SSC GD 2026 7 May 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Photosynthesis — Option (b)
Carbon enters living organisms primarily through Photosynthesis. In this process, green plants, algae, and cyanobacteria absorb carbon dioxide (CO₂) from the atmosphere and, using sunlight energy and water, convert it into glucose (organic carbon compounds): 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + light energy → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂. This fixed carbon then enters the food chain as herbivores eat plants and carnivores eat herbivores. Photosynthesis is thus the entry point of carbon into the biotic (living) component of the carbon cycle.
Option (a) Respiration — Incorrect: Respiration releases carbon (as CO₂) from living organisms back into the atmosphere; it is a carbon exit, not entry, for living organisms.
Option (c) Fermentation — Incorrect: Fermentation is an anaerobic process that breaks down organic compounds; it does not introduce new carbon into living organisms.
Option (d) Decomposition — Incorrect: Decomposition breaks down dead organic matter, releasing carbon back to the environment; it is not a process by which carbon enters living organisms.

Correct Answer: Snake — Option (b)
The Kalbelia dance is a traditional folk dance of the Kalbelia community (also known as sapera or snake charmers) of Rajasthan. The dance is inspired by the sinuous, swaying movements of snakes. Performers wear black swirling skirts and move in patterns that mimic the movement of cobras. The Kalbelia community traditionally earned their livelihood by capturing and charming snakes. The dance was inscribed on UNESCO's Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2010.
Option (a) Peacock — Incorrect: The peacock inspires several other folk dances (like Mor Dance/Mayur Nritya), not Kalbelia .
Option (c) Horse — Incorrect: Chhau and some other martial dance forms involve horse-inspired movements, not Kalbelia .
Option (d) Elephant — Incorrect: Elephant-inspired movements are found in some Kerala art forms like Pooram performances, not in Kalbelia .

Correct Answer: Ganga — Option (b)
The Ganga (Ganges) is considered especially sacred for holy bathing ( snan ) on Mauni Amavasya (the new moon day of silence during the month of Magha). Mauni Amavasya is one of the most important bathing dates during the Kumbh Mela and Magh Mela. Millions of pilgrims take a 'Maun Vrat ' (vow of silence) and bathe in the Ganga, particularly at Prayagraj (Sangam), Varanasi (Ghats), and Haridwar. The Ganga is believed to cleanse sins and grant moksha.
Option (a) Yamuna — Incorrect: While the Yamuna is sacred at Prayagraj (Sangam), the Ganga is specifically considered the most sacred river for Mauni Amavasya bathing.
Option (c) Godavari — Incorrect: The Godavari is the sacred river for the Nashik Kumbh Mela; Mauni Amavasya bathing is primarily associated with the Ganga.
Option (d) Saraswati — Incorrect: The Saraswati is a mythical/subterranean river; physical sacred bathing is associated with the Ganga.

Correct Answer: Nagaland — Option (b)
Zeliang and Li are folk songs of Nagaland. Zeliang refers to both a tribal community (the Zeliang Naga tribe) and their folk music tradition in Nagaland. 'Li' is a folk song genre of the Ao Naga tribe of Nagaland, sung during festivals and community gatherings. Nagaland is known for its rich tribal music tradition, with each of its 16+ tribes having distinct folk music styles. The Hornbill Festival of Nagaland showcases these diverse musical traditions.
Option (a) Sikkim — Incorrect: Sikkim's folk music is influenced by Lepcha, Bhutia, and Nepali traditions; Zeliang and Li are Nagaland-specific.
Option (c) Arunachal Pradesh — Incorrect: Arunachal Pradesh has its own tribal music traditions, but Zeliang and Li are specifically associated with Nagaland.
Option (d) Assam — Incorrect: Assam has its own folk music traditions like Bihu songs; Zeliang and Li belong to Nagaland.

Correct Answer: Two innings, 50 overs each — Option (a)
A standard ODI (One Day International) cricket match consists of two innings, with each team batting for a maximum of 50 overs. Both teams bat once — the first team bats and sets a target, then the second team chases the target in their 50 overs. The match typically takes about 7–8 hours including a break between innings. The ICC (International Cricket Council) sets the format rules. The 50-over format was introduced in the 1970s and the first ODI was played in 1971 between Australia and England.
Option (b) One innings, 50 overs — Incorrect: Each team gets one innings of 50 overs, but a complete ODI has two innings (one per team), not one.
Option (c) Two innings, 20 overs each — Incorrect: Two innings of 20 overs each describes a T20 (Twenty20) match format, not an ODI.
Option (d) One innings, 20 overs — Incorrect: One innings of 20 overs describes one team's T20 innings; an ODI has two innings of 50 overs each.

