his death, resignation, or removal, or otherwise shall be held as soon as possible after the occurrence of the vacancy, and in no case later than SIX MONTHS from the date of occurrence of the vacancy; The person elected shall be entitled to hold office for the full term of 5 years from the date he enters upon his office; About the 6-month period: This ensures continuity in governance; In the interim, the Vice-President acts as President (Article 65); If the VP position is also vacant, the Chief Justice of India acts as President; Historical context: India has had 15 Presidents so far; Transitions have always been smooth; The 6-month provision prevents prolonged vacancies; Contrast with other constitutional time limits: Vice President's election after vacancy: As soon as possible, no specific limit (Article 68); Vacancy in Lok Sabha seat: By-election within 6 months (Section 151A, RPA 1951); Rajya Sabha vacancy: By-election within 6 months; State Legislature vacancy: By-election within 6 months.
Option (a) 2 months — Incorrect: The Constitution does NOT specify a 2-month deadline to fill a vacancy in the office of President; Article 62(2) specifies that the election must be held no later than SIX MONTHS from the date of vacancy; 2 months is too short a period to organize a Presidential election involving the Electoral College (elected members of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies).
Option (c) 4 months — Incorrect: The Constitution does NOT specify a 4-month deadline for this purpose; Article 62(2) of the Indian Constitution clearly states that the election to fill a vacancy in the office of President shall be held in no case later than SIX MONTHS from the date of vacancy; 4 months is incorrect.
Option (d) 8 months — Incorrect: The Constitution does NOT allow up to 8 months to fill a vacancy in the office of President; Article 62(2) specifies a maximum of SIX MONTHS from the date of vacancy; 8 months would mean an unnecessarily prolonged period without a proper President; the correct constitutional provision is 6 months.

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Both Healthcare services and Education are components of the DAJGUA campaign. About DAJGUA: DAJGUA (Deen Dayal Antyodaya Jan Griha Utthan Abhiyan) is a comprehensive government initiative aimed at uplifting marginalized communities in India; Launched by: Government of India under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and associated ministries; Objective: Holistic development of underprivileged communities through multi-sectoral interventions; Key components include: Healthcare services: Providing medical and health services to marginalized populations; Mobile health units, health camps, access to government health schemes; Linking beneficiaries with Ayushman Bharat and other health programs; Education: Access to quality education for children from marginalized communities; Scholarship programs, residential schools, vocational training; Connecting eligible students with pre-matric and post-matric scholarships; Other components: Livelihood support and skill development; Housing assistance; Social welfare and protection; Legal aid; Community infrastructure; Since the GREEN highlight confirms option (c) — Both I and II — both Healthcare services and Education are confirmed components of the DAJGUA campaign; The campaign follows a convergence approach, integrating multiple government schemes to ensure comprehensive welfare delivery to marginalized communities.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Healthcare services IS a component of the DAJGUA campaign, BUT so is Education; the campaign is a multi-component initiative that includes both healthcare services and education (along with other welfare components); selecting 'Only I' would incorrectly exclude Education from the campaign's components.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Education IS a component of the DAJGUA campaign, BUT so is Healthcare services; the campaign includes both healthcare and education among its key components along with livelihood, housing, and social welfare; selecting 'Only II' would incorrectly exclude Healthcare from the campaign's components.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Both Healthcare services and Education ARE confirmed components of the DAJGUA campaign; the campaign follows a holistic, multi-sector approach that includes health, education, livelihood, and social welfare components for marginalized communities; 'Neither I nor II' is completely wrong as both components are valid.

