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Delhi Police Head Constable 2025-26 9 January 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 18 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Head Constable 2025-26 on 9 January 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Static GK, Polity, Computer, Geography, Economics, Ancient History.

📚 18 questions🗓️ 9 January 2026⏰ Shift 1
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Static GK (6) · Polity (1) · Computer (1) · Geography (2) · Economics (4) · Ancient History (1) · Modern History (2) · Chemistry (1)

Static GK (6)

Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q1. Which of the following dance forms involves a blend of classical and folk elements, often featuring male dancers in female attire portraying mythological themes?

  1. (a) Mohiniyattam
  2. (b) Kathakali
  3. (c) Kuchipudi
  4. (d) Yakshagana
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kuchipudi

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Kuchipudi
Kuchipudi is a classical dance form from Andhra Pradesh that uniquely blends classical (Shastra-based) and folk theatrical elements. Its most distinctive feature is the tradition of male Brahmin dancers (from the Kuchipudi village) performing female roles ( Stri Vesham) — dressing in female attire and portraying female mythological characters from texts like the Bhagavata Purana. This tradition of male cross-dressing for mythological performances is a hallmark of Kuchipudi.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 ( Mohiniyattam ): This is a classical dance of Kerala performed exclusively by women — not by male dancers in female attire.
Option 2 (Kathakali): While Kathakali also involves male performers and mythological themes, it is primarily known as a classical dance-drama with elaborate costumes and makeup. It does not specifically blend folk elements in the same way Kuchipudi does, and its key feature is the elaborate facial makeup ( chutti ) rather than male-in-female-attire tradition.
Option 4 ( Yakshagana ): This is a traditional theatre form of coastal Karnataka with elements of dance, music, and drama. While it does have performers playing female roles, it is primarily a folk/semi-classical form, not specifically known for this combination of classical-folk blend with male performers in female mythological roles.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Painting styles and schools

Q2. Which revolutionary Indian artist, once called the 'Picasso of India', faced controversy for his depictions of Hindu deities and lived in exile during his final years?

  1. (a) S.H. Raza
  2. (b) Tyeb Mehta
  3. (c) M.F. Husain
  4. (d) Amrita Sher-Gil
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) M.F. Husain

Correct Answer: Option 3 – M.F. Husain
Maqbool Fida Husain (M.F. Husain, 1915–2011) was one of India's most celebrated and controversial modern artists. He was nicknamed the 'Picasso of India' for his revolutionary contribution to modern Indian art. He faced severe controversy and legal cases for his paintings depicting Hindu goddesses (Durga, Saraswati) in the nude. Due to threats and legal harassment, he left India in his final years and accepted Qatari citizenship, dying in London in 2011.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (S.H. Raza): Syed Haider Raza was a celebrated Indian painter known for his abstract works with spiritual symbolism (Bindu series). He lived in France for decades but was not called 'Picasso of India' and did not face controversy for depicting Hindu deities.
Option 2 (Tyeb Mehta): Tyeb Mehta was a Bombay Progressive Artists' Group member known for his bold figurative works. Not associated with the 'Picasso of India' title.
Option 4 (Amrita Sher-Gil): She was a pioneering female painter of pre-independence India. Not called 'Picasso of India' and not involved in this type of controversy.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q3. After a long hiatus, India resumed the National Games in 2022.
Which state hosted these games, and what was a key technological innovation introduced during the event?

  1. (a) Rajasthan – Athlete voting app
  2. (b) Karnataka – Digital scoring board
  3. (c) Gujarat – Real-time athlete tracking and live streaming
  4. (d) Tamil Nadu – AI-based training system
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gujarat – Real-time athlete tracking and live streaming

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Gujarat – Real-time athlete tracking and live streaming
The 36th National Games 2022 were held in Gujarat (Ahmedabad, Gandhinagar, Surat, Vadodara, Rajkot, and Bhavnagar) from September 27 to October 10, 2022. It was the first National Games held in India after a gap of 6 years (last held in Kerala in 2015). A key technological innovation introduced was real-time athlete tracking and live streaming of events, making the games more accessible to viewers across India and enhancing the sports experience.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Rajasthan – Athlete voting app): Rajasthan did not host the 2022 National Games.
Option 2 (Karnataka – Digital scoring board): Karnataka was not the host state for the 2022 National Games.
Option 4 (Tamil Nadu – AI-based training system): Tamil Nadu did not host the 2022 National Games.
Awards and Honours · Sports awards (Khel Ratna, Arjuna, Dronacharya, Dhyan Chand)

