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SSC GD 2026 4 May 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 20 GK / GS questions asked in SSC GD 2026 on 4 May 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Static GK, Geography, Biology, Current Affairs, Modern History.

📚 20 questions🗓️ 4 May 2026⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Polity (2) · Static GK (7) · Geography (5) · Biology (2) · Current Affairs (1) · Modern History (2) · Economics (1)

Polity (2)

Union, Territory and Citizenship · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q1. Citizenship provisions are given in which part of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Part I
  2. (b) Part II
  3. (c) Part III
  4. (d) Part IV
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Part II

Correct Answer: Part II — Option (b)
Citizenship provisions in the Indian Constitution are contained in Part II (Articles 5 to 11). These articles deal with citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution, citizenship of migrants from Pakistan, rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to Pakistan, and the power of Parliament to regulate citizenship by law.
Option (a) Part I — Incorrect: Part I (Articles 1–4) deals with the Union and its territories.
Option (c) Part III — Incorrect: Part III (Articles 12–35) contains Fundamental Rights.
Option (d) Part IV — Incorrect: Part IV (Articles 36–51) contains the Directive Principles of State Policy.
Union, Territory and Citizenship · Union and its territory (Articles 1-4)

Q2. Who has the power to create new states and alter boundaries of existing states?

  1. (a) Parliament
  2. (b) State Legislature
  3. (c) Supreme Court
  4. (d) President
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Parliament

Correct Answer: Parliament — Option (a)
Under Article 3 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament has the power to form new states, increase or decrease the area of existing states, alter the boundaries of existing states, and change the names of existing states. However, before introducing such a Bill, the President must refer it to the concerned State Legislature for its views. The state legislature's opinion is not binding on Parliament.
Option (b) State Legislature — Incorrect: State Legislatures cannot create new states or alter boundaries; only Parliament can.
Option (c) Supreme Court — Incorrect: The Supreme Court has no legislative power to create or alter states.
Option (d) President — Incorrect: The President's role is to refer such a bill to the state legislature; the actual power lies with Parliament.

Static GK (7)

Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q3. Which deity is predominantly worshipped through Manipuri dance?

  1. (a) Shiva
  2. (b) Krishna
  3. (c) Durga
  4. (d) Ganesha
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Krishna

Correct Answer: Krishna — Option (b)
Manipuri dance (one of the eight classical dance forms of India, originating from Manipur) predominantly depicts the devotion to Lord Krishna and Radha. It is deeply rooted in Vaishnavism and expresses the love story of Radha and Krishna, especially through the Ras Lila performances. The dance is known for its gentle, lyrical, and graceful movements.
Option (a) Shiva — Incorrect: While Shiva worship exists in Manipur, Manipuri classical dance predominantly centres on Krishna.
Option (c) Durga — Incorrect: Durga worship is associated with other dance forms and festivals but not Manipuri classical dance.
Option (d) Ganesha — Incorrect: Ganesha is invoked at the start of performances in many traditions, but Manipuri dance primarily devotionally centers on Krishna.
Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q4. Which of the following is a key characteristic of Bhangra music?

  1. (a) Soft and melodic tunes
  2. (b) Fast and energetic beats
  3. (c) Complex rhythms with slow tempos
  4. (d) Instrumental Music only
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Fast and energetic beats

Correct Answer: Fast and energetic beats — Option (b)
Bhangra is a lively and vibrant folk music and dance form originating from the Punjab region. It is characterized by fast, energetic beats driven primarily by the dhol (a large barrel drum). Bhangra music is traditionally performed during the harvest festival of Baisakhi and is known for its upbeat, high-energy rhythm.
Option (a) Soft and melodic tunes — Incorrect: Bhangra is the opposite — loud, energetic, and rhythmic.
Option (c) Complex rhythms with slow tempos — Incorrect: While Bhangra rhythms can be complex, the tempo is fast, not slow.
Option (d) Instrumental Music only — Incorrect: Bhangra includes both vocal singing ( boliyan ) and instrumental music.
Static GK Miscellaneous · Miscellaneous facts

Q5. In which year did the Jaipur Literature Festival begin?