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Both the Forehand and the Backhand are fundamental shots in tennis. The Forehand is played when the racket sweeps across the front of the body (dominant side), making contact with the ball. The Backhand is played from the non-dominant side, where the racket swings across the back of the body. Both are essential groundstrokes used during baseline rallies and constitute the foundation of tennis technique. Other key shots include the serve, volley, overhead smash, and drop shot. All professional and amateur players must master both forehand and backhand.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: The forehand alone is not sufficient; both forehand and backhand are standard tennis shots played in every match.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: The backhand alone is not the only shot; the forehand is equally fundamental and played extensively in tennis matches.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Both forehand and backhand are core tennis shots ; this option is completely incorrect.

Correct Answer: Distance travelled by light in one year — Option (b)
A light year is a unit of distance (not time), defined as the distance that light travels in one year in a vacuum. Since the speed of light is approximately 3 × 10⁸ m/s (300,000 km/s), one light year equals approximately 9.461 × 10¹⁵ metres (about 9.46 trillion km). Light years are used to express astronomical distances — for example, the nearest star (Proxima Centauri) is about 4.24 light years away. The term contains 'year' but it is a measure of distance, not time.
Option (a) Time taken by light to travel one hour — Incorrect: A light year is not a unit of time and is not defined in terms of one hour; it is the distance covered in one full year.
Option (c) Speed of light × time — Incorrect: While distance = speed × time, 'light year' specifically means the distance light covers in one year (not an arbitrary time), making this definition incomplete.
Option (d) Time taken by Earth to complete one revolution — Incorrect: Earth's orbital period (one year) is used to define the time frame, but a light year is the DISTANCE light travels in that time, not the time itself.

Correct Answer: Groundwater recharge — Option (c)
Rainwater harvesting is the process of collecting and storing rainwater for later use. Its primary benefit is groundwater recharge — collected rainwater is directed into the ground through percolation pits, recharge wells, or infiltration trenches, replenishing depleted aquifers. As groundwater levels have been falling alarmingly in many parts of India due to over-extraction, rainwater harvesting is crucial for sustainable water management. It also reduces surface runoff, flooding, and soil erosion.
Option (a) Reducing air pollution — Incorrect: Rainwater harvesting has no direct connection to reducing air pollution; it deals with water conservation.
Option (b) Soil erosion — Incorrect: Rainwater harvesting actually helps REDUCE soil erosion (by preventing runoff), but the primary benefit is groundwater recharge, not controlling soil erosion per se.
Option (d) Increasing global temperature — Incorrect: Rainwater harvesting does not increase global temperature; if anything, it can help moderate local temperatures through increased moisture.

Correct Answer: One-horned Rhinoceros — Option (d)
Kaziranga National Park in Assam is world-famous for the Indian One-horned Rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis). It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and hosts about two-thirds of the world's total population of the Great Indian One-horned Rhinoceros. Kaziranga is also home to tigers, elephants, wild water buffalo, and swamp deer. The park's successful conservation efforts have brought the rhino back from near extinction, with the population growing from just a few dozen in the early 20th century to over 2,600 today.
Option (a) Bengal Tiger — Incorrect: While Kaziranga does have one of the highest densities of Bengal tigers, it is primarily and internationally famous for the One-horned Rhinoceros.
Option (b) Elephant — Incorrect: Kaziranga has a significant elephant population, but the park's claim to fame is the One-horned Rhinoceros.
Option (c) Asiatic Lion — Incorrect: The Asiatic Lion is found exclusively in the Gir Forest National Park of Gujarat; it has no presence in Kaziranga.

Correct Answer: Bhakra Dam — Option (a)
Bhakra Dam is built on the Sutlej river in Himachal Pradesh (at the border of Punjab and Himachal Pradesh), near Bilaspur. It is one of India's highest gravity dams (226 metres high) and is part of the Bhakra-Nangal project — a joint project of Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan. The reservoir created by Bhakra Dam is called Gobind Sagar Lake. Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru called these dams the 'temples of modern India'.
Option (b) Nagarjuna Sagar — Incorrect: Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is built on the Krishna river in Telangana/Andhra Pradesh, not the Sutlej.
Option (c) Hirakud Dam — Incorrect: Hirakud Dam is built on the Mahanadi river in Odisha; it is one of the longest dams in the world but not on the Sutlej.
Option (d) Tehri Dam — Incorrect: Tehri Dam is built on the Bhagirathi river in Uttarakhand; it is India's tallest dam but not on the Sutlej.

