SSC GD 2026 7 May 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: 25 years — Option (c)
According to Article 84(b) of the Indian Constitution, the minimum age to contest elections for the Lok Sabha (House of the People) is 25 years. A candidate must be at least 25 years of age on the date of scrutiny of nominations. For the Rajya Sabha (Council of States), the minimum age is 30 years. For State Legislative Assemblies (Vidhan Sabha), the minimum age is also 25 years. The minimum voting age in India is 18 years (lowered from 21 years by the 61st Constitutional Amendment in 1988).
Option (a) 18 years — Incorrect: 18 years is the minimum voting age (franchise age), not the age to contest elections for Lok Sabha.
Option (b) 21 years — Incorrect: There is no elected constitutional body in India for which 21 years is the minimum age to contest; 25 years is required for Lok Sabha.
Option (d) 30 years — Incorrect: 30 years is the minimum age to contest for the Rajya Sabha, not the Lok Sabha.

Correct Answer: Puducherry — Option (c)
Puducherry (Pondicherry) is one of the Union Territories of India that has its own Legislature (Vidhan Sabha). Under the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, Puducherry has a Legislative Assembly with 30 elected members. It also has an elected Council of Ministers headed by a Chief Minister. Other Union Territories with legislatures include Delhi (NCT) and Jammu & Kashmir (recently granted UT status with legislature). Most UTs are governed directly by the Central Government through an Administrator/Lieutenant Governor.
Option (a) Chandigarh — Incorrect: Chandigarh is a UT and serves as the capital of Punjab and Haryana; it does not have its own Legislature.
Option (b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands — Incorrect: Andaman and Nicobar Islands is administered by a Lieutenant Governor and has no Legislature.
Option (d) Lakshadweep — Incorrect: Lakshadweep is a UT administered by an Administrator; it does not have a Legislative Assembly.

Correct Answer: The President — Option (a)
According to Article 67(a) of the Indian Constitution, the Vice-President of India may resign from office by writing under his hand addressed to the President of India. The Vice-President must give at least one month's notice before the date of resignation. This is analogous to how the President submits the resignation to the Vice-President (Article 56). The Vice-President's resignation becomes effective when accepted by the President.
Option (b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha — Incorrect: The Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha; the Vice-President's resignation is addressed to the President, not the Speaker.
Option (c) The Prime Minister — Incorrect: While the Prime Minister is the head of government, constitutional resignations of the Vice-President go to the President, not the PM.
Option (d) Chief Justice of India — Incorrect: The Chief Justice administers the oath of office to the President; the Vice-President's resignation goes to the President of India.

Correct Answer: Rasidi Ticket — Option (b)
Amrita Pritam's autobiography is titled 'Rasidi Ticket' (Revenue Stamp), published in 1976. In this autobiography, she narrates her life story including her childhood, her turbulent marriage to Pritam Singh, her separation, her deep love for poet Sahir Ludhianvi, and her long companionship with painter Imroz. The title 'Rasidi Ticket' (a revenue stamp) symbolizes the small but significant moments of her life. Amrita Pritam (1919–2005) was the first prominent woman Punjabi poet, novelist, and essayist, and a recipient of the Sahitya Akademi Award and Padma Vibhushan.
Option (a) Pinjar — Incorrect: ' Pinjar ' (The Skeleton/Cage) is Amrita Pritam's famous novel (1950) dealing with Partition, later made into a film; it is not her autobiography.
Option (c) Main Tenu Phir Milange — Incorrect: This ('I Will Meet You Again') is a famous poem by Amrita Pritam addressed to Sahir Ludhianvi, not her autobiography.
Option (d) Sunehade — Incorrect: ' Sunehade ' (Messages) is a poetry collection by Amrita Pritam, not her autobiography.

Correct Answer: 2013 — Option (a)
The Indian Badminton League (IBL) was first organised in 2013. It was India's first professional badminton league, launched by the Badminton Association of India (BAI). The inaugural edition was held in August 2013 and featured six city-based franchise teams. IBL attracted top international players. After a brief hiatus, it was rebranded as the Premier Badminton League (PBL) in 2017 and has been successfully held since. The league has played a significant role in promoting badminton professionally in India.
Option (b) 2014 — Incorrect: The Indian Badminton League was first held in 2013, not 2014.
Option (c) 2015 — Incorrect: 2015 is not when IBL started; the first edition was in 2013.
Option (d) 2016 — Incorrect: The IBL began in 2013; it was rebranded as PBL and restarted from 2017.