  1. (a) 2002
  2. (b) 2005
  3. (c) 2006
  4. (d) 2008
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2006

Correct Answer: 2006 — Option (c)
The Jaipur Literature Festival (JLF) began in 2006. It was co-founded by author Namita Gokhale and festival director William Dalrymple. Held annually in Jaipur, Rajasthan, at the Diggi Palace, it has grown into the world's largest free literary festival, bringing together thousands of writers, thinkers, and readers from around the globe.
Option (a) 2002 — Incorrect: JLF did not exist in 2002.
Option (b) 2005 — Incorrect: JLF started in 2006, not 2005.
Option (d) 2008 — Incorrect: By 2008, JLF had already completed two editions since its 2006 launch.
Monuments and Heritage · Temples and religious places

Q6. Which mosque within Agra Fort was constructed by Shah Jahan for the royal ladies and features three domes?

  1. (a) Moti Masjid
  2. (b) Mina Masjid
  3. (c) Nagina Masjid
  4. (d) Jama Masjid
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Nagina Masjid

Correct Answer: Nagina Masjid — Option (c)
The Nagina Masjid (Gem Mosque) inside Agra Fort was built by Emperor Shah Jahan exclusively for the royal ladies of the harem (zenana). It is a small, beautiful white marble mosque featuring three domes. The name 'Nagina' (meaning gem) reflects its exquisite craftsmanship.
Option (a) Moti Masjid — Incorrect: Moti Masjid (Pearl Mosque) inside Agra Fort was built by Emperor Aurangzeb, not Shah Jahan, and is larger.
Option (b) Mina Masjid — Incorrect: Mina Masjid is a tiny, private prayer chamber inside Agra Fort, not the three-domed mosque for royal ladies.
Option (d) Jama Masjid — Incorrect: The Jama Masjid is located outside Agra Fort, near the Taj Mahal, and is a much larger public mosque built by Shah Jahan.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q7. What is the maximum duration of a standard boxing bout in the Olympics?

  1. (a) Three 3-minute rounds
  2. (b) Four 2-minute rounds
  3. (c) Two 3-minute rounds
  4. (d) Three 2-minute rounds
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Three 3-minute rounds

Correct Answer: Three 3-minute rounds — Option (a)
In Olympic boxing (for men), a standard bout consists of three rounds of 3 minutes each, with 1-minute rest intervals between rounds. For women's Olympic boxing, bouts also consist of three rounds of 3 minutes (as standardized from Paris 2024 Olympics onwards). The total maximum fighting time is 9 minutes.
Option (b) Four 2-minute rounds — Incorrect: This format (4 x 2 minutes) was used in Olympic boxing prior to recent rule changes but is no longer the current standard.
Option (c) Two 3-minute rounds — Incorrect: Olympic boxing bouts have three rounds, not two.
Option (d) Three 2-minute rounds — Incorrect: Each round is 3 minutes, not 2 minutes.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q8. How many Asian Games medals did India win in shooting at Hangzhou 2023?

  1. (a) 18
  2. (b) 22
  3. (c) 19
  4. (d) 21
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 22

Correct Answer: 22 — Option (b)
At the 2023 Asian Games held in Hangzhou, China, the Indian shooting contingent had an outstanding performance, winning a total of 22 medals (7 Gold, 9 Silver, and 6 Bronze) in shooting events. This was India's best-ever performance in shooting at the Asian Games, making India the top nation in shooting at Hangzhou 2023.
Option (a) 18 — Incorrect: India won 22 medals in shooting, not 18.
Option (c) 19 — Incorrect: The correct medal tally in shooting was 22.
Option (d) 21 — Incorrect: India's shooting medal count was 22, not 21.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q9. Who was the first Indian woman to win an Olympic silver medal?

