SSC GD 2026 5 May 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Article 213 — Option (b)
Article 213 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Governor of a state to promulgate ordinances when the state legislature is not in session. The Governor can issue an ordinance only on the advice of the Council of Ministers and when immediate legislative action is required. An ordinance has the same force as a state law but must be laid before the state legislature and ceases to operate six weeks after reassembly unless approved.
Option (a) Article 200 — Incorrect: Article 200 deals with the Governor giving assent to bills passed by the state legislature, not promulgation of ordinances.
Option (c) Article 356 — Incorrect: Article 356 deals with the imposition of President's Rule (State Emergency) in a state.
Option (d) Article 368 — Incorrect: Article 368 deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution, not the Governor's ordinance-making power.

Correct Answer: Dhol , Harmonium and Manjira — Option (a)
Gaur dance is a folk dance form of the Gond tribe of Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, performed during festivals and celebrations. The traditional instruments commonly played during Gaur dance include the Dhol (a large double-headed drum), Harmonium, and Manjira (small hand cymbals). These instruments provide the energetic rhythm that characterizes this tribal dance form.
Option (b) Sitar and Tabla — Incorrect: Sitar and Tabla are classical Hindustani music instruments, not associated with the tribal Gaur folk dance.
Option (c) Flute and Mridangam — Incorrect: The Mridangam is primarily associated with Carnatic music in South India; these are not the instruments used in Gaur dance.
Option (d) Dholak and Shehnai — Incorrect: While Dholak and Shehnai are used in various folk traditions, they are not the primary instruments of Gaur dance.

Correct Answer: 4 — Option (b)
The Natyashastra, the ancient Indian treatise on performing arts written by Bharata Muni (approximately 2nd century BCE to 2nd century CE), classifies musical instruments ( vadya ) into four categories: (1) Tata Vadya — stringed instruments (like veena, sitar); (2) Avanaddha Vadya — percussion/membrane instruments (like tabla , mridangam); (3) Sushira Vadya — wind/blown instruments (like flute, shehnai); (4) Ghana Vadya — solid/idiophone instruments (like manjira , ghatam).
Option (a) 3 — Incorrect: The Natyashastra classifies musical instruments into 4 categories, not 3.
Option (c) 5 — Incorrect: The traditional Indian classification has 4 categories, not 5 (though some modern systems add a 5th category for electronic instruments).
Option (d) 6 — Incorrect: There are 4 categories in the Natyashastra classification, not 6.

Correct Answer: Rupa Bajwa — Option (c)
'The Sari Shop' is a debut novel by Indian author Rupa Bajwa, published in 2004. The novel is set in Amritsar and follows Ramchand, a young shop assistant in a sari shop, who observes the class divide in Indian society. The book was critically acclaimed and won the Betty Trask Award and the Encore Award in the UK.
Option (a) R.K. Narayan — Incorrect: R.K. Narayan is known for works like 'Swami and Friends' and 'Malgudi Days', not 'The Sari Shop'.
Option (b) Anjali Banerjee — Incorrect: Anjali Banerjee is an American author of South Asian origin; she did not write 'The Sari Shop'.
Option (d) Shashi Tharoor — Incorrect: Shashi Tharoor is known for books like 'The Great Indian Novel' and 'An Era of Darkness', not 'The Sari Shop'.

Correct Answer: Kolkata — Option (d)
The Durand Cup 2023 (132nd edition) final was held in Kolkata at the Vivekananda Yuba Bharati Krirangan (Salt Lake Stadium). East Bengal FC won the tournament, defeating Mohun Bagan Super Giant 1-0 in the final. Kolkata has a historic association with the Durand Cup, which is the oldest football tournament in Asia and the third oldest in the world, having been inaugurated in 1888.
Option (a) Guwahati — Incorrect: Guwahati hosted some group-stage matches of Durand Cup 2023 but not the final.
Option (b) Mumbai — Incorrect: Mumbai did not host the 2023 Durand Cup final.
Option (c) Hyderabad — Incorrect: Hyderabad did not host the 2023 Durand Cup final; the final was held in Kolkata.

