SSC GD 2026 6 May 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: 360 — Option (c)
Article 360 of the Indian Constitution provides for the proclamation of a Financial Emergency. The President can proclaim a Financial Emergency if he/she is satisfied that the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. During Financial Emergency, the President can direct states to observe financial propriety and can reduce the salaries of all government servants including judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. Notably, a Financial Emergency has never been proclaimed in India.
Option (a) 352 — Incorrect: Article 352 deals with National Emergency (proclaimed in cases of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion).
Option (b) 356 — Incorrect: Article 356 deals with President's Rule (State Emergency), imposed when the constitutional machinery in a state fails.
Option (d) 365 — Incorrect: Article 365 deals with the effect of failure to comply with, or to give effect to, directions given by the Union to States; it is related to President's Rule grounds, not Financial Emergency.

Correct Answer: 42nd Amendment — Option (a)
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 (during the Emergency period under Indira Gandhi) transferred 'Education' from the State List (List II) to the Concurrent List (List III). This meant that both the Central Government and State Governments could legislate on education. The 42nd Amendment is one of the most significant amendments in Indian constitutional history, often called the 'Mini-Constitution' as it made extensive changes to the Constitution.
Option (b) 44th Amendment — Incorrect: The 44th Amendment (1978) reversed several changes made by the 42nd Amendment but did NOT reverse the transfer of Education to the Concurrent List.
Option (c) 52nd Amendment — Incorrect: The 52nd Amendment (1985) introduced the anti-defection law (10th Schedule); it had nothing to do with the transfer of Education.
Option (d) 86th Amendment — Incorrect: The 86th Amendment (2002) added Article 21A (Right to Education for children 6–14 years) and amended Article 45 and 51A, but Education had already been in the Concurrent List since the 42nd Amendment.

Correct Answer: 13th Finance Commission — Option (b)
The 13th Finance Commission (2010–2015), chaired by Vijay Kelkar, was the first to recommend GST compensation to states. It recommended that states be compensated for any revenue loss arising from the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST). The Commission suggested a mechanism to ensure that states would not suffer financially during the transition to the GST regime. This recommendation laid the groundwork for the GST compensation framework that was later incorporated in the Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016.
Option (a) 12th Finance Commission — Incorrect: The 12th Finance Commission (2005–2010), chaired by C. Rangarajan, dealt with fiscal consolidation and debt relief; it did not specifically recommend GST compensation.
Option (c) 14th Finance Commission — Incorrect: The 14th Finance Commission (2015–2020), chaired by Y.V. Reddy, increased states' share in central taxes to 42%; GST compensation was by then already being implemented.
Option (d) 15th Finance Commission — Incorrect: The 15th Finance Commission (2020–2026) deals with the current period; the GST compensation recommendation came from the 13th Finance Commission.

Correct Answer: Human Development Report — Option (b)
The Human Development Report (HDR) is published annually by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). It was first published in 1990 with Mahbub ul Haq as its architect. The report introduces the Human Development Index (HDI), which measures countries' achievements in health (life expectancy), education (years of schooling), and standard of living (GNI per capita). The HDR provides a broader measure of development beyond just economic growth.
Option (a) Global Risk Report — Incorrect: The Global Risk Report is published by the World Economic Forum (WEF) and assesses global risks across economic, environmental, geopolitical, societal, and technological categories.
Option (c) World Economic Outlook — Incorrect: The World Economic Outlook (WEO) is published by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and focuses on global economic trends and forecasts.
Option (d) Global Competitiveness Report — Incorrect: The Global Competitiveness Report is also published by the World Economic Forum (WEF) and ranks countries based on their economic competitiveness factors.

Correct Answer: World Economic Forum — Option (c)
The Global Energy Transition Index (ETI) is published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF). It benchmarks countries on their energy systems' readiness to transition towards secure, sustainable, affordable, and inclusive energy. The index evaluates countries on two dimensions: the current performance of their energy systems and the readiness of their enabling environment (regulatory framework, political commitment, infrastructure, human capital). Sweden consistently tops the ETI rankings.
Option (a) International Energy Agency — Incorrect: The IEA publishes the World Energy Outlook (WEO) and other energy reports; the Global Energy Transition Index is specifically a WEF publication.
Option (b) World Bank — Incorrect: The World Bank publishes reports on development, poverty, and sustainability; it does not publish the Global Energy Transition Index.
Option (d) Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) — Incorrect: OPEC publishes the World Oil Outlook; it has no connection to the Global Energy Transition Index.