  1. (a) Aanchal Thakur
  2. (b) P. V. Sindhu
  3. (c) Sania Mirza
  4. (d) Dipa Karmakar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) P. V. Sindhu

Correct Answer: P. V. Sindhu — Option (b)
P.V. Sindhu ( Pusarla Venkata Sindhu) became the first Indian woman to win an Olympic silver medal when she finished runner-up in the Women's Singles Badminton event at the 2016 Rio de Janeiro Olympics. She went on to win a bronze medal at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics, making her the most decorated Indian woman in Olympic history.
Option (a) Aanchal Thakur — Incorrect: Aanchal Thakur is a skier who won an international skiing medal, not an Olympic silver medalist.
Option (c) Sania Mirza — Incorrect: Sania Mirza is a tennis player who has won Grand Slam doubles titles but has not won an Olympic silver medal.
Option (d) Dipa Karmakar — Incorrect: Dipa Karmakar is a gymnast who finished 4th at the Rio 2016 Olympics but did not win any Olympic medal.

Geography (5)

India - Drainage System · Drainage patterns, basins and river terminology

Q10. Which river of India has the largest catchment area?

  1. (a) Godavari
  2. (b) Ganga
  3. (c) Narmada
  4. (d) Brahmaputra
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ganga

Correct Answer: Ganga — Option (b)
The Ganga (Ganges) river has the largest catchment (drainage basin) area in India, covering approximately 8.6 lakh sq. km — about 26% of India's total land area. The Ganga basin covers states like Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Himachal Pradesh, and Delhi.
Option (a) Godavari — Incorrect: Godavari is the largest river in peninsular India but has a smaller catchment area than Ganga.
Option (c) Narmada — Incorrect: Narmada's catchment area is significantly smaller than that of the Ganga.
Option (d) Brahmaputra — Incorrect: The Brahmaputra has a large total basin area, but its basin within India is smaller than the Ganga's.
Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Continental drift and plate tectonics

Q11. Which of the following plate boundaries formed the Himalayas?

  1. (a) Divergent boundary
  2. (b) Transform boundary
  3. (c) Hotspot boundary
  4. (d) Convergent boundary
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Convergent boundary

Correct Answer: Convergent boundary — Option (d)
The Himalayas were formed by a convergent plate boundary — specifically the collision between the Indo-Australian Plate and the Eurasian Plate, which began approximately 50 million years ago. When two continental plates collide at a convergent boundary, neither subducts; instead, the crust buckles and folds upward to form fold mountains like the Himalayas.
Option (a) Divergent boundary — Incorrect: Divergent boundaries involve plates moving apart, forming rift valleys and mid-ocean ridges, not mountain ranges.
Option (b) Transform boundary — Incorrect: Transform boundaries involve plates sliding past each other horizontally, often causing earthquakes but not mountain formation.
Option (c) Hotspot boundary — Incorrect: Hotspots are mantle plumes below tectonic plates that form volcanic islands (like Hawaii), not fold mountain ranges.
Universe and Solar System · Planets and their features

Q12. Why are the days on Venus longer than its years?

  1. (a) Venus has a slower rotation than revolution
  2. (b) Venus revolves very slowly around the Sun
  3. (c) Venus does not rotate
  4. (d) Venus spins on its axis in the opposite direction
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Venus has a slower rotation than revolution

Correct Answer: Venus has a slower rotation than revolution — Option (a)
A 'day' on Venus (its sidereal rotation period) lasts about 243 Earth days, while a 'year' on Venus (its revolution around the Sun) takes about 225 Earth days. Since Venus rotates extremely slowly on its own axis — slower than its orbital revolution — a Venusian day is longer than a Venusian year.
Option (b) Venus revolves very slowly around the Sun — Incorrect: Venus actually completes its orbit in 225 Earth days, which is shorter than its rotation period.
Option (c) Venus does not rotate — Incorrect: Venus does rotate, just very slowly.
Option (d) Venus spins on its axis in the opposite direction — Incorrect: While Venus does have retrograde rotation (spinning opposite to most planets), this explains why the Sun rises in the west on Venus, not why its day is longer than its year.
Universe and Solar System · Planets and their features

Q13. Which planet has a magnetic field that is offset from its center and tilted about 59 degrees to its rotational axis?