Correct Answer: Lord Shiva — Option (a)
The Kanwar Yatra ( Kanwariya pilgrimage) is a major annual Hindu pilgrimage primarily associated with Lord Shiva. Devotees called Kanwariyas collect sacred water from the Ganges (especially at Haridwar, Gaumukh , and Gangotri) and carry it on foot to offer at Shiva temples in their home towns during the month of Shravan (July–August). The largest congregation is in Haridwar, Uttarakhand. Millions of devotees undertake this journey, making it one of the world's largest religious gatherings. The Kanwar Yatra is a display of devotion to Lord Shiva, especially during the holy month of Sawan.
Option (b) Goddess Lakshmi — Incorrect: Goddess Lakshmi is worshipped during Diwali and related festivals; Kanwar Yatra is dedicated to Lord Shiva.
Option (c) Lord Ganesha — Incorrect: Lord Ganesha is celebrated during Ganesh Chaturthi; Kanwar Yatra is a Shiva pilgrimage.
Option (d) Goddess Durga — Incorrect: Goddess Durga is worshipped during Navratri; Kanwar Yatra is specifically a pilgrimage for Lord Shiva.

Correct Answer: International Solar Alliance (ISA) — Option (c)
The 'Towards 1000' (TW1000) strategy is associated with the International Solar Alliance (ISA). The ISA launched this strategy with the goal of mobilising USD 1,000 billion (1 trillion dollars) in solar energy investments by 2030, making solar the leading source of energy globally. The strategy also aims to deploy 1,000 GW of solar capacity and provide solar energy access to 1,000 million people, especially in developing countries. The ISA was jointly launched by India and France at the COP21 Paris Climate Summit in 2015 and is headquartered in Gurugram, India.
Option (a) WTO — Incorrect: The World Trade Organisation deals with international trade rules; it is not associated with solar energy strategies like TW1000.
Option (b) ICJ — Incorrect: The International Court of Justice settles legal disputes between nations; it has no connection to solar energy strategies.
Option (d) SAARC — Incorrect: SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) is a regional grouping; the TW1000 strategy belongs to the International Solar Alliance.

Correct Answer: India — Option (d)
India won the Bronze medal in Men's Hockey at the Paris Olympics 2024, defeating Spain 2-1 in the Bronze medal match on August 8, 2024. This was India's second consecutive Olympic bronze in hockey (after Tokyo 2020/2021) and overall 13th Olympic medal in hockey. Key players included captain Harmanpreet Singh (who scored in the final). In the Gold medal match, the Netherlands defeated Germany. India's bronze ended a 52-year wait for back-to-back hockey medals at the Olympics since the Munich 1972 and Montreal 1976 bronze medals.
Option (a) Netherlands — Incorrect: Netherlands won the Gold medal in Men's Hockey at Paris Olympics 2024, defeating Germany in the final.
Option (b) Germany — Incorrect: Germany won the Silver medal in Men's Hockey at Paris Olympics 2024, losing to the Netherlands in the final.
Option (c) France — Incorrect: France, as the host nation, participated but did not win a medal in Men's Hockey at the Paris Olympics 2024.

Correct Answer: Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) — Option (d)
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is the apex body responsible for real-time Air Quality Index (AQI) monitoring across Indian cities. CPCB operates the National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP) and maintains the Sameer app and AQI portal (https://aqicn.org/india/) that provides real-time AQI data from hundreds of monitoring stations across India. CPCB also coordinates with State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) for air quality data collection and management.
Option (a) NITI Aayog — Incorrect: NITI Aayog is a policy think tank; it does not conduct real-time AQI monitoring.
Option (b) CSIR — Incorrect: The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research conducts scientific research; AQI monitoring is the mandate of CPCB.
Option (c) State Reference Organisation — Incorrect: This is not the primary agency for national real-time AQI monitoring; CPCB is the central authority.

