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Judiciary PYQs – Polity, SSC & Railway

147 Judiciary (Polity) questions asked in recent SSC and Railway exams, newest first, with exam, date & shift, answers and solutions.

📚 147 questionsSSC 34 · Railway 113
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SSC Stenographer 2026 – 15 September 2026 Shift 1 · Judicial review and judicial activism

Q1. Which of the following powers of the Supreme Court best exemplifies its role as the "Guardian of the Constitution"?

  1. (a) Power to appoint the Chief Justice of India and other judges of the High Courts.
  2. (b) Power to review its own judgments and orders under Article 137.
  3. (c) Power to declare laws unconstitutional and strike them down through judicial review.
  4. (d) Power to grant anticipatory bail to accused persons.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Power to declare laws unconstitutional and strike them down through judicial review.

Answer: Option 3 — Power to declare laws unconstitutional and strike them down through judicial review.
Judicial review — the power to examine laws and executive orders and declare them void if they violate the Constitution — is what makes the Supreme Court the guardian and final interpreter of the Constitution.
Judges are appointed by the President (not the Court), review under Article 137 concerns only the Court's own orders, and anticipatory bail is an ordinary criminal-law power of the Sessions Court and High Court.
Revision note — Judicial review and the Supreme Court
• The phrase "judicial review" is not in the Constitution; it rests on Article 13 (laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights are void), Article 32 and Article 226 (writs), and Articles 131–136, 143, 245, 246 and 254.
• The idea comes from the US case Marbury v Madison (1803); India's judicial review is narrower — "procedure established by law" (Article 21), not "due process".
• Kesavananda Bharati (1973) gave the basic structure doctrine; Minerva Mills (1980) held judicial review itself to be part of the basic structure.
• Article 32 — Dr Ambedkar's "heart and soul" of the Constitution — lets a citizen move the Supreme Court directly for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
• Article 137 — review of its own judgments; Article 141 — its law is binding on all courts; Article 143 — advisory opinion to the President; Article 129 — court of record with power to punish for contempt.
• Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under Article 124 on the collegium's recommendation (Second and Third Judges cases, 1993 and 1998).
Do not mix these up
• Judicial review vs review under Article 137 — judicial review tests the validity of laws; Article 137 lets the Court re-examine its own judgment.
• Judicial review vs judicial activism — review is a constitutional power; activism is the Court's proactive use of it (PIL, relaxed locus standi) from the mid-1970s.
Also asked from this topic: who is called the guardian of the Constitution (the Supreme Court); what makes the judiciary the guardian (judicial review); the Article for review of its own judgments (Article 137); the base of judicial review (Article 13).

Q2. Which of the following statements about the Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs) Scheme is incorrect?

  1. (a) FTSCs are established primarily to expedite the trial of cases related to sexual offences against women and children
  2. (b) The scheme provides financial assistance from the Central Government for setting up and running FTSCs in States and Union Territories.
  3. (c) FTSCs have jurisdiction only over cases registered after the establishment of the court and cannot try pending cases.
  4. (d) The scheme encourages States to appoint dedicated public prosecutors and support staff to ensure speedy justice in FTSCs.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) FTSCs have jurisdiction only over cases registered after the establishment of the court and cannot try pending cases.

Answer: Option 3 — FTSCs have jurisdiction only over cases registered after the establishment of the court and cannot try pending cases.
The scheme was created for exactly the opposite purpose — to clear the backlog of pending rape and POCSO Act cases.
Pending cases are transferred to the FTSC; it is not restricted to cases filed after it was set up.
Revision note — Fast Track Special Courts (FTSC) Scheme
• A Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched in October 2019 by the Department of Justice, Ministry of Law and Justice, following the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018.
• Purpose: speedy trial and disposal of pending cases of rape (IPC 376 / BNS 64) and offences under the POCSO Act, 2012.
• Funded from the Nirbhaya Fund; the Centre–State sharing ratio is 60:40 (90:10 for North-Eastern and Himalayan states).
• Originally 1,023 FTSCs were sanctioned, including 389 exclusive POCSO courts — one for every district with more than 100 pending POCSO cases.
• Each FTSC is staffed with one judicial officer and seven support staff; states are expected to appoint dedicated public prosecutors.
• The scheme was extended in 2021 and again in 2023, now running till 31 March 2026 with a total outlay of about ₹1,952 crore.
• The POCSO Act itself expects a Special Court to finish a trial, as far as possible, within one year of taking cognizance.
Do not mix these up
• Fast Track Courts (FTCs) vs Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs) — FTCs are general courts set up by states from 2000 on the Eleventh Finance Commission's recommendation.
• FTSCs, by contrast, are a central 2019 scheme only for rape and POCSO cases.
• Nirbhaya Fund vs FTSC Scheme — the fund is the ₹1,000 crore corpus of 2013 for women's safety; the FTSC scheme is one project financed from it.
Also asked from this topic: the purpose of the Nirbhaya Fund (women's safety); the time limit for a POCSO trial (one year); the Supreme Court's May 2025 direction for dedicated child sexual abuse courts.