  1. (a) Earth
  2. (b) Jupiter
  3. (c) Uranus
  4. (d) Saturn
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Uranus

Correct Answer: Uranus — Option (c)
Uranus has an unusual magnetic field that is significantly offset from its geometric center (by about one-third of the planet's radius) and is tilted at approximately 59 degrees relative to its rotational axis. This makes Uranus's magnetosphere highly asymmetric and unique in our solar system. Scientists believe this anomaly may be related to Uranus's extreme axial tilt of 97.77 degrees.
Option (a) Earth — Incorrect: Earth's magnetic field is tilted about 11 degrees from its rotational axis and is not significantly offset from its center.
Option (b) Jupiter — Incorrect: Jupiter has a strong magnetic field but it is roughly aligned with its rotational axis with a tilt of about 10 degrees.
Option (d) Saturn — Incorrect: Saturn's magnetic field is nearly perfectly aligned with its rotational axis (less than 1 degree tilt), making it unique among gas giants.
Environment and Protected Areas · Environmental movements of India

Q14. The Chipko Movement is associated with:

  1. (a) Forest conservation
  2. (b) Air pollution
  3. (c) Wildlife trafficking
  4. (d) River pollution
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Forest conservation

Correct Answer: Forest conservation — Option (a)
The Chipko Movement (1973) was a non-violent environmental movement that began in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand (then Uttar Pradesh). Villagers, led notably by Sunderlal Bahuguna and Gaura Devi, hugged trees (' chipko ' means 'to hug/stick') to prevent them from being felled by commercial contractors. The movement is a landmark in the history of forest conservation and environmental activism in India.
Option (b) Air pollution — Incorrect: The Chipko Movement had nothing to do with air pollution.
Option (c) Wildlife trafficking — Incorrect: The movement was about saving trees, not about wildlife trafficking.
Option (d) River pollution — Incorrect: The Chipko Movement was about forest conservation, not river conservation.

Biology (2)

Tissues · Connective tissue (blood, bone, cartilage, ligament, tendon)

Q15. Blood is classified under which type of animal tissue?

  1. (a) Muscular tissue
  2. (b) Nervous tissue
  3. (c) Connective tissue
  4. (d) Epithelial tissue
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Connective tissue

Correct Answer: Connective tissue — Option (c)
Blood is classified as a special type of connective tissue. Like other connective tissues, blood has cells (RBCs, WBCs, platelets) dispersed in an extracellular matrix — in blood's case, the matrix is the liquid plasma. Blood connects and integrates different body systems by transporting oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and waste products.
Option (a) Muscular tissue — Incorrect: Muscular tissue is responsible for movement and contraction; blood is not part of this category.
Option (b) Nervous tissue — Incorrect: Nervous tissue is made up of neurons and glial cells that transmit nerve impulses; blood is not nervous tissue.
Option (d) Epithelial tissue — Incorrect: Epithelial tissue lines body surfaces and cavities; blood does not fall in this category.
Control and Coordination · Plant hormones and tropic movements

Q16. Which of the following is an example of chemotropism in plants?

  1. (a) Shoot bending towards light
  2. (b) Root growing downwards
  3. (c) Pollen tube growing towards ovule
  4. (d) Leaf folding on touch
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pollen tube growing towards ovule

Correct Answer: Pollen tube growing towards ovule — Option (c)
Chemotropism is the growth or movement of a plant organ in response to a chemical stimulus. The classic example is the pollen tube growing towards the ovule in response to chemical signals (such as sugars and other attractants) secreted by the ovule and style. This directional growth ensures successful fertilization.
Option (a) Shoot bending towards light — Incorrect: This is phototropism (response to light), not chemotropism.
Option (b) Root growing downwards — Incorrect: This is geotropism/gravitropism (response to gravity), not chemotropism.
Option (d) Leaf folding on touch — Incorrect: This is thigmonasty or seismonasty (response to touch/mechanical stimulus), not chemotropism.