Correct Answer: One concave and one convex lens — Option (c)
A bifocal lens is a corrective eyeglass lens that contains two distinct optical powers. The upper portion is typically a concave lens (for distance vision — correcting myopia/short-sightedness), while the lower portion is a convex lens (for near vision — correcting presbyopia/reading difficulty). This combination allows the wearer to see clearly at both distant and close ranges without switching glasses.
Option (a) Two concave lenses — Incorrect: Two concave lenses would only correct myopia at both segments, not serve a bifocal purpose.
Option (b) Two convex lenses — Incorrect: Two convex lenses would only correct hypermetropia/reading difficulty, not serve a bifocal purpose.
Option (d) Two cylindrical lenses — Incorrect: Cylindrical lenses correct astigmatism; they are not the standard components of a bifocal lens.

Correct Answer: 24 hours — Option (a)
A geostationary satellite has an orbital period exactly equal to Earth's rotation period — 24 hours (more precisely, 23 hours 56 minutes 4 seconds or one sidereal day). This is why it appears stationary above a fixed point on the equator. The orbital radius of approximately 42,200 km (or about 35,786 km above Earth's surface) is specifically calculated so that the satellite's orbital speed matches Earth's rotational speed. This property makes geostationary satellites ideal for communications, weather monitoring, and broadcasting.
Option (b) 12 hours — Incorrect: A 12-hour orbital period corresponds to a Medium Earth Orbit (MEO) satellite like GPS satellites, not a geostationary satellite.
Option (c) 6 hours — Incorrect: A 6-hour orbital period would correspond to a much lower orbit than geostationary.
Option (d) 48 hours — Incorrect: A 48-hour period would mean the satellite orbits slower than Earth's rotation and would not remain stationary above a point.

Correct Answer: Air quality may adversely affect health of sensitive groups — Option (a)
The AQI 'Moderate' category (AQI range 101–200 in India's scale) indicates that the air quality may cause discomfort to people who are unusually sensitive to air pollution, such as those with respiratory conditions (asthma, COPD), heart diseases, the elderly, and children. While the general public is less likely to be affected at this level, sensitive groups are advised to limit prolonged outdoor activities.
Option (b) Air quality is excellent — Incorrect: 'Excellent' or 'Good' (AQI 0–50) indicates air quality posing little or no risk to health; this is not 'Moderate'.
Option (c) Air quality is satisfactory — Incorrect: 'Satisfactory' (AQI 51–100) means air quality is acceptable; it is one step below 'Moderate'.
Option (d) Air quality is dangerous for everyone — Incorrect: 'Severe' or 'Hazardous' categories (AQI 401–500) indicate danger for everyone, not the 'Moderate' category.

Correct Answer: Urban service sector expanded rapidly while agriculture stagnated — Option (d)
The 1991 economic liberalization reforms in India led to rapid growth in the urban services sector (IT, finance, telecommunications, retail) while the agricultural sector remained largely stagnant and did not benefit equally. This created a widening gap between the urban middle class and the rural agrarian population, illustrating 'growth with inequality.' The benefits of liberalization were concentrated in urban areas and certain sectors, bypassing rural and informal workers.
Option (a) Rural poverty declined faster than urban poverty — Incorrect: Post-1991 reforms primarily benefited urban areas; rural poverty reduction was slower, not faster.
Option (b) Agricultural employment grew faster than industrial — Incorrect: Post-1991 reforms spurred industrial and services growth, not agricultural employment.
Option (c) Notable decline in the informal sector — Incorrect: The informal sector remained large and even grew after 1991; there was no notable decline.

Correct Answer: All of these — Option (d)
The post-1991 financial sector reforms in India (recommended by the Narasimham Committee) included a comprehensive overhaul: (1) Entry of private banks — new private sector banks like ICICI Bank and HDFC Bank were allowed; (2) Strengthening capital markets — SEBI was strengthened and stock markets were modernized; (3) Deregulation of interest rates — banks were given freedom to set their own lending and deposit rates. All three were core components of the financial liberalization that accompanied the 1991 economic reforms.
Option (a) Entry of private banks — Partially correct but incomplete; all three options were part of the reforms.
Option (b) Strengthening of capital markets — Partially correct but incomplete.
Option (c) Deregulation of interest rates — Partially correct but incomplete.