Correct Answer: Radio telescope — Option (c)
A radio telescope is used to detect and study radio waves emitted by celestial objects in space. Unlike optical telescopes that collect visible light, radio telescopes use large dish-shaped antennas (parabolic reflectors) to collect radio waves, which are then amplified and analyzed. Famous radio telescopes include the Arecibo Observatory (Puerto Rico, now decommissioned), the Very Large Array (VLA) in New Mexico, and India's GMRT (Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope) near Pune. Radio astronomy has led to discoveries of pulsars, quasars, and the cosmic microwave background radiation.
Option (a) Optical telescope — Incorrect: Optical telescopes detect visible light; they cannot observe radio waves from space.
Option (b) Reflecting telescope — Incorrect: A reflecting telescope uses mirrors to collect visible light; it is a type of optical telescope, not designed for radio waves.
Option (d) Refracting telescope — Incorrect: A refracting telescope uses lenses to bend visible light; it cannot detect radio waves from space.

Correct Answer: They attract each other — Option (b)
When two long parallel wires carry current in the same direction, they attract each other. This is explained by Ampere's Force Law: each current-carrying wire produces a magnetic field around it. The magnetic field of one wire exerts a force on the current in the other wire. When currents flow in the same direction, the magnetic forces between the wires are directed towards each other — creating attraction. When currents flow in opposite directions, the wires repel each other. This principle is used to define the SI unit of current (Ampere).
Option (a) They repel each other — Incorrect: Parallel wires with currents in the SAME direction attract; repulsion occurs when currents flow in OPPOSITE directions.
Option (c) They remain unaffected — Incorrect: Current-carrying wires create magnetic fields that exert measurable forces on each other; they are never unaffected.
Option (d) They oscillate — Incorrect: The force between parallel current-carrying wires is constant (not oscillating) for steady direct currents; they do not oscillate.

Correct Answer: India — Option (c)
The 4th BRICS Summit was hosted by India in New Delhi on March 29, 2012. Indian Prime Minister Manmohan Singh chaired the summit. The theme was 'BRICS Partnership for Global Stability, Security and Prosperity'. The Delhi Declaration was issued, covering issues such as global economic governance, the Eurozone crisis, food and energy security, and sustainable development. The summit also saw the announcement of the BRICS Development Bank concept (which later became the New Development Bank).
Option (a) Brazil — Incorrect: Brazil hosted the 2nd BRIC Summit (2010) in Brasilia; the 4th BRICS Summit (2012) was in New Delhi, India.
Option (b) China — Incorrect: China hosted the 3rd BRICS Summit in Sanya in 2011; the 4th was in India in 2012.
Option (d) South Africa — Incorrect: South Africa hosted the 5th BRICS Summit in Durban in 2013 (the first with South Africa as the 'S' in BRICS); the 4th was in India.

Correct Answer: 6 years — Option (c)
The PM Dhan-Dhanya Krishi Yojana was launched in July 2025 with an annual outlay of ₹24,000 crore, targeting 100 low-performing agricultural districts across India for a period of 6 years. The scheme aims to improve agricultural productivity, provide credit access, promote crop diversification, and enhance irrigation in these underperforming districts. The program focuses on districts with below-average agricultural output and aims to bring them at par with better-performing districts.
Option (a) 3 years — Incorrect: The PM Dhan-Dhanya Krishi Yojana is designed for a 6-year period, not 3 years.
Option (b) 5 years — Incorrect: The scheme runs for 6 years with an annual outlay of ₹24,000 crore, not 5 years.
Option (d) 10 years — Incorrect: The scheme duration is 6 years; 10 years would overstate the scheme's timeline.

Correct Answer: Paryatan Mitra & Paryatan Didi — Option (a)
The Ministry of Tourism launched the 'Paryatan Mitra' and 'Paryatan Didi' initiative in December 2024 to promote responsible and sustainable tourism in India. Under this initiative, local community members — primarily women (Paryatan Didi) and men (Paryatan Mitra) — are trained as local tourism ambassadors and guides who help tourists explore their region safely and responsibly. The initiative aims to promote grassroots tourism, empower local communities (especially women), and create a welcoming and safe environment for tourists across India.
Option (b) Tourism in Bharat — Incorrect: 'Tourism in Bharat' is not the name of a specific December 2024 initiative; Paryatan Mitra & Paryatan Didi was the initiative launched in that period.
Option (c) Dekho Apna Desh — Incorrect: 'Dekho Apna Desh' is an earlier campaign by the Ministry of Tourism promoting domestic tourism; the December 2024 responsible tourism initiative is Paryatan Mitra & Paryatan Didi.
Option (d) Atulya Bharat 2.0 — Incorrect: Atulya Bharat (Incredible India) is a long-running brand campaign for promoting India internationally; Paryatan Mitra & Paryatan Didi is the specific December 2024 responsible tourism initiative.