Q3. Who among the following appoints judges of Family Courts in India?

  1. (a) State Government
  2. (b) Union Home Minister
  3. (c) President
  4. (d) Governor
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) State Government

Family Courts Act, 1984
Section 4: Appointment of Judges
Judges of Family Courts are appointed by theState Governmentin consultation with the High Court.
Family Courts deal with family disputes and matrimonial matters at the state level.
Answer: Option 1 → State Government
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 20 June 2026 Shift 3 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q4. Which of the following statements about Lok Adalat is correct?

  1. (a) Lok Adalat decisions are not binding on parties.
  2. (b) Lok Adalat has the power to enforce its decisions like a civil court.
  3. (c) Lok Adalat follows a lengthy and complex procedure similar to regular courts.
  4. (d) Lok Adalat mainly resolves disputes through arbitration.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Lok Adalat has the power to enforce its decisions like a civil court.

Topic: Lok Adalat (Alternative Dispute Resolution)
Key Facts:
1. Lok Adalat decisions arebinding on all partiesand final.
2. Awards have status ofcivil court decreeunder Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
3. No appeal lies against Lok Adalat award.
4. Followssimple, informal procedurebased on conciliation, not arbitration.
5. Decisions areexecutable as court decrees.
Analysis of Options:
Option 1: Incorrect — decisions ARE binding.
Option 2: Correct — has enforcement power like civil court.
Option 3: Incorrect — procedure is simple and informal.
Option 4: Incorrect — resolves through conciliation, not arbitration.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 June 2026 Shift 2 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q5. Tribunals under Article 323A (Administrative tribunals) of the Constitution of India can be established by:

  1. (a) Supreme Courts only
  2. (b) Parliament only
  3. (c) High Courts only
  4. (d) State legislatures only
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Parliament only

Article 323A - Administrative Tribunals
Constitutional Provision:
Article 323A empowersParliamentto establish tribunals for adjudication of disputes related to recruitment and service conditions of public servants.
Key Points:
• Parliament can create tribunals by law for Centre and States
• Covers disputes of persons in public service
• Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 enacted under this provision
Answer: Option 2 → Parliament only
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 18 June 2026 Shift 2 · Judicial review and judicial activism

Q6. In India, the concept of judicial activism, as reflected through innovative interpretations of the Constitution and expansion of the scope of judicial review, was introduced during which of the following periods?

  1. (a) Mid-1990s
  2. (b) Mid-1970s
  3. (c) Mid-1980s
  4. (d) Mid-1960s
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mid-1970s

Topic: Judicial Activism in India
Key Facts:
1. Judicial activism emerged duringEmergency period (1975-77)
2. Post-Emergency era saw expansion ofPIL (Public Interest Litigation)
3. Landmark cases:Kesavananda Bharati (1973)- Basic Structure doctrine
4. Courts began innovative interpretations to protect fundamental rights
Themid-1970smarked the beginning of active judicial intervention
in governance and rights protection through expanded judicial review.
Answer: Option 2 → Mid-1970s
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 18 June 2026 Shift 3 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q7. Under the Legal Services Authorities Act of which year, every State / District Authority or the Supreme Court / High Court Legal Services Committee or Taluk Legal Services Committee may organise Lok Adalats, as the case may be?

  1. (a) 1987
  2. (b) 1957
  3. (c) 1967
  4. (d) 1977
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1987

Topic: Legal Services Authorities Act
TheLegal Services Authorities Act, 1987provides for legal aid to weaker sections.
Under this Act, State/District Authorities and Supreme Court/High Court Legal Services Committees can organizeLok Adalats.
Lok Adalats are alternative dispute resolution forums for amicable settlement of cases.
Answer: Option 1 → 1987
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 17 June 2026 Shift 1 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q8. As of September 2025, according to the structure of the Central Administrative Tribunal, how many benches are there across India?