Correct Answer: Mobilizing savings for planned development — Option (d)
The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) was nationalized in 1956 under the LIC Act, 1956 by merging 245 private insurance companies into a single state-owned entity. The primary objective of nationalization was to mobilize the savings of the Indian public for planned economic development. The government recognized that insurance premiums, collected from millions of policyholders, could be channeled into long-term investments in infrastructure, public sector undertakings, and national development projects. It also aimed to protect policyholders from the malpractices of private insurers.
Option (a) Promoting rural employment — Incorrect: While LIC does contribute to rural outreach, promoting rural employment was not the primary stated objective of its nationalization.
Option (b) Developing agriculture — Incorrect: Agricultural development is the domain of institutions like NABARD; LIC nationalization aimed at mobilizing savings for broader planned development.
Option (c) Regulating foreign trade — Incorrect: Regulating foreign trade is the function of DGFT (Directorate General of Foreign Trade) and RBI; LIC's nationalization was not for foreign trade regulation.

Correct Answer: SHRESTHA Scheme — Option (a)
SHRESTHA (Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas) is a scheme implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment for meritorious SC (Scheduled Caste) students. Under this scheme, selected SC students from Classes 9 to 12 are provided free quality residential education in top private residential schools. The objective is to provide best-in-class education to SC students from economically weaker backgrounds, enabling them to secure better career opportunities.
Option (b) Udaan Scheme — Incorrect: Udaan Scheme (launched by CBSE) aims to improve the enrollment rate of girl students in premier technical institutions; it focuses on bridging the gender gap in engineering, not residential education for SC students.
Option (c) PM-KUSUM — Incorrect: PM-KUSUM (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan ) is a scheme for solar energy in the agriculture sector (solar pumps for farmers); it has nothing to do with residential education.
Option (d) FAME India Scheme — Incorrect: FAME India (Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric Vehicles) promotes electric vehicles; it is unrelated to residential education.

Correct Answer: 2.0 — Option (a)
According to the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) 2019–21 and Ministry of Health and Family Welfare data, India's Total Fertility Rate (TFR) in 2021 stabilized at 2.0 — which is at (or just below) the replacement level fertility rate of 2.1. This marks a significant demographic transition for India. The TFR has declined from 5.2 in 1971 to 2.0 in 2021, reflecting improved healthcare, education (especially for women), urbanization, and family planning programs. India reached below-replacement fertility rate nationally for the first time.
Option (b) 3.0 — Incorrect: India's TFR of 3.0 was recorded in the early 2000s; by 2021, it had declined significantly to 2.0.
Option (c) 1.5 — Incorrect: A TFR of 1.5 would be below the replacement rate and is seen in states like Tamil Nadu and Kerala; the national average in 2021 is 2.0.
Option (d) 2.7 — Incorrect: 2.7 was approximately India's TFR around 2011–2013; by 2021, it had fallen to 2.0.

Correct Answer: Subsidies — Option (a)
In the Indian budget, Revenue Expenditure refers to government spending that does not create assets or reduce liabilities — it is recurring in nature and relates to the normal running of government. Subsidies (on food, fertilizers, fuel, etc.) are a major component of Revenue Expenditure because they are current transfers/payments that do not create physical assets. Other components of Revenue Expenditure include salaries of government employees, interest payments, pensions, and maintenance expenditure.
Option (b) Expenditure on acquisition of fighter aircraft — Incorrect: Acquisition of fighter aircraft creates a defence asset and is classified as Capital Expenditure (under the defence capital budget).
Option (c) Expenditure on acquisition of naval ships — Incorrect: Naval ships are capital assets; their acquisition falls under Capital Expenditure, not Revenue Expenditure.
Option (d) Expenditure on construction of expressways — Incorrect: Construction of expressways creates a long-term physical asset (infrastructure); it is Capital Expenditure, not Revenue Expenditure.

Correct Answer: Tea plantation workers — Option (b)
'Two Leaves and a Bud' (1937) is a novel by Mulk Raj Anand that depicts the brutal exploitation of Indian tea plantation workers (coolies) by British planters in the Assam tea gardens. The story follows Gangu, a poor peasant from UP, who migrates to work on a tea estate in Assam with his family. The novel exposes the inhumane working conditions, debt bondage, racial discrimination, and oppression suffered by tea garden labourers under the colonial plantation system.
Option (a) Textile mill workers — Incorrect: Mulk Raj Anand wrote about textile mill workers in other contexts, but 'Two Leaves and a Bud' is specifically about tea plantation workers.
Option (c) Coal mine workers — Incorrect: 'Two Leaves and a Bud' is set in tea gardens of Assam, not coal mines. Anand's novel 'Coolie' (1936) deals with various forms of labour exploitation.
Option (d) Brick kiln workers — Incorrect: 'Two Leaves and a Bud' is not about brick kiln workers; it specifically depicts the lives of tea estate labourers in colonial Assam.