Correct Answer: Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme (CLCSS) — Option (b)
The Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme (CLCSS) is specifically designed to facilitate technology upgradation of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in the manufacturing sector. Under CLCSS, an upfront capital subsidy of 15% is provided on institutional credit (up to Rs. 1 crore) for induction of well-established and improved technologies. The scheme helps MSMEs modernize plant and machinery and adopt better production processes.
Option (a) PM Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) — Incorrect: PMEGP focuses on creating employment opportunities through establishing micro enterprises; it is not specifically for technology upgradation of MSMEs.
Option (c) Make in India scheme — Incorrect: Make in India is a broad national initiative to promote manufacturing and attract investment; it is not specifically a technology subsidy scheme for MSMEs.
Option (d) Atal Innovation Mission — Incorrect: Atal Innovation Mission promotes innovation and entrepreneurship through Atal Tinkering Labs and incubators; it is not specifically for MSME technology upgradation.

Correct Answer: 22 — Option (b)
Humans have 46 chromosomes arranged in 23 pairs. Of these, 22 pairs are autosomes (non-sex chromosomes), and 1 pair consists of sex chromosomes (XX in females, XY in males). Autosomes carry genes responsible for most bodily traits. Each autosome pair is numbered 1 through 22 by size, with chromosome 1 being the largest. Abnormalities in autosomes can cause conditions like Down syndrome (extra chromosome 21).
Option (a) 20 — Incorrect: Humans have 22 pairs of autosomes, not 20.
Option (c) 23 — Incorrect: While humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes in total, only 22 of these are autosomes; the 23rd pair is the sex chromosomes.
Option (d) 21 — Incorrect: There are 22 autosome pairs in humans, not 21.

Correct Answer: Sudarshan Pattnaik — Option (a)
Sudarshan Pattnaik, the internationally acclaimed sand artist from Odisha, was honored with the Fred Darrington Award for Excellence in Arts and Culture in 2025. He is known for creating spectacular sand sculptures and sand art installations, particularly on Puri beach in Odisha. He has won numerous national and international sand art competitions and is a recipient of the Padma Shri.
Option (b) Dalai Lama — Incorrect: The Dalai Lama is a spiritual leader and Nobel Peace Prize laureate; he is not associated with the Fred Darrington Award in 2025.
Option (c) Banu Mushtaq — Incorrect: Banu Mushtaq is a Kannada writer and activist; she is not the recipient of this particular award in 2025.
Option (d) R.K. Sreeraamkumar — Incorrect: This is not the person who received the Fred Darrington Award for Arts and Culture in 2025.

Correct Answer: Godavari — Option (b)
The Godavari river is known as 'Dakshin Ganga' (Ganga of the South) because of its size, religious significance, and the role it plays in the Deccan region — similar to how the Ganga is revered in North India. It is the longest river in peninsular India (about 1,465 km), originating from Trimbakeshwar in Nashik (Maharashtra) and flowing eastward through Telangana and Andhra Pradesh into the Bay of Bengal. The Kumbh Mela is held at Nashik on the Godavari every 12 years.
Option (a) Krishna — Incorrect: The Krishna river is also a major peninsular river but is not called 'Dakshin Ganga'.
Option (c) Narmada — Incorrect: The Narmada flows westward and is sometimes called 'Rewa'; it is not 'Dakshin Ganga'.
Option (d) Cauvery — Incorrect: The Cauvery (Kaveri) is sometimes called 'Dakshin Ganga' in some local traditions, but Godavari holds this title more prominently and officially.

