SSC GD 2026 5 May 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Potential energy is minimum, kinetic energy is maximum — Option (b)
During free fall, total mechanical energy (potential energy + kinetic energy) is conserved (ignoring air resistance). As an object falls, its height decreases — so its gravitational potential energy (PE = mgh ) continuously decreases. Simultaneously, its velocity increases, so its kinetic energy (KE = ½mv²) continuously increases. Just before hitting the ground, height is nearly zero → PE is minimum (nearly zero), while velocity is maximum → KE is maximum. All of the initial PE has been converted to KE.
Option (a) Potential energy is maximum, kinetic energy is minimum — Incorrect: This describes the initial state (before falling), not just before impact.
Option (c) Both KE and PE are zero — Incorrect: Just before impact, velocity is maximum so KE is maximum; PE is near zero but KE is not zero.
Option (d) Some energy is lost due to conversion — Incorrect: In ideal free fall (no air resistance), energy is conserved; no energy is lost.

Correct Answer: Earth's gravitational force — Option (a)
The primary force keeping a satellite in orbit is Earth's gravitational force. Gravity pulls the satellite toward Earth's centre , providing the centripetal force required for circular orbital motion. For a Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellite with a 90-minute orbital period (altitude ~300–400 km), Earth's gravity is the sole force maintaining the orbit. The satellite continuously 'falls' toward Earth but moves forward fast enough that Earth curves away beneath it — resulting in stable circular motion.
Option (b) Centrifugal force of the satellite — Incorrect: Centrifugal force is a pseudo-force experienced in a rotating reference frame; it is not an actual force keeping the satellite in orbit. In an inertial frame, only gravity acts on the satellite.
Option (c) Magnetic force from Earth — Incorrect: Earth's magnetic field does exert some force on charged particles, but it is not the primary force maintaining a satellite's orbit.
Option (d) Electromagnetic force — Incorrect: Electromagnetic forces act on charged particles; they are not the primary orbital force for a satellite.

Correct Answer: Jhumpa Lahiri — Option (b)
'Interpreter of Maladies' is a debut short story collection by Jhumpa Lahiri, published in 1999. The book won the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 2000, making Lahiri one of the few debut authors to win this prize. The collection explores the lives of Indian immigrants and their cultural experiences. Jhumpa Lahiri was born in London to Bengali immigrant parents and raised in the United States.
Option (a) Arundhati Roy — Incorrect: Arundhati Roy wrote 'The God of Small Things' (1997 Booker Prize winner), not 'Interpreter of Maladies'.
Option (c) Kiran Desai — Incorrect: Kiran Desai wrote 'The Inheritance of Loss' (2006 Booker Prize winner), not 'Interpreter of Maladies'.
Option (d) Anita Desai — Incorrect: Anita Desai is a veteran Indian novelist known for 'Fire on the Mountain' and 'In Custody'; she did not write 'Interpreter of Maladies'.

Correct Answer: INSAT-3D — Option (a)
INSAT-3D is an advanced meteorological satellite launched by ISRO in 2013. It played a crucial role in monitoring and tracking severe cyclones like Phailin (2013) and Hudhud (2014) over the Bay of Bengal. INSAT-3D carries an Imager and a Sounder payload that provide real-time data on atmospheric temperature, humidity profiles, and cloud imagery — enabling the India Meteorological Department (IMD) to issue timely cyclone warnings.
Option (b) Cartosat-1 — Incorrect: Cartosat-1 is a remote sensing satellite for cartographic applications (mapping and terrain modeling), not meteorology or cyclone monitoring.
Option (c) GSAT-7 — Incorrect: GSAT-7 (Rukmini) is a military communication satellite used by the Indian Navy; it is not designed for cyclone monitoring.
Option (d) RISAT-2 — Incorrect: RISAT-2 is a radar imaging satellite primarily used for border surveillance and disaster monitoring; it is not a meteorological satellite for cyclone tracking.

Correct Answer: Neeraj Chopra — Option (a)
Neeraj Chopra won India's only Athletics medal at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics (held in 2021) — a Gold medal in the Men's Javelin Throw event. He threw 87.58 metres to win the gold, making him the first Indian to win an Olympic gold medal in Athletics and only the second Indian to win an individual Olympic gold (after Abhinav Bindra in shooting at Beijing 2008). This was a historic achievement for Indian athletics.
Option (b) Anju Bobby George — Incorrect: Anju Bobby George won a Bronze at the 2003 World Athletics Championships in long jump, not at Tokyo 2020 Olympics.
Option (c) Avinash Sable — Incorrect: Avinash Sable competed in the 3000m steeplechase at Tokyo but did not win a medal.
Option (d) Hima Das — Incorrect: Hima Das ( Dhing Express) is a sprint champion; she did not compete at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics.