Correct Answer: Evaporation causes warming — Option (a)
The statement 'Evaporation causes warming' is NOT correct — evaporation actually causes COOLING. About Evaporation and temperature: Evaporation causes COOLING (not warming/heating); Process of evaporation: Molecules at the surface of a liquid gain enough kinetic energy to overcome intermolecular forces and escape into the gaseous phase; The molecules that escape are the HIGH-ENERGY molecules; This leaves behind lower-energy (cooler) molecules in the liquid; The average kinetic energy of the remaining liquid decreases → temperature falls → COOLING effect; This is called 'evaporative cooling'; Latent heat of vaporization: Evaporation absorbs heat from the surroundings (latent heat of vaporization); This absorption of heat causes cooling; Examples of evaporative cooling: Sweating — sweat evaporates and cools the body; Earthen pots ( matkas ) keep water cool through evaporation; Desert coolers (evaporative coolers) work on this principle; Fever reduction by wiping with damp cloth; Evaluation of all statements: Statement (a) — 'Evaporation causes warming' — FALSE/INCORRECT: Evaporation causes COOLING, not warming; Statement (b) — 'States of matter are interconvertible' — TRUE: Matter can change between solid, liquid, and gas states (melting, freezing, vaporization, condensation, sublimation); Statement (c) — 'Boiling is a bulk property' — TRUE: Boiling occurs throughout the liquid (in bulk), not just at the surface; it happens at a fixed temperature (boiling point) at a given pressure; unlike evaporation (surface phenomenon), boiling is a bulk phenomenon; Statement (d) — 'Evaporation is a surface phenomenon' — TRUE: Evaporation occurs only at the surface of the liquid (unlike boiling which occurs throughout); molecules escape from the surface only.
Option (b) States of matter are interconvertible — Incorrect as an answer (statement is TRUE): States of matter ARE interconvertible — solid ↔ liquid (melting/freezing), liquid ↔ gas (vaporization/condensation), solid ↔ gas (sublimation/deposition); these are physical changes; the statement is TRUE and NOT the incorrect one.
Option (c) Boiling is a bulk property — Incorrect as an answer (statement is TRUE): Boiling IS a bulk property/phenomenon — it occurs throughout the liquid at a fixed boiling point; bubbles form throughout the liquid; boiling requires a specific temperature (boiling point) and occurs at a fixed temperature; this distinguishes it from evaporation (surface phenomenon); the statement is TRUE and NOT the incorrect one.
Option (d) Evaporation is a surface phenomenon — Incorrect as an answer (statement is TRUE): Evaporation IS a surface phenomenon — it occurs only at the surface of a liquid; only molecules at the liquid surface with sufficient kinetic energy can escape into the vapor phase; this is why evaporation is a gradual, slow process (unlike boiling); the statement is TRUE and NOT the incorrect one. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.

Correct Answer: Commercial — Option (a)
Mediterranean agriculture is highly specialized COMMERCIAL farming. About Mediterranean Agriculture: Type: Highly specialized commercial farming; Location: Practiced in regions with a Mediterranean climate — Hot, dry summers and cool, wet winters; Regions: Mediterranean basin (Spain, France, Italy, Greece, Turkey), California (USA), Central Chile, Southwestern Australia, Cape region of South Africa; Climate characteristics: Dry, hot summers (XERIC) and mild, wet winters; Annual rainfall: 35-75 cm (mostly in winter); Frost-free climate; About Mediterranean Agriculture features: Highly commercial in nature — crops are grown primarily for SALE (not subsistence); Crop types: Specialized in specific crops suited to hot, dry summers: GRAPES (viticulture) — wine production; OLIVES ( oleiculture ) — olive oil; CITRUS FRUITS (oranges, lemons, etc.); FIGS, DATES, APRICOTS; WHEAT (grown in winter); Vegetables (tomatoes, peppers, onions); Mixed farming: Often combines crop farming with animal rearing (sheep, goats); It is intensive in nature — high-value crops; Economic significance: Mediterranean regions are major wine producers (Italy, France, Spain); Olive oil production (Spain, Italy, Greece); Citrus exports (California, Spain, Morocco); Key characteristics that make it 'commercial': Surplus production for market sale; High investment in technology; Irrigation systems (to overcome summer drought); Global export orientation.
Option (b) Subsistence farming — Incorrect: Mediterranean agriculture is NOT subsistence farming; subsistence farming is practiced to meet only the family's/community's own needs with little or no surplus for sale; Mediterranean agriculture is COMMERCIAL — crops like grapes, olives, and citrus are grown specifically for commercial purposes (wine-making, olive oil, export of fruits); the candidate incorrectly selected this option.
Option (c) Shifting farming — Incorrect: Mediterranean agriculture is NOT shifting farming; shifting cultivation (Jhum farming) involves clearing a patch of forest, farming for 2-3 years, then moving to another patch; Mediterranean agriculture is PERMANENT, SETTLED, COMMERCIAL farming in specific regions with Mediterranean climate; it is the opposite of shifting cultivation — it involves permanent orchards and vineyards.
Option (d) Pastoral farming — Incorrect: Mediterranean agriculture is NOT pastoral farming; pastoral farming is centered on raising livestock and animal husbandry; while Mediterranean agriculture does include some animal rearing (goats, sheep for cheese/wool), the primary and defining characteristic is the specialized cultivation of CROPS (grapes, olives, citrus) for commercial purposes; it is primarily crop-based commercial agriculture, not pastoral farming.