Correct Answer: Alerting citizens about upcoming days with high pollution — Option (c)
The Air Quality Early Warning System (AQEWS) was developed by the Ministry of Earth Sciences ( MoES ) and IITM Pune, and is primarily designed to forecast and alert citizens and authorities about upcoming days with dangerously high air pollution levels — especially in Delhi-NCR during winter months (October–February). It provides 5-day forecasts of particulate matter (PM2.5, PM10) and air quality indices, enabling authorities to take preemptive measures (like the Graded Response Action Plan/GRAP) and allowing citizens to plan outdoor activities accordingly.
Option (a) Reducing soil pollution — Incorrect: AQEWS is focused on AIR quality; it is not designed to address soil pollution.
Option (b) Monitoring water pollution — Incorrect: Water quality monitoring is a separate domain handled by CPCB and National Water Monitoring Programme ; AQEWS is specifically for air quality forecasting.
Option (d) Improving air filtration in industries — Incorrect: Industrial air filtration is regulated through emission standards and compliance; AQEWS is a forecasting/early warning tool for public benefit, not an industrial intervention.

Correct Answer: Statecraft and administration — Option (c)
The Arthashastra , attributed to Chanakya (also known as Kautilya or Vishnugupta ), the chief minister of Emperor Chandragupta Maurya (around 4th century BCE), is an ancient Indian treatise primarily concerned with statecraft, economic policy, military strategy, and administration. The text covers topics including the duties of a king, governance of the state, revenue collection, diplomacy, espionage, war tactics, and the management of agriculture and trade. It is considered one of the earliest works on political science and economics in the world.
Option (a) Poetry and literature — Incorrect: The Arthashastra is a treatise on political economy and governance, not poetry or literature; classical Sanskrit poetry is associated with works like Kalidasa's Abhijnanasakuntalam .
Option (b) Religious rituals — Incorrect: Religious rituals are covered in the Vedas, Agamas, and Puranas; the Arthashastra is a secular work on statecraft.
Option (d) Astronomy — Incorrect: Ancient Indian astronomy is covered in texts like Aryabhatiya; the Arthashastra deals with governance and administration.

Correct Answer: Self-reliance in steel and heavy industry — Option (c)
The establishment of the first steel plants in independent India — Bhilai Steel Plant (with Soviet assistance, 1959), Rourkela Steel Plant (with West German assistance, 1959), and Durgapur Steel Plant (with British assistance, 1962) — was primarily driven by the objective of achieving self-reliance in steel and heavy industry. Under PM Jawaharlal Nehru's vision and the Second Five Year Plan (1956–61), Mahalanobis model, India prioritized heavy industrialization to build a strong industrial base. Steel was seen as the backbone of industrial development, necessary for railways, construction, defense, and manufacturing.
Option (a) Dairy production — Incorrect: Dairy development was a separate objective (Operation Flood came later, 1970s); steel plants were established for heavy industry, not dairy.
Option (b) Export promotion — Incorrect: In the early post-independence era, the focus was on import substitution and self-reliance, not export promotion; most steel produced was for domestic use.
Option (d) Rural employment — Incorrect: While steel plants did provide employment, rural employment was addressed through other programs; the primary objective was self-reliance in heavy industry.

Correct Answer: Devaluation — Option (c)
In a fixed exchange rate system, Devaluation is the deliberate official lowering of a country's currency value relative to a foreign currency or standard. When the government increases the exchange rate (i.e., more domestic currency units are needed to buy one unit of foreign currency), the domestic currency becomes cheaper (weaker). For example, if India officially changes the rate from ₹70/$ to ₹85/$, the rupee is devalued. Devaluation makes exports cheaper and imports costlier. It is a policy tool used to boost exports and correct balance of payments deficits.
Option (a) Depreciation — Incorrect: Depreciation also means the domestic currency becoming cheaper, but it occurs in a FLOATING exchange rate system through market forces, NOT by government action; devaluation is the correct term for a government-initiated reduction in fixed exchange rate systems.
Option (b) Appreciation — Incorrect: Appreciation (or Revaluation in fixed systems) means the domestic currency becomes STRONGER/MORE expensive; it is the opposite of devaluation.
Option (d) Revaluation — Incorrect: Revaluation is the official INCREASE in the value of a currency in a fixed exchange rate system (making it more expensive), which is the opposite of devaluation.