Correct Answer: Ahmedabad — Option (b)
Ahmedabad in Gujarat is historically known as the 'Manchester of India' due to its prominent cotton textile industry. The city developed as a major cotton textile hub during the 19th and 20th centuries, with numerous textile mills established along the Sabarmati River. The comparison with Manchester (UK) — the global centre of cotton textile industry during the Industrial Revolution — earned Ahmedabad this nickname.
Option (a) Mumbai-Pune — Incorrect: Mumbai is sometimes called the 'Manchester of the East' in some references, but Ahmedabad holds the more established title of 'Manchester of India'.
Option (c) Kanpur — Incorrect: Kanpur (in Uttar Pradesh) is known for leather goods and has some textile industry, but it is not the 'Manchester of India'.
Option (d) Coimbatore — Incorrect: Coimbatore in Tamil Nadu is known as the 'Manchester of South India' for its textile industry, but the 'Manchester of India' title belongs to Ahmedabad.

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Both the Brahmaputra plains (in Assam) and the Ganga plains (in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, etc.) are among the most densely populated regions in India. The Ganga plains form the most densely populated part of India, being the heartland of Indian civilization with fertile alluvial soil. The Brahmaputra plains in Assam are also densely populated, supporting intensive rice cultivation and large settlements. Both plains have flat, fertile land, reliable river water, and favorable climate for agriculture and settlement.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Not just the Brahmaputra plains but also the Ganga plains are densely populated.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Not just the Ganga plains but also the Brahmaputra plains are densely populated.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Both the Brahmaputra and Ganga plains are among the most densely populated regions of India.

Correct Answer: Prakrit — Option (b)
In ancient India, Jainism adopted Prakrit as its sacred language. The Jain scriptures (Agamas) were originally composed and preserved in Ardhamagadhi Prakrit, a dialect of Middle Indo-Aryan languages. Mahavira, the 24th Tirthankara and the last great teacher of Jainism, preached in Ardhamagadhi , which was the common language of the people in the Gangetic plain during the 6th century BCE. Jain scholars also used Shauraseni Prakrit for later canonical texts.
Option (a) Urdu — Incorrect: Urdu is a modern language that developed in the medieval period and has no connection to ancient Jainism.
Option (c) Telugu — Incorrect: Telugu is a Dravidian language of South India; it was not the sacred language of Jainism.
Option (d) Bengali — Incorrect: Bengali is an Indo-Aryan language of East India that developed in the medieval period; it was not the sacred language of Jainism.

Correct Answer: Pandya kings — Option (b)
The three Sangams (Tamil literary assemblies) of ancient South India were held under the patronage of the Pandya kings of Madurai. According to Tamil tradition, the First Sangam was held at Madurai, the Second Sangam at Kapatapuram , and the Third Sangam (whose literature survives today as Sangam literature) at Madurai again. The Pandya rulers were great patrons of Tamil learning, culture, and literature during the Sangam Age (approximately 3rd century BCE to 3rd century CE).
Option (a) Gupta kings — Incorrect: The Gupta Empire was based in North India and had no connection to the Tamil Sangams of South India.
Option (c) Maurya kings — Incorrect: The Maurya Empire ruled from Pataliputra in North India; they were not patrons of the Tamil Sangams .
Option (d) Satavahana kings — Incorrect: The Satavahanas ruled in the Deccan region and had no recorded patronage of the Tamil literary Sangams .

Correct Answer: Pune — Option (c)
Pune (also known as Poona) became the capital of the Maratha Empire under the Peshwas. When the Peshwas rose to power as de facto rulers of the Maratha Confederacy in the 18th century, they made Pune their seat of power. The Shaniwar Wada palace in Pune served as the Peshwa's official residence and administrative headquarters. Pune remained the center of Peshwa authority until the Third Anglo-Maratha War (1817–1818) ended Peshwa rule.
Option (a) Mumbai — Incorrect: Mumbai (Bombay) was under British East India Company control for much of this period and was not the Peshwa capital.
Option (b) Nagpur — Incorrect: Nagpur was the seat of the Bhonsle branch of the Marathas, not the Peshwas.
Option (d) Aurangabad — Incorrect: Aurangabad was the base of the Nizam of Hyderabad and earlier of the Mughals; it was not the Peshwa capital.