Correct Answer: WADA — Option (a)
WADA (World Anti-Doping Agency) is the international independent agency established in 1999 and headquartered in Montreal, Canada, that oversees the global anti-doping effort in sports. WADA sets international standards for anti-doping (the World Anti-Doping Code), maintains the Prohibited List of banned substances, accredits testing laboratories, and coordinates with national anti-doping agencies and sports organizations worldwide.
Option (b) IOC — Incorrect: The International Olympic Committee (IOC) promotes the Olympic Games and sport values; while it supports anti-doping efforts, WADA is the specific body overseeing the global anti-doping fight.
Option (c) USADA — Incorrect: USADA (US Anti-Doping Agency) is the national anti-doping authority of the United States — it operates nationally, not globally.
Option (d) NADA — Incorrect: NADA (National Anti-Doping Agency) is India's national anti-doping body; like USADA, it operates at a national level, not globally.

Correct Answer: Ganga-Brahmaputra — Option (b)
The Ganga-Brahmaputra delta (also known as the Sundarbans Delta or Bengal Delta) is the world's largest river delta, covering approximately 105,000 sq. km across Bangladesh and West Bengal (India). It is formed by the combined sediment deposits of the Ganga (Padma), Brahmaputra (Jamuna), and Meghna rivers. The Sundarbans — the world's largest mangrove forest — lies in this delta.
Option (a) Indus — Incorrect: The Indus delta is in Pakistan (Sindh province) along the Arabian Sea; while significant, it is not the world's largest delta.
Option (c) Godavari — Incorrect: The Godavari delta in Andhra Pradesh is the largest delta in India among peninsular rivers but not the world's largest.
Option (d) Krishna — Incorrect: The Krishna delta is smaller than the Godavari delta and is not the world's largest.

Correct Answer: 13.3° — Option (a)
The Moon completes one full orbit of 360° around Earth in approximately 27 days (sidereal month). To find the daily orbital movement: 360° ÷ 27 days = 13.33° per day. This means the Moon moves approximately 13.3° along its orbit each day. This is also why the Moon rises about 50 minutes later each day — it has moved 13.3° further along its orbit relative to the Sun.
Option (b) 27° — Incorrect: 27° would be the daily movement if the Moon completed its orbit in about 13 days, which is incorrect.
Option (c) 360° — Incorrect: 360° is the total angle of one complete orbit, not the daily movement.
Option (d) 7° — Incorrect: 7° would correspond to an orbital period of about 51 days (360÷7 ≈ 51), which does not match the Moon's actual period.

Correct Answer: Sahyadri Hills — Option (a)
The Western Ghats are also known as the Sahyadri Hills (or Sahyadri Mountains). This mountain range runs parallel to the western coast of India for about 1,600 km through the states of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. The Western Ghats are a UNESCO World Heritage Site and one of the world's eight biodiversity hotspots, known for their exceptional plant and animal diversity.
Option (b) Vindhya Range — Incorrect: The Vindhya Range is a separate mountain range in central India running through Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh; it is not another name for the Western Ghats.
Option (c) Aravalli Hills — Incorrect: The Aravalli Hills are a separate, ancient mountain range in Rajasthan; they have no connection to the Western Ghats.
Option (d) Nilgiri Hills — Incorrect: The Nilgiri Hills are a specific mountain range in Tamil Nadu and Kerala that are part of the Western Ghats system, but ' Nilgiri Hills' is not an alternate name for the entire Western Ghats.

Correct Answer: Industrialization and heavy industry — Option (b)
The Second Five Year Plan (1956–61), formulated by P.C. Mahalanobis ( Mahalanobis Model), was primarily focused on rapid industrialization with special emphasis on the development of heavy industries such as steel, coal, and machinery. The plan aimed to build the industrial base for India's long-term economic development. Major steel plants were established at Bhilai (with Soviet Union assistance), Durgapur (with UK assistance), and Rourkela (with West Germany's assistance) during this period.
Option (a) Promoting handicraft exports — Incorrect: The Second Plan focused on heavy industry and capital goods, not handicraft exports.
Option (c) Expansion of service sector — Incorrect: Service sector expansion was not the priority; the focus was on building the heavy industrial base.
Option (d) Complete privatization of agriculture — Incorrect: India followed a mixed economy model; complete privatization was never pursued, and the Second Plan emphasized the public sector.