Q4. The famous Dhyan Chand Award is given for:

  1. (a) Excellence in international coaching
  2. (b) Lifetime achievement in sports
  3. (c) Best debutant sportsperson
  4. (d) Junior sports talent
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Lifetime achievement in sports

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Lifetime achievement in sports
The Dhyan Chand Award (renamed from the Lifetime Achievement Award) is India's highest sporting honour for lifetime contribution to sports. It is given by the President of India to sportspersons who have contributed to sports by their performance and continue to do so after their retirement from active sports.
Key sports awards in India:
• Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna: Highest sporting honour for outstanding performance over 4 years.
• Arjuna Award: For consistent outstanding performance over last 4 years.
• Dronacharya Award: For coaches for producing medal-winning sportspersons.
• Dhyan Chand Award: For lifetime contribution to sports (even after retirement).
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (International coaching): The Dronacharya Award is for coaching excellence — not the Dhyan Chand Award.
Option 3 (Best debutant): There is no national award specifically for best debutant sportsperson.
Option 4 (Junior sports talent): Junior talent recognition is done through other platforms (like Khelo India); the Dhyan Chand Award is for lifetime achievement.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Folk theatre forms by state

Q5. Which traditional oral art form is showcased during the Perupalem Beach Festival?

  1. (a) Yakshagana
  2. (b) Burrakatha
  3. (c) Nautanki
  4. (d) Therukoothu
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Burrakatha

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Burrakatha
Burrakatha is a traditional Telugu oral storytelling art form from Andhra Pradesh. It involves three performers — the main narrator ( Kathakudu ) and two assistants — who use a traditional instrument called the ' Budike Tambura' (a stringed instrument made from a gourd). Stories from mythology, folklore, and social themes are narrated through songs and dialogue. Since Perupalem Beach Festival is held in Andhra Pradesh, Burrakatha — a traditional art form of the region — is showcased at the festival.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 ( Yakshagana ): Yakshagana is a traditional theatre form of coastal Karnataka — not Andhra Pradesh.
Option 3 (Nautanki): Nautanki is a traditional folk theatre from North India (Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan) — not Andhra Pradesh.
Option 4 ( Therukoothu ): Therukoothu is a traditional street theatre from Tamil Nadu — not Andhra Pradesh.
Sports · Sports terminology

Q6. Match the following terms in Column A with the correct sport in Column B:
Column A (Term) | Column B (Sport)
A. Raid | 1. Wrestling
B. En Passant | 2. Kabaddi
C. Knockout | 3. Chess

  1. (a) A-2, B-3, C-1
  2. (b) A-1, B-2, C-3
  3. (c) A-3, B-1, C-2
  4. (d) A-2, B-1, C-3
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) A-2, B-3, C-1

Correct Answer: Option 1 – A-2, B-3, C-1
Raid (A) → Kabaddi (2):
A 'Raid' is the fundamental attacking move in Kabaddi, where a player from one team enters the opponent's half, tags opponents, and tries to return to their half on a single breath while chanting "Kabaddi, Kabaddi...".
En Passant (B) → Chess (3):
'En Passant' is a special pawn capture move in Chess . It occurs when a pawn advances two squares from its starting position and passes an opposing pawn's capture square — the opponent's pawn can capture it as if it had only moved one square.
Knockout (C) → Wrestling (1):
While 'Knockout' is more commonly associated with Boxing, in the context of Wrestling, a pinfall or technical knockout ends the match. In Indian traditional wrestling ( Kushti ), pinning the opponent's shoulders to the ground (a form of 'knockout') decides the winner.
Why other options are wrong:
Options 2, 3, 4: All have incorrect sport-term pairings.

Polity (1)

Judiciary · Landmark judgments

Q7. Which of the following statements best describes the current legal and social status of LGBTQIA+ rights in India,
considering the landmark Supreme Court rulings and recent legislative efforts?