  1. (a) 15
  2. (b) 10
  3. (c) 19
  4. (d) 22
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 19

Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)
Established under Article 323A of the Constitution.
As of September 2025, CAT has19 benchesacross India.
Principal Bench: New Delhi
Circuit Benches: 18 other locations in major cities
Answer: Option 3 → 19
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 17 June 2026 Shift 2 · Supreme Court - composition and appointment

Q9. According to the Indian Constitution, which Article governs the appointment of an Acting Chief Justice of India?

  1. (a) Article 122
  2. (b) Article 130
  3. (c) Article 120
  4. (d) Article 126
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 126

Topic: Indian Constitution - Supreme Court
Article 126deals with the appointment of Acting Chief Justice of India.
When the office of CJI is vacant or when the CJI is unable to perform duties due to absence or otherwise, the President can appoint one of the judges of the Supreme Court to act as CJI.
Other Articles:
Article 122 → Courts not to inquire into proceedings of Parliament
Article 130 → Seat of Supreme Court
Article 120 → Language of Supreme Court
Answer: Option 4 → Article 126
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 16 June 2026 Shift 1 · Judicial review and judicial activism

Q10. Which of the following makes the Judiciary, the guardian of the Constitution?

  1. (a) Independence
  2. (b) Judicial overreach
  3. (c) Service conditions
  4. (d) Judicial review
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Judicial review

Judiciary as Guardian of Constitution
Judicial Reviewis the power of courts to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders.
Through judicial review, courts can declare laws and actions unconstitutional if they violate the Constitution.
This power enables the judiciary to protect fundamental rights and maintain constitutional supremacy.
Article 13, 32, 136, 226, and 227 provide the basis for judicial review in India.
Answer: Option 4 → Judicial review
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 16 June 2026 Shift 2 · Supreme Court - jurisdiction (original, appellate, advisory)

Q11. "Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in appeals from High Courts in regard to civil matters" is provided in which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) Article 134
  2. (b) Article 132
  3. (c) Article 133
  4. (d) Article 131
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 133

Topic: Supreme Court's Appellate Jurisdiction
Article 133- Appeals in civil matters from High Courts to Supreme Court
Article 131- Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court
Article 132- Appellate jurisdiction in constitutional matters
Article 134- Appellate jurisdiction in criminal matters
Answer: Option 3 → Article 133
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 16 June 2026 Shift 3 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q12. The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was established in which year?

  1. (a) 1990
  2. (b) 1985
  3. (c) 1980
  4. (d) 1995
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1985

Topic:Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)
Established underArticle 323Aof the Constitution.
Created by theAdministrative Tribunals Act, 1985.
Purpose: Adjudication of disputes related to recruitment and service conditions of public servants.
Answer: Option 2 → 1985

Q13. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the control of High Courts over subordinate courts?

  1. (a) Article 115
  2. (b) Article 235
  3. (c) Article 308
  4. (d) Article 107
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 235

Topic: High Court's Control over Subordinate Courts
Article 235of the Indian Constitution deals with the control of High Courts over subordinate courts.
Key Points:
• Control includes posting, promotion, and grant of leave to subordinate judiciary.
• High Court exercises administrative and disciplinary control.
• Does not include appointment of district judges (covered under Article 233).
Answer: Option 2 → Article 235
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 15 June 2026 Shift 2 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q14. The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was established under which law?

  1. (a) Public Service Commission Act, 1986
  2. (b) Central Services Act, 1985
  3. (c) Administrative Reforms Act, 1980
  4. (d) Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985

Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)
Established under:Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985
Key Facts:
• Constitutional basis: Article 323-A
• Purpose: Adjudication of service matters of public servants
• Replaced service tribunals and reduced burden on High Courts
Answer: Option 4 → Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985

Q15. Which landmark case is credited with relaxing the rule of locus standi and establishing the foundation for Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India?

  1. (a) Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India
  2. (b) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab
  3. (c) S.P. Gupta vs. Union of India
  4. (d) Minerva Mills vs. Union of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) S.P. Gupta vs. Union of India

Topic: Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India
S.P. Gupta vs. Union of India (1981)- Also known as theJudges Transfer Case.
This landmark judgment relaxed the traditional rule oflocus standi(legal standing to sue).
Established that any public-spirited person can approach the court on behalf of disadvantaged groups.
Laid thefoundation for PILin India, making justice accessible to all.
Answer: Option 3 → S.P. Gupta vs. Union of India
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 14 June 2026 Shift 2 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q16. The 42nd Amendment placed tribunals under which Part of the Constitution?