Correct Answer: Bhim Singh Bhavesh — Option (b)
Bhim Singh Bhavesh was awarded the Padma Shri in 2025 for his exceptional work for the Musahar community. The Musahars are one of India's most marginalized Dalit communities, traditionally landless rat-catchers from Bihar and eastern Uttar Pradesh, who face extreme poverty, illiteracy, and social discrimination. Bhim Singh Bhavesh has dedicated his life to their upliftment through education, awareness campaigns, and social empowerment, helping Musahar children access schools and advocating for their rights.
Option (a) Sunita Williams — Incorrect: Sunita Williams is an American astronaut of Indian origin; she is not associated with the Musahar community or Padma Shri 2025 for this work.
Option (c) Nirmala Devi — Incorrect: Nirmala Devi is not specifically known for working with the Musahar community in the context of Padma Shri 2025.
Option (d) Arundhati Bhattacharya — Incorrect: Arundhati Bhattacharya is former SBI Chairperson and Salesforce India CEO; she is not associated with Musahar community work.

Correct Answer: Automated air defence control — Option (b)
Project Akash Teer is India's automated air defence control and reporting system developed for the Indian Air Force. It is an indigenous command and control system that integrates radar data, tracks aerial targets, and automates the coordination of air defence assets. Akash Teer enhances India's air defence situational awareness by providing real-time tracking of multiple airborne threats and coordinating responses from fighter aircraft, surface-to-air missiles, and anti-aircraft guns — all in an automated manner, reducing response time significantly.
Option (a) Drone attack system — Incorrect: Project Akash Teer is not a drone attack system; it is an air defence control and reporting system.
Option (c) Laser shield system — Incorrect: India's laser-based defence systems are under separate development programs (like DRDO's laser weapon systems); Akash Teer is specifically an automated air defence control system.
Option (d) AI-based rocket launcher — Incorrect: Akash Teer is not a rocket launcher; it is a command, control, and reporting system for coordinating India's air defence network.

Correct Answer: Raman Research Institute — Option (b)
In April 2025, the Raman Research Institute (RRI), Bengaluru, developed an affordable electro-fluidic device for early screening of Sickle Cell Disease (SCD). Sickle Cell Disease is a hereditary blood disorder prevalent in tribal populations across India. The low-cost device uses electro-fluidic (electroosmotic/electrophoretic) principles to separate sickle cells from normal red blood cells, enabling early diagnosis at the point of care — particularly valuable for use in remote and tribal areas where expensive laboratory infrastructure is unavailable.
Option (a) Tata Memorial Centre — Incorrect: Tata Memorial Centre is India's premier cancer research hospital in Mumbai; it is not the institution that developed the SCD electro-fluidic screening device.
Option (c) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) — Incorrect: CSIR is a network of research laboratories, but the specific electro-fluidic SCD device in April 2025 was developed by the Raman Research Institute.
Option (d) All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) — Incorrect: AIIMS is a medical institute; the SCD electro-fluidic device was developed by Raman Research Institute, Bengaluru.

Correct Answer: Maintaining a fixed number of cavalry (horsemen) — Option (a)
In the Mughal Mansabdari system (introduced by Akbar), a Mansabdar held a dual rank: ' Zat ' (personal rank determining salary) and 'Sawar' (cavalry rank determining the number of horsemen to be maintained). The military responsibility of a Mansabdar was to maintain a fixed number of cavalry (horses and horsemen) for the Mughal army, proportional to their Sawar rank. In times of war, they had to provide these forces to the Emperor . This system made the Mughal army dependent on the loyalty of Mansabdars .
Option (b) Collecting taxes — Incorrect: While some Mansabdars were assigned jagirs (land grants) and collected revenue, their PRIMARY military responsibility was maintaining cavalry, not tax collection.
Option (c) Administering justice — Incorrect: Administering justice was the function of Qazis and local governors; it was not the specific military responsibility of Mansabdars .
Option (d) Overseeing land distribution — Incorrect: Land distribution was handled by revenue officers; the Mansabdars ' military obligation was to maintain the required number of cavalry .