Correct Answer: 90 minutes — Option (b)
A standard FIFA football (soccer) match lasts 90 minutes, divided into two halves of 45 minutes each, with a 15-minute halftime break. After the 90 minutes, a referee may add 'stoppage time' (injury time) to compensate for time lost due to substitutions, injuries, goal celebrations, and other stoppages. The 90-minute duration has been the standard since the early days of football in the 19th century. Extra time (2 x 15 minutes) may be added only in knockout competitions when the match is tied after 90 minutes.
Option (a) 80 minutes — Incorrect: 80 minutes is not the official duration of a standard FIFA football match; the regulation time is 90 minutes.
Option (c) 100 minutes — Incorrect: 100 minutes is not a standard FIFA match duration; injury time may push the game beyond 90 minutes, but 90 minutes remains the official regulation time.
Option (d) 120 minutes — Incorrect: 120 minutes (90 minutes + 2 x 15 minutes extra time) applies only in knockout rounds when the score is tied after regulation; it is not the standard duration.

Correct Answer: Goa 2023 — Option (c)
The 37th National Games held in Goa in 2023 witnessed one of the highest numbers of doping violations in Indian sporting history, with more than 20 athletes testing positive for banned substances. This alarmed sports authorities and NADA (National Anti-Doping Agency) and led to increased scrutiny of doping in Indian sports. The National Games in Goa were organized after a long gap and saw participation from athletes across all states and Union Territories.
Option (a) Gujarat 2022 — Incorrect: The 36th National Games were held in Gujarat in 2022; while doping violations occurred, the large-scale violations of 20+ athletes are specifically associated with Goa 2023.
Option (b) Kerala 2015 — Incorrect: The 35th National Games were held in Kerala in 2015; the record doping violations (20+) are specifically associated with Goa 2023.
Option (d) Uttarakhand 2025 — Incorrect: The 38th National Games were scheduled in Uttarakhand; the specific incident of 20+ doping failures being one of the highest in the country refers to Goa 2023.

Correct Answer: Assam — Option (d)
Majuli Utsav is a cultural festival celebrated on Majuli Island in Assam. Majuli is the world's largest river island, located in the Brahmaputra river in Assam, and is also India's first island district. The festival showcases the rich cultural heritage of the Mishing ( Mising ) and other indigenous communities of Majuli, featuring traditional dances, music, handicrafts, and the unique Vaishnavite Sattra culture. Majuli is famous for its Sattra monasteries, which are centers of neo-Vaishnavism founded by Srimanta Shankardev.
Option (a) Goa — Incorrect: Goa is famous for its Carnival and Shigmo festivals; Majuli Utsav is specific to Assam.
Option (b) Kerala — Incorrect: Kerala celebrates festivals like Onam and Thrissur Pooram; Majuli Utsav is celebrated in Assam.
Option (c) Karnataka — Incorrect: Karnataka has festivals like Dasara (Mysuru) and Kambala; Majuli Utsav is associated with Assam's Majuli Island.

Correct Answer: Calcium and Phosphorus compounds — Option (b)
The hardness and rigidity of bones is primarily due to the presence of calcium phosphate — specifically hydroxyapatite [Ca₁₀(PO₄)₆(OH)₂] — which is the main mineral component of bone matrix. Bones consist of approximately 70% mineral matter (mainly calcium phosphate) and 30% organic matter (mainly collagen). The collagen provides flexibility, while the calcium phosphate minerals provide hardness and strength. Calcium makes up about 99% of the body's total calcium content in bones and teeth.
Option (a) Iron and Magnesium compounds — Incorrect: Iron is important for blood ( haemoglobin ) and magnesium is important for enzyme function; neither is primarily responsible for bone hardness.
Option (c) Sodium and Potassium compounds — Incorrect: Sodium and potassium are electrolytes important for nerve and muscle function; they are not the primary components responsible for bone hardness.
Option (d) Sulphur and Chloride compounds — Incorrect: Sulphur (in amino acids) and chloride (as an electrolyte) have no significant role in providing hardness to bones.