  1. (a) The Supreme Court in Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018) decriminalized consensual same-sex relations, but same-sex marriage and adoption rights remain unrecognized, with no comprehensive anti-discrimination law in place.
  2. (b) The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019, fully addresses all concerns raised by the LGBTQIA+ community, including self-identification of gender and protection from workplace discrimination.
  3. (c) The Indian Penal Code still criminalizes consensual homosexual acts under Section 377, despite international pressure and activism.
  4. (d) Same-sex marriage is legally recognized in India, and the government has passed comprehensive laws granting full inheritance and adoption rights to LGBTQIA+ couples.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The Supreme Court in Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018) decriminalized consensual same-sex relations, but same-sex marriage and adoption rights remain unrecognized, with no comprehensive anti-discrimination law in place.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – SC (2018) decriminalized same-sex relations; marriage/adoption rights unrecognized; no anti-discrimination law
The current legal status of LGBTQIA+ rights in India:
• Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018): The Supreme Court read down Section 377 of the IPC, decriminalizing consensual same-sex relations between adults.
• Same-sex marriage: NOT legally recognized. In 2023, the SC (Constitution Bench) declined to recognize same-sex marriage, leaving it to Parliament.
• Adoption rights: Same-sex couples do NOT have legal adoption rights in India.
• Anti-discrimination law: No comprehensive anti-discrimination law covering sexual orientation exists in India.
• Transgender Persons Act 2019: Provides some protections for transgender persons but does not address all LGBTQIA+ concerns.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2: The Transgender Act 2019 does NOT fully address all LGBTQIA+ concerns — it has been criticized by the community for many shortcomings.
Option 3: Section 377 was read down by the Supreme Court in 2018 — consensual same-sex relations are no longer criminalized.
Option 4: Same-sex marriage is NOT legally recognized in India.

Computer (1)

Cyber Security and Viruses · Cyber laws (IT Act 2000) and CERT-In

Q8. Which of the following statements about the Cyber Surakshit Bharat (CSB) initiative is incorrect?

  1. (a) CSB primarily focuses on capacity building of government officials through cybersecurity training and awareness programs.
  2. (b) The initiative aims to secure government networks by promoting cybersecurity best practices and collaboration across ministries.
  3. (c) CSB mandates the installation of specific government-approved antivirus software on all personal devices used by citizens.
  4. (d) It is implemented under the aegis of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) in India.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) CSB mandates the installation of specific government-approved antivirus software on all personal devices used by citizens.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – CSB does NOT mandate antivirus installation on all citizens' personal devices (INCORRECT statement)
The Cyber Surakshit Bharat (CSB) initiative was launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) in 2018. Its actual objectives:
• Building cybersecurity awareness among government officials, particularly Chief Information Security Officers (CISOs) and IT personnel.
• Capacity building through training workshops, bootcamps, and awareness programs.
• Promoting cybersecurity best practices within government ministries and departments.
• Helping secure government networks and digital infrastructure.
Statement in Option 3 is INCORRECT: CSB does NOT mandate the installation of specific government-approved antivirus software on all personal devices used by citizens. The program is focused on government officials and government networks — not on mandating software on citizens' personal devices.
Why other options are correct statements (and hence wrong answers to this question):
Option 1: Correct — CSB does focus on capacity building of government officials.
Option 2: Correct — CSB does aim to secure government networks.
Option 4: Correct — CSB is implemented under MeitY.

Geography (2)

Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Volcanoes and volcanic landforms

Q9. Which of the following statements best reflects the Mantle Plume Hypothesis and its implications in explaining intraplate volcanism and hotspot tracks, particularly in contrast to plate boundary processes?

  1. (a) Mantle plumes are narrow, buoyant columns of cold material rising from the upper mantle, forming island arcs and rift valleys primarily at divergent plate boundaries.
  2. (b) Mantle plumes originate from the asthenosphere, are stationary with respect to tectonic plates, and are responsible for features like the Mid-Atlantic Ridge and Mariana Trench.
  3. (c) Mantle plumes are deep-seated thermal anomalies, possibly rising from the core-mantle boundary, causing hotspot volcanism like the Hawaiian chain, independent of plate margins.
  4. (d) Mantle plumes explain the episodic movement of tectonic plates by generating subduction zones, but cannot account for surface volcanic activity due to their low thermal energy.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mantle plumes are deep-seated thermal anomalies, possibly rising from the core-mantle boundary, causing hotspot volcanism like the Hawaiian chain, independent of plate margins.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Mantle plumes are deep-seated thermal anomalies from core-mantle boundary, causing hotspot volcanism independent of plate margins
The Mantle Plume Hypothesis (proposed by J. Tuzo Wilson and W. Jason Morgan):
• Mantle plumes are columns of HOT (not cold) material rising from deep within the Earth — possibly from the core-mantle boundary (CMB).
• They are largely stationary relative to tectonic plates (the plate moves over them).
• As a plate moves over a stationary plume, it creates a chain of volcanoes — like the Hawaiian-Emperor Seamount Chain.
• This volcanism occurs INTRAPLATE — independent of plate boundaries (unlike volcanoes at subduction zones or mid-ocean ridges).
• Classic examples: Hawaiian chain, Yellowstone, Iceland, Reunion Island.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Cold material, divergent boundaries): Mantle plumes are HOT, not cold. Island arcs form at subduction zones, not from plumes.
Option 2 (Asthenosphere origin, responsible for Mid-Atlantic Ridge): Mid-Atlantic Ridge is formed by divergent plate tectonics — not mantle plumes. Mantle plumes are not stationary with respect to plates in all models.
Option 4 (Generate subduction zones): Mantle plumes do NOT generate subduction zones. They cause intraplate hotspot volcanism.
India - Transport and Communication · Ports and shipping