  1. (a) Part XV
  2. (b) Part IX-B
  3. (c) Part XII
  4. (d) Part XIV-A
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Part XIV-A

Topic: Constitutional Amendments - Tribunals
The42nd Amendment Act, 1976added Part XIV-A to the Constitution.
Part XIV-A deals withTribunals(Articles 323A and 323B).
Article 323A:Administrative Tribunals
Article 323B:Tribunals for other matters
This was done to reduce burden on regular courts.
Answer: Option 4 → Part XIV-A

Q17. The Gram Nyayalayas Act was enacted in which of the following years?

  1. (a) 2008
  2. (b) 2002
  3. (c) 2006
  4. (d) 2005
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 2008

Topic: Gram Nyayalayas Act
The Gram Nyayalayas Act was enacted by the Parliament of India in2008.
Purpose: To establish village courts (Gram Nyayalayas) at grassroots level for providing access to justice to citizens at their doorsteps.
Key Feature: Established under Article 243-I of the Constitution to ensure speedy and affordable justice in rural areas.
Answer: Option 1 → 2008
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 14 June 2026 Shift 3 · Supreme Court - composition and appointment

Q18. Which Amendment created the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) in India?

  1. (a) 102ⁿᵈ Amendment
  2. (b) 76ᵗʰ Amendment
  3. (c) 82ⁿᵈ Amendment
  4. (d) 99ᵗʰ Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 99ᵗʰ Amendment

Topic: Constitutional Amendments - NJAC
99th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2014created the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC).
It was meant to replace the Collegium System for appointing judges to Supreme Court and High Courts.
However, Supreme Court struck down NJAC as unconstitutional in 2015, restoring the Collegium System.
Answer: Option 4 → 99ᵗʰ Amendment
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 13 June 2026 Shift 2 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q19. In the context of Lok Adalats, which statement is correct?

  1. (a) Lawyers are mandatory in every case presented to Lok Adalat
  2. (b) Only Supreme Court judges can preside over Lok Adalat sessions
  3. (c) Formal procedures and strict rules of evidence are followed
  4. (d) Proceedings are informal, flexible, and less technical
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Proceedings are informal, flexible, and less technical

Topic: Lok Adalats (People's Courts)
Key Features of Lok Adalats:
1. Established under Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
2. Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) mechanism
3.No court feesandlawyers not mandatory
4. Presided by judicial officers, retired judges, or social activists
5.Proceedings are informal, flexible, and less technical
6. Focus onconciliation and compromise, not strict evidence rules
7. Awards have status of civil court decree
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1: Lawyers arenot mandatoryin Lok Adalats
Option 2: Various judicial officers can preside, not only SC judges
Answer: Option 4 → Proceedings are informal, flexible, and less technical

Q20. Under Article 226, High Courts can issue writs to which authorities within their territorial jurisdiction?

  1. (a) Only Union Government
  2. (b) Any person or authority or government
  3. (c) Only private companies
  4. (d) Only State Government
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Any person or authority or government

Article 226 - Writ Jurisdiction of High Courts
High Courts have power to issue writs under Article 226 to:
Any person or authority or governmentwithin their territorial jurisdiction
This includes:
• Central Government and its authorities
• State Government and its authorities
• Statutory bodies, tribunals, local authorities
• Private persons/bodies performing public duties
Scope: Broader than Supreme Court's Article 32
Answer: Option 2 → Any person or authority or government
SSC GD 2026 – 30 May 2026 Shift 1 · Judicial review and judicial activism

Q21. Who is the guardian/protector of the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) President
  2. (b) Supreme Court
  3. (c) Prime Minister
  4. (d) Parliament
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Supreme Court