Correct Answer: Both were designed for military service in exchange for revenue rights — Option (b)
The Iqta system under the Delhi Sultanate and European feudalism both shared the fundamental principle of granting revenue rights in exchange for military service. In the Iqta system, the Sultan assigned an Iqta (a revenue-yielding territory) to a military commander ( Muqti /Wali) who was required to maintain troops and be available for military service in return. Similarly, in European feudalism, lords granted fiefs (land) to vassals who owed military service to their overlords. This exchange of revenue/land rights for military obligations is the core similarity between the two systems.
Option (a) Both allowed hereditary transfer of land — Incorrect: The Iqta system was NOT hereditary — Iqtas were non-transferable and reverted to the Sultan on the muqti's death or transfer. European fiefs were hereditary. This is actually a KEY DIFFERENCE, not a similarity.
Option (c) Both were commercial monopolies — Incorrect: Neither the Iqta system nor European feudalism was a commercial monopoly; both were land-revenue-military systems.
Option (d) Both were systems of taxation applicable to merchants — Incorrect: Both systems were land grants to military commanders, not taxation systems for merchants.

Correct Answer: August — Option (d)
The Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyan (NMBA) was launched on 15 August 2020 by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, on India's Independence Day. Therefore, its 5th anniversary was celebrated in August 2025. The campaign targets identified vulnerable districts across India and works through community outreach, awareness programmes , treatment, and rehabilitation to address drug abuse. The programme focuses on de-addiction, awareness among youth, and strengthening of treatment facilities.
Option (a) March — Incorrect: The NMBA was launched on 15 August 2020; its anniversaries are in August, not March.
Option (b) April — Incorrect: April is not the launch month of NMBA; its 5th anniversary was in August 2025.
Option (c) June — Incorrect: The NMBA anniversary falls in August (its launch date was 15 August 2020), not June.

Correct Answer: Aravalli Hills — Option (a)
In June 2025, a new species of flowering plant named 'Portulaca bharat ' was discovered in the Aravalli Hills region of India. The Portulaca genus (purslane family) is known for succulent flowering plants. Portulaca bharat was identified as a new species by researchers conducting biodiversity surveys in the Aravalli range. The Aravalli Hills, one of the oldest mountain ranges in the world, spanning Rajasthan and Haryana, are known for unique flora and fauna. The species was named ' bharat ' in honour of India.
Option (b) Western Ghats — Incorrect: While the Western Ghats is a global biodiversity hotspot and many species are discovered there, Portulaca bharat was discovered in the Aravalli Hills.
Option (c) Eastern Ghats — Incorrect: The Eastern Ghats also have rich biodiversity, but the Portulaca bharat discovery was in the Aravalli Hills region.
Option (d) Thar Desert — Incorrect: While the Thar Desert borders the Aravalli range and some Portulaca species do grow in arid zones, the specific discovery was attributed to the Aravalli Hills.

Correct Answer: They separate and fall down — Option (c)
When ultrasonic waves (high-frequency sound waves above 20,000 Hz) are passed through a cleaning solution, the process of ultrasonic cleaning occurs. The waves create rapid alternating compression and rarefaction cycles in the liquid, generating millions of tiny cavitation bubbles that implode violently near surfaces. This cavitation effect dislodges and detaches particles of dust, grease, and dirt from the surfaces being cleaned — the particles separate and fall down into the solution. This method is used to clean delicate items like jewellery , surgical instruments, optical lenses, and electronic components.
Option (a) They get evaporated — Incorrect: Dirt particles do not evaporate in the cleaning solution; they are physically dislodged by cavitation.
Option (b) They get dissolved — Incorrect: The cleaning action of ultrasound is mechanical (cavitation), not chemical dissolution; the particles separate from surfaces but do not dissolve.
Option (d) They get burnt — Incorrect: Ultrasonic waves are sound waves (mechanical energy), not heat; they do not burn the particles.

Correct Answer: Only I — Option (a)
According to Census 2011, Jains are the most concentrated in urban areas among all religious groups in India, with approximately 72.4% of Jains living in urban areas — the highest urban concentration of any religious community. Jains are historically associated with trade and commerce, which explains their high concentration in cities. Christians have a higher urbanization rate than the national average (around 35.5%), but their urban concentration is significantly lower than that of Jains. Therefore, only Jains (Statement I) qualify as being most concentrated in urban areas.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: While Christians are more urbanized than the national average, Jains have a much higher urban concentration (72.4%); Jains, not Christians, are the most urbanized community.
Option (c) Both I and II — Incorrect: Both Jains and Christians are more urban than the national average, but the question asks which group is MOST concentrated in urban areas; only Jains stand out as the most urbanized.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Jains are clearly the most urbanized religious group per Census 2011.