Q10. Which among the following is the top seafood exporting port of India in terms of dollar value?

  1. (a) Visakhapatnam
  2. (b) Tuticorin
  3. (c) Kochi
  4. (d) Mangalore
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Visakhapatnam

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Visakhapatnam
Visakhapatnam (Vizag) in Andhra Pradesh is India's top seafood exporting port in terms of dollar value. According to the Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA), Visakhapatnam handles the largest volume and value of seafood exports from India, primarily frozen shrimp ( vannamei and black tiger shrimp), fish, and other marine products. Andhra Pradesh is India's leading state in seafood exports.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Tuticorin): Tuticorin ( Thoothukudi ) in Tamil Nadu is a significant port but not the top seafood exporter by dollar value.
Option 3 (Kochi): Kochi (Kerala) is a major fishing harbour and seafood processing hub, but ranks below Visakhapatnam in seafood export dollar value.
Option 4 (Mangalore): Mangalore (Karnataka) handles seafood exports but is not India's top seafood exporting port by value.

Economics (4)

National Income · Economic growth and development

Q11. In the context of India's economic growth and investment trends in 2025, which of the following statements best explains the significance of Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) and the factors influencing its recent fluctuations?

  1. (a) GFCF only measures government expenditure on infrastructure and does not include private sector investments.
  2. (b) A rising GFCF as a percentage of GDP reflects increased investment in fixed assets like machinery, buildings, and infrastructure, indicating higher productive capacity; however, fluctuations in 2025 are influenced by global supply chain disruptions, private sector risk aversion, and policy reforms aimed at boosting capital expenditure.
  3. (c) GFCF primarily tracks changes in financial assets like stocks and bonds and is unrelated to physical capital investment.
  4. (d) GFCF growth in 2025 is solely driven by agricultural output improvements and rural credit expansion.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A rising GFCF as a percentage of GDP reflects increased investment in fixed assets like machinery, buildings, and infrastructure, indicating higher productive capacity; however, fluctuations in 2025 are influenced by global supply chain disruptions, private sector risk aversion, and policy reforms aimed at boosting capital expenditure.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Rising GFCF reflects investment in fixed assets; 2025 fluctuations due to supply chain disruptions, risk aversion, and policy reforms
Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) measures the net investment in fixed assets — machinery, buildings, transport equipment, and infrastructure — by businesses, households, and the government. Key points:
• GFCF includes BOTH public and private sector investments (not just government).
• A rising GFCF-to-GDP ratio indicates growing productive capacity of the economy.
• In 2025, GFCF fluctuations in India were influenced by:
- Global supply chain disruptions (post-COVID, geopolitical tensions)
- Private sector risk aversion (cautious investment amid uncertainty)
- Policy reforms aimed at boosting capital expenditure (India's capex push, PLI schemes)
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Only government expenditure): GFCF includes BOTH government AND private sector investments.
Option 3 (Financial assets like stocks/bonds): GFCF measures PHYSICAL capital investment — not financial assets. Changes in stocks and bonds are captured in financial accounts, not GFCF.
Option 4 (Solely agricultural): GFCF growth is driven by multiple sectors — not solely agriculture.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q12. Which of the following correctly describes the term 'Liberalization' in the 1991 reforms?