Correct Answer: Import substitution and protectionism — Option (b)
From the 1950s to the 1980s, India's trade policy was characterized by Import Substitution Industrialization (ISI) and strong protectionism. The government imposed high tariffs, import licensing, quantitative restrictions, and foreign exchange controls to protect domestic industries from foreign competition. The aim was to develop self-sufficiency and reduce dependence on imports by building domestic manufacturing capacity. This policy was largely abandoned after the 1991 economic reforms.
Option (a) Complete liberalization — Incorrect: Complete liberalization was introduced only after 1991; the pre-1991 era was marked by heavy state controls and protectionism.
Option (c) Export promotion through free trade — Incorrect: India's pre-1991 policy focused inward on import substitution, not on promoting exports through free trade.
Option (d) Foreign portfolio investment — Incorrect: Foreign portfolio investment was discouraged before 1991; India maintained strict capital controls and FDI restrictions.

Correct Answer: 1965 — Option (b)
The Food Corporation of India (FCI) was established on January 14, 1965 under the Food Corporations Act, 1964. It was set up to handle the procurement, storage, distribution, and trade of food grains (primarily wheat and rice) in India. FCI plays a central role in implementing the Government of India's food policy — ensuring price support to farmers through Minimum Support Price (MSP) and food security for the population through the Public Distribution System (PDS).
Option (a) 1951 — Incorrect: 1951 marks the beginning of the First Five Year Plan; FCI was not established in 1951.
Option (c) 1968 — Incorrect: The Green Revolution in India gained momentum around 1968, but FCI was already established in 1965.
Option (d) 1974 — Incorrect: 1974 was a period of food crisis in India; FCI had already been functioning since 1965.

Correct Answer: 18 to 40 years — Option (a)
The Atal Pension Yojana (APY), launched in May 2015, covers Indian citizens between the ages of 18 to 40 years. Subscribers contribute for a minimum of 20 years and receive a fixed monthly pension of Rs. 1,000 to Rs. 5,000 per month after the age of 60, depending on their contribution amount. The scheme is primarily targeted at workers in the unorganized sector who lack access to formal pension benefits.
Option (b) 18 to 60 years — Incorrect: The upper age limit for joining APY is 40 years (not 60). One must join before age 40 to ensure at least 20 years of contributions.
Option (c) 21 to 40 years — Incorrect: The minimum entry age for APY is 18 years, not 21.
Option (d) 21 to 60 years — Incorrect: Both the minimum (18, not 21) and maximum (40, not 60) ages are incorrect for APY.

Correct Answer: Economic liberalization policy — Option (c)
In 1991, facing a severe balance of payments crisis, India initiated a comprehensive Economic Liberalization Policy under Finance Minister Manmohan Singh and Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao. This included dismantling import licensing (LPQ — Licensing, Permit, Quota Raj), reducing customs duties, allowing foreign direct investment, devaluing the rupee, and making the current account convertible. These reforms opened India to international trade, boosted exports, and integrated India into the global economy.
Option (a) Import substitution strategy — Incorrect: Import substitution was the pre-1991 policy that was replaced by liberalization; it restricted imports rather than promoting exports.
Option (b) Export-Import Policy Framework — Incorrect: While EXIM Policy was part of the trade reform, the overarching reform that promoted export growth was the Economic Liberalization Policy of 1991.
Option (d) Green Revolution strategy — Incorrect: The Green Revolution (1960s–70s) was an agricultural transformation strategy focused on food grain production, not trade or export policy reform.