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Srimanta Shankardev (1449–1568), the great Assamese saint-scholar and reformer, based his teachings primarily on both the Bhagavad Gita and the Bhagavata Purana. He founded the Ekasarana Dharma (one-refuge religion), a neo-Vaishnavism movement centred on devotion to Lord Krishna (Vishnu). The Bhagavata Purana provided the philosophical and devotional framework for his teachings, while the Bhagavad Gita provided the philosophical basis for Karma and Jnana Yoga. His works like the Kirtan Ghosha were based on these texts.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: While the Bhagavad Gita is one of the texts Shankardev drew from, the Bhagavata Purana is equally (arguably more) central to his teachings.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: The Bhagavata Purana is indeed the primary text of Shankardev's Vaishnavism, but the Bhagavad Gita is also a foundational text for his philosophy.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Both the Bhagavad Gita and Bhagavata Purana are foundational to Shankardev's teachings; this option is completely incorrect.

Correct Answer: Sitting near below (the teacher) — Option (d)
The word 'Upanishad' is derived from three Sanskrit words: ' Upa ' (near), ' ni ' (down/below), and 'shad' (to sit). Together, the literal meaning is 'sitting near the teacher' or 'sitting down near (the teacher)'. This refers to the ancient Gurukul tradition where students would sit at the feet of their teacher (guru) to receive spiritual and philosophical knowledge through intimate discussion and instruction. The Upanishads represent the philosophical and spiritual core of the Vedas and form the basis of the Vedanta school of Hindu philosophy.
Option (a) To speak loudly — Incorrect: Speaking loudly has no connection to the Sanskrit etymology of 'Upanishad'; the word literally means sitting near the teacher.
Option (b) To write in good handwriting — Incorrect: The Sanskrit roots of 'Upanishad' ( upa + ni + shad) have no connection to writing; they relate to sitting proximity to a teacher.
Option (c) To meditate silently — Incorrect: While meditation is practiced in the Upanishadic tradition, the word 'Upanishad' literally means 'sitting near below', not 'silent meditation'.

Correct Answer: 110th — Option (a)
The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) celebrated its 110th Foundation Day on June 30, 2025. ZSI was established on July 1, 1916, under the British India administration, with its headquarters at the Indian Museum in Calcutta. ZSI is the premier organization in India for faunal survey and exploration, documentation of biodiversity, and taxonomy. It functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change ( MoEFCC ) and has published thousands of scientific papers and faunal surveys documenting India's rich biodiversity.
Option (b) 90th — Incorrect: The 90th Foundation Day would have been in 2006 (1916 + 90); the 2025 celebration marks the 110th Foundation Day.
Option (c) 99th — Incorrect: The 99th Foundation Day would have been in 2015; ZSI celebrated its 110th Foundation Day in 2025.
Option (d) 115th — Incorrect: The 115th Foundation Day would be in 2031 (1916 + 115); the correct figure for 2025 is 110 years.

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Combustion (burning) occurs in several types: (1) Rapid Combustion — combustion that takes place quickly and produces heat and light (e.g., burning of LPG gas, a candle flame). (2) Spontaneous Combustion — combustion that occurs without the application of external heat; a substance self-ignites due to internal chemical reactions (e.g., white phosphorus ignites spontaneously in air; fires in coal mines caused by spontaneous oxidation). Both are recognized types of combustion in chemistry and fire science.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Both rapid combustion and spontaneous combustion are valid types of combustion; only stating rapid combustion is incomplete.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Rapid combustion is equally a valid type of combustion; excluding it makes this option incorrect.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Both rapid combustion and spontaneous combustion are well-recognized types of combustion; this option is completely wrong.

Correct Answer: Feroz Shah Kotla Ground, Delhi — Option (b)
The Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), also called Hindustan Socialist Republican Army, was founded at a meeting held at Feroz Shah Kotla Ground, Delhi in September 1928. It was formed as a reorganization of the earlier Hindustan Republican Association (HRA), founded in 1924. Key figures who founded the HSRA included Bhagat Singh, Chandrashekhar Azad, Sukhdev, Bhagwati Charan Vohra, and others. The organization adopted socialism as its ideology and launched several revolutionary activities against British rule.
Option (a) Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College, Bombay — Incorrect: The HSRA's founding meeting was held in Delhi (Feroz Shah Kotla), not in Bombay.
Option (c) Alfred Park, Allahabad — Incorrect: Alfred Park (now Chandrashekhar Azad Park) in Allahabad is where Chandrashekhar Azad sacrificed his life in 1931 in a confrontation with British police; it was not the founding location of HSRA.
Option (d) Jallianwala Bagh, Amritsar — Incorrect: Jallianwala Bagh is the site of the 1919 massacre by British forces; it was not where the HSRA was founded.