  1. (a) Reduction in foreign exchange reserves
  2. (b) Removal of industrial licensing and price controls
  3. (c) Privatization of all public sector banks
  4. (d) Closing down of loss-making PSUs
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Removal of industrial licensing and price controls

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Removal of industrial licensing and price controls
Liberalization in the context of India's 1991 LPG ( Liberalisation , Privatisation , Globalisation ) reforms primarily referred to:
• Abolition of the License Raj — removing the requirement for government licenses to start or expand industrial production.
• Removal of price controls in many sectors.
• Reducing government restrictions and regulations on private enterprise.
• Opening sectors previously reserved for the public sector to private companies.
• Allowing freer functioning of market forces in the economy.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Reduction in foreign exchange reserves): Liberalization is a policy framework — not about reducing forex reserves. In fact, the 1991 crisis involved critically low forex reserves, and reforms were aimed at rebuilding them.
Option 3 (Privatization of all PSBs): Privatization is a separate component of the LPG reforms. Moreover, not all public sector banks were privatized — only some were opened to private competition.
Option 4 (Closing loss-making PSUs): This relates more to privatization or disinvestment policy, not specifically to liberalization.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Economic groupings (BRICS, G20, ASEAN)

Q13. Which unique feature of BRICS distinguishes it from traditional Western economic blocs like G7?

  1. (a) It focuses on military alliances only
  2. (b) It consists solely of low-income countries
  3. (c) It includes emerging economies from different continents aiming for multipolarity
  4. (d) It operates under NATO funding
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It includes emerging economies from different continents aiming for multipolarity

Correct Answer: Option 3 – It includes emerging economies from different continents aiming for multipolarity
BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa — and recently expanded) is distinguished from Western-led groups like G7 by:
• Multipolarity focus: BRICS represents a push for a multipolar world order, challenging the dominance of Western countries in global governance.
• Geographic diversity: Members span South America, Europe, Asia, and Africa — representing diverse geopolitical regions.
• Emerging economies: Unlike G7 (developed Western nations), BRICS brings together major emerging market economies.
• No military alliance: BRICS is an economic and political cooperation group, not a military alliance.
• Global South representation: BRICS gives a platform to developing nations to influence global economic rules.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Military alliances): BRICS is NOT a military alliance. It has no collective defence framework like NATO.
Option 2 (Solely low-income): BRICS includes China and Russia, which are not low-income countries. It includes middle-income and upper-middle-income economies.
Option 4 (NATO funding): BRICS has no connection with NATO. NATO is a separate Western military alliance.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q14. What was a primary reason for implementing the industrial licensing system in India during the planning era?

  1. (a) To encourage foreign direct investment and technology transfer
  2. (b) To prevent monopolies and ensure balanced regional development
  3. (c) To simplify the process of starting new businesses
  4. (d) To boost consumer goods production rapidly
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To prevent monopolies and ensure balanced regional development

Correct Answer: Option 2 – To prevent monopolies and ensure balanced regional development
The Industrial Licensing system (License Raj) was introduced in India through the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951, as part of the planned economy approach. The primary reasons were:
1. To prevent monopolies: Regulate which businesses could enter which industries to avoid concentration of economic power.
2. Balanced regional development: Direct industries to backward and underdeveloped regions to reduce regional disparities.
3. Resource allocation: Ensure scarce capital and resources were used in priority sectors (heavy industry, infrastructure).
4. Public sector primacy: Reserve strategic industries for the public sector as per the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Encourage FDI and technology transfer): The licensing system actually restricted FDI. India was largely protectionist during the planning era.
Option 3 (Simplify starting businesses): The License Raj made starting businesses more complex, not simpler. It required multiple licenses and approvals.
Option 4 (Boost consumer goods rapidly): The planning era emphasis was on heavy industry and capital goods — NOT rapid consumer goods production.

Ancient History (1)

Gupta Empire · Gupta art and temples

Q15. What makes the carved panels along the side walls of the Dashavatara Temple architecturally significant?

  1. (a) They depict Jain Tirthankaras in early Mauryan style.
  2. (b) They are Buddhist murals with Ashokan edicts.
  3. (c) They showcase Vaishnava mythological scenes not found elsewhere.
  4. (d) They are European frescoes brought during the French colonial period.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) They showcase Vaishnava mythological scenes not found elsewhere.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – They showcase Vaishnava mythological scenes not found elsewhere
The Dashavatara Temple is a 6th-century CE Gupta-period Hindu temple located in Deogarh, Uttar Pradesh. It is one of the finest surviving examples of Gupta temple architecture. The carved panels along the temple's walls are architecturally and artistically significant because they depict rare and unique Vaishnava mythological scenes — scenes from the ten avatars of Vishnu ( Dashavatara ) and other Puranic narratives — rendered with exceptional artistic quality that is not commonly found in other temples. The Anantashayana panel (Vishnu reclining on the cosmic serpent Shesha) is among the most celebrated examples.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Jain Tirthankaras, Mauryan style): The Dashavatara Temple is a Vaishnava temple — not Jain. It is from the Gupta period, not Mauryan.
Option 2 (Buddhist murals with Ashokan edicts): The temple has no Buddhist connection; it is dedicated to Vishnu.
Option 4 (European frescoes, French colonial): The Dashavatara Temple dates to the 6th century CE — centuries before French colonialism. Its art is entirely indigenous Indian.