Correct Answer: Chola, Chera and Pandya — Option (b)
During the Sangam Age (approximately 3rd century BCE to 3rd century CE), the Tamil region was dominated by three important chieftain dynasties: the Cholas (based around Uraiyur and Kaveripattinam ), the Cheras (based in Kerala and western Tamil Nadu), and the Pandyas (based around Madurai). Together they are known as the 'Three Crowned Kings' ( Muvendar ). Their history, culture, and conflicts are extensively documented in Sangam literature.
Option (a) Chalukya , Chera and Maurya — Incorrect: The Chalukyas and Mauryas were not part of the Sangam Age Tamil chieftain powers; Chalukyas rose later and Mauryas were North Indian.
Option (c) Chola, Satavahana and Gupta — Incorrect: Satavahanas and Guptas were Deccan and North Indian dynasties; they did not dominate the Tamil Sangam Age.
Option (d) Pallava, Maurya and Nanda — Incorrect: The Pallavas rose to prominence after the Sangam Age; Mauryas and Nandas were North Indian empires.

Correct Answer: Banaras (Varanasi) — Option (c)
Kashi was one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas (great kingdoms) of ancient India (6th–4th centuries BCE). It was centred around the city of Varanasi (also known as Kashi or Banaras) on the banks of the Ganga river in present-day Uttar Pradesh. Kashi was one of the oldest continuously inhabited cities in the world and was a major centre of trade, culture, and religion. It was eventually absorbed by the Kosala Mahajanapada .
Option (a) Jaipur — Incorrect: Jaipur (Rajasthan) was founded in 1727 CE by Maharaja Jai Singh II; it has no connection to the ancient Kashi Mahajanapada.
Option (b) Mathura — Incorrect: Mathura was the capital of the Surasena Mahajanapada (associated with Krishna), not Kashi.
Option (d) Allahabad — Incorrect: Allahabad (now Prayagraj) was associated with the Vatsa Mahajanapada (capital Kausambi ), not Kashi.

Correct Answer: Ramakrishna Paramahamsa — Option (d)
Sri Ramakrishna Paramahamsa (1836–1886) was the spiritual guru of Swami Vivekananda (born Narendranath Datta). Vivekananda first met Ramakrishna in 1881 at the Dakshineswar Kali Temple near Kolkata. Under Ramakrishna's guidance, Vivekananda experienced profound spiritual transformations. After Ramakrishna's death, Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897 and represented Hinduism at the Parliament of World's Religions in Chicago in 1893.
Option (a) Ramananda — Incorrect: Ramananda was a 14th-15th century Vaishnava saint and the guru of Kabir; he was not the guru of Swami Vivekananda.
Option (b) Adi Shankaracharya — Incorrect: Adi Shankaracharya was an 8th-century philosopher and theologian who lived over a millennium before Swami Vivekananda.
Option (c) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu — Incorrect: Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (1486–1534) was a Bengali saint who propagated devotional Vaishnavism; he was not the guru of Swami Vivekananda.

Correct Answer: Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan — Option (d)
Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan (1890–1988), also known as 'Frontier Gandhi' or 'Bacha Khan', was a Pashtun independence activist who strongly and consistently opposed the partition of India. He was a devoted follower of Mahatma Gandhi and believed in non-violence and a united India. His non-violent movement, the Khudai Khidmatgar ('Servants of God' or Red Shirts), worked for independence but not for partition. Despite his opposition, when Pakistan was created, he and his followers suffered greatly.
Option (a) Mohammad Ali Jinnah — Incorrect: Jinnah was the primary advocate for partition and the creation of Pakistan; he was the opposite of someone opposed to partition.
Option (b) Chaudhry Rahmat Ali — Incorrect: Chaudhry Rahmat Ali was the one who coined the name 'Pakistan' in 1933; he strongly supported partition.
Option (c) Liaquat Ali Khan — Incorrect: Liaquat Ali Khan was a close associate of Jinnah and a strong supporter of the Pakistan movement; he became Pakistan's first Prime Minister.

Correct Answer: 6.4% — Option (a)
According to the International Monetary Fund's World Economic Outlook published in 2025, India's GDP growth rate for 2026 was projected to be approximately 6.4%. Despite global economic headwinds including geopolitical tensions and monetary tightening in advanced economies, India continued to be projected as one of the fastest-growing major economies. The IMF cited strong domestic consumption, investment in infrastructure, and a robust services sector as key growth drivers.
Option (b) 7.1% — Incorrect: While India has achieved above 7% growth in some recent years, the IMF's 2025 projection for India's 2026 GDP growth was 6.4%, not 7.1%.
Option (c) 8.5% — Incorrect: An 8.5% projection would be higher than any recent IMF estimate for India's growth; 6.4% is the correct figure.
Option (d) 7.9% — Incorrect: 7.9% does not match the IMF's 2025 projected GDP growth rate for India in 2026.