Current Affairs (1)

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q17. The Rs. 6000 crores allocated for One Nation One Subscription initiative ensures smooth implementation of ONOS from 1st January 2025 to 31st December _____.

  1. (a) 2032
  2. (b) 2030
  3. (c) 2029
  4. (d) 2027
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2027

Correct Answer: 2027 — Option (d)
The One Nation One Subscription (ONOS) initiative was approved by the Union Cabinet of India with an allocation of Rs. 6000 crores. The scheme covers the period from 1st January 2025 to 31st December 2027. Under this initiative, all government-funded higher education institutions and research laboratories across India will have access to research articles and journals from major international publishers.
Option (a) 2032 — Incorrect: The ONOS scheme is approved only up to 2027, not 2032.
Option (b) 2030 — Incorrect: The scheme ends in 2027, not 2030.
Option (c) 2029 — Incorrect: The correct end year is 2027, not 2029.

Modern History (2)

British Administration and Policies · Economic impact and drain of wealth

Q18. Which crop did the British force the peasants of Maharashtra to produce?

  1. (a) Cotton
  2. (b) Tea
  3. (c) Jute
  4. (d) Barley
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Cotton

Correct Answer: Cotton — Option (a)
The British colonial administration, particularly after the American Civil War (1861–1865) disrupted cotton supplies from the USA, forced the peasants of the Deccan region of Maharashtra to grow cotton for export to British textile mills in Lancashire. This commercialization of agriculture led to increased indebtedness among peasants and eventually sparked the Deccan Riots of 1875.
Option (b) Tea — Incorrect: Tea cultivation was forced primarily in Assam and West Bengal, not Maharashtra.
Option (c) Jute — Incorrect: Jute cultivation was concentrated in Bengal (present-day West Bengal and Bangladesh), not Maharashtra.
Option (d) Barley — Incorrect: Barley was not a crop forced on Maharashtra's peasants by the British.
Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Ramakrishna Mission and Swami Vivekananda

Q19. In which year the World Parliament of Religions was held in Chicago?

  1. (a) 1893
  2. (b) 1895
  3. (c) 1897
  4. (d) 1899
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1893

Correct Answer: 1893 — Option (a)
The Parliament of the World's Religions (also known as the World's Parliament of Religions) was held in Chicago in 1893, as part of the World's Columbian Exposition. It is famous for Swami Vivekananda's historic speech beginning with 'Sisters and Brothers of America', which brought worldwide recognition to Vedanta philosophy and Indian spirituality.
Option (b) 1895 — Incorrect: The Parliament was held in 1893, not 1895.
Option (c) 1897 — Incorrect: The year 1897 is associated with Swami Vivekananda founding the Ramakrishna Mission, not the Chicago Parliament.
Option (d) 1899 — Incorrect: The World Parliament of Religions took place in 1893, not 1899.

Economics (1)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Economic indices and rankings

Q20. Which of the following ministry has unveiled 'Logistics Ease Across Different States (LEADS) 2024' Report?

  1. (a) Ministry of Commerce & Industry
  2. (b) Ministry of Finance
  3. (c) Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
  4. (d) Ministry of Cooperation
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ministry of Commerce & Industry

Correct Answer: Ministry of Commerce & Industry — Option (a)
The 'Logistics Ease Across Different States (LEADS)' report is published by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India. The LEADS index ranks Indian states and Union Territories based on the quality of logistics infrastructure, services, and human resources. The 2024 edition evaluates states' logistics ecosystems to promote ease of doing business and reduce logistics costs.
Option (b) Ministry of Finance — Incorrect: The Ministry of Finance handles fiscal policy and budget matters, not logistics rankings.
Option (c) Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways — Incorrect: While this ministry manages port and waterway logistics, the LEADS report is under Commerce & Industry.
Option (d) Ministry of Cooperation — Incorrect: The Ministry of Cooperation deals with the cooperative sector, not logistics ease rankings.
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