Modern History (2)

Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · Partition of Bengal and Swadeshi Movement

Q16. What was the stated reason for the 1905 Partition of Bengal?

  1. (a) Promote administrative convenience
  2. (b) Divide Bengal on religious lines
  3. (c) Support Bengali nationalism
  4. (d) Reduce famine in eastern districts
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Promote administrative convenience

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Promote administrative convenience
Lord Curzon, the Viceroy of India, officially stated that the Partition of Bengal in 1905 was carried out for administrative convenience. Bengal was the largest province in British India, and Curzon argued that it was too large (over 78 million people) for a single administration to govern efficiently. He claimed dividing it would improve administrative efficiency and allow better governance of the eastern districts.
However, Indian nationalists and historians argue that the REAL motive was to divide the powerful Bengali nationalist movement along communal lines (Hindu Bengal in the West, Muslim-majority Bengal in the East), thereby weakening the independence movement using divide-and-rule tactics.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Divide on religious lines): While this was arguably the real underlying motive, it was NOT the STATED (official) reason given by the British.
Option 3 (Support Bengali nationalism): This is the opposite — the partition was aimed at weakening Bengali nationalism.
Option 4 (Reduce famine): Famine reduction was not stated as a reason for the partition.
British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q17. Which of the following was the most significant institutional innovation introduced by Pitt's India Act of 1784?

  1. (a) The introduction of an open competitive examination system for the Company's civil services.
  2. (b) The establishment of a clear distinction between the commercial and political functions of the East India Company.
  3. (c) The grant of legislative powers to the Governors-in-Council of Bombay and Madras.
  4. (d) The formal recognition of the British Crown's undisputed sovereignty over Company territories in India.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The establishment of a clear distinction between the commercial and political functions of the East India Company.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Establishment of a clear distinction between commercial and political functions of the EIC
Pitt's India Act of 1784 (named after British PM William Pitt the Younger) was a landmark legislation that:
1. Created a Board of Control (consisting of 6 members including British government ministers) to oversee and control the political, military, and revenue affairs of the East India Company.
2. The Court of Directors (EIC's existing governing body) continued to handle commercial affairs.
3. This established a DUAL CONTROL system — the Board of Control (British government) oversaw political matters, while the Court of Directors managed commercial affairs.
4. This was the most significant institutional innovation as it brought the Company's political activities under direct parliamentary/government oversight for the first time.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Open competitive examination): This was introduced by the Charter Act of 1853 — not Pitt's India Act 1784.
Option 3 (Legislative powers to Bombay and Madras): This was not introduced by Pitt's India Act.
Option 4 (Formal recognition of British Crown sovereignty): Formal Crown rule came only with the Government of India Act 1858, after the 1857 revolt — not in 1784.

Chemistry (1)

Structure of Atom · Atomic number and mass number

Q18. How many neutrons are present in Carbon-14?

  1. (a) 6
  2. (b) 7
  3. (c) 8
  4. (d) 14
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 8

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 8
Carbon-14 (C-14) is a radioactive isotope of carbon used in carbon dating.
Key facts about Carbon-14:
• Atomic number of Carbon (Z) = 6 → Protons = 6
• Mass number of C-14 (A) = 14
• Number of Neutrons = Mass number - Atomic number = 14 - 6 = 8
So Carbon-14 has 8 neutrons (not 6, which would make it C-12, the most common stable isotope of carbon).
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (6 neutrons): 6 neutrons + 6 protons = mass number 12 → This is Carbon-12 (C-12), the most common stable carbon isotope.
Option 2 (7 neutrons): 7 neutrons + 6 protons = mass number 13 → This is Carbon-13 (C-13), a stable isotope.
Option 4 (14 neutrons): 14 neutrons + 6 protons = mass number 20 → This would be Carbon-20, an extremely unstable isotope. The mass number of C-14 is 14, NOT the number of neutrons.
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