Correct Answer: Supreme Court — Option (b)
The Supreme Court of India is the guardian and protector of the Constitution of India. About the Supreme Court as Constitutional Guardian: Power of Judicial Review: The Supreme Court has the power to examine (review) the constitutionality of any law passed by Parliament or a State Legislature, and any executive action; It can strike down laws that violate the Constitution; This is its most important function as guardian of the Constitution; Constitutional basis: Article 13: Declares laws inconsistent with or in derogation of Fundamental Rights to be void; Article 32: Right to Constitutional Remedies — guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights; Article 131: Original jurisdiction in disputes between Centre and States; Article 132-136: Appellate jurisdiction; Article 141: Law declared by SC is binding on all courts; Article 142: SC can pass any decree necessary to do complete justice; Article 143: Advisory jurisdiction (President can refer questions of law); Role as guardian: Upholds Fundamental Rights (Part III of Constitution); Enforces Directive Principles (Part IV) indirectly; Protects the basic structure of the Constitution ( Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973 — established Basic Structure Doctrine); Interprets the Constitution authoritatively; Acts as a check on both the Legislature and Executive; Key doctrine: Basic Structure Doctrine (1973): Even Parliament cannot amend the basic/fundamental features of the Constitution; SC is the final authority on what constitutes the basic structure; Examples: Secularism, federalism, judicial review, democracy are part of basic structure; About the President: President is the constitutional head but NOT the guardian of the Constitution; He is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers (Article 74).
Option (a) President — Incorrect: The President of India is NOT considered the guardian of the Constitution; the President is the constitutional head of the executive and acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers; while the President takes an oath to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution (Article 60), the institutional role of guardian/protector is played by the Supreme Court through judicial review; the Supreme Court can check unconstitutional actions even by the President.
Option (c) Prime Minister — Incorrect: The Prime Minister is NOT the guardian of the Constitution; the PM is the head of the Council of Ministers and the effective head of the executive; while the PM also takes an oath to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution (Article 75), the role of constitutional guardian belongs to the Supreme Court which has the power of judicial review to strike down unconstitutional actions.
Option (d) Parliament — Incorrect: Parliament is NOT considered the guardian of the Constitution; while Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution (Article 368), even Parliament cannot violate the basic structure of the Constitution ( Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973); the Supreme Court serves as the guardian of the Constitution and can strike down parliamentary legislation that violates constitutional provisions; in fact, the Supreme Court acts as a check on Parliament's power. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.

Q22. Who decides the number of judges in a high court?

  1. (a) President of India
  2. (b) Parliament
  3. (c) Chief Justice of India
  4. (d) Governor of the State
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) President of India

Correct Answer: President of India — Option (a)
The President of India decides the number of judges in a High Court. About Article 216: Title: Constitution of High Courts; Part VI — The States; Chapter V — The High Courts in the States; Content: Every High Court shall consist of a Chief Justice and such other Judges as the President may from time to time deem it necessary to appoint; Key Points: The President decides BOTH the appointment AND the number of High Court judges; The President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers (in practice); Consultation for appointment: Article 217 requires the President to consult: The Chief Justice of India (CJI), The Governor of the State, The Chief Justice of the High Court (for judges other than CJ); The number of judges is NOT fixed — it can be increased or decreased as the President deems fit based on judicial workload; This gives the executive (President) the power to determine the sanctioned strength of each High Court; About Indian High Courts: India currently has 25 High Courts; Article 214: There shall be a High Court for each State; Article 215: Every High Court shall be a court of record; Article 216: Constitution of High Courts (President decides judges); Article 217: Appointment and conditions of office of a Judge of High Court; Article 218: Application of certain provisions relating to Supreme Court to High Courts; Article 226: Power of High Courts to issue writs (broader than Supreme Court); Sanctioned strength vs. actual working strength: Sanctioned strength: Set by President (currently several thousand posts across all HCs); Actual working strength: Often lower — many vacancies exist leading to judicial backlog.
Option (b) Parliament — Incorrect: Parliament does NOT decide the number of judges in a High Court; Article 216 clearly vests this power in the President of India; Parliament can legislate on judicial matters but does not determine the judge strength of individual High Courts; the President has the constitutional authority to determine the number of judges 'from time to time.'
Option (c) Chief Justice of India — Incorrect: The Chief Justice of India does NOT decide the number of judges in a High Court; the CJI is only consulted during the appointment process (Article 217); the actual power to decide the number of judges in a High Court is vested in the President of India under Article 216.
Option (d) Governor of the State — Incorrect: The Governor of the State does NOT decide the number of judges in a High Court; the Governor is consulted for the appointment of High Court judges (Article 217) but does not have the power to determine their number; the power to decide the number of judges in a High Court belongs to the President of India under Article 216.

Q23. The process of removing a judge of the Supreme Court is known by what name?

  1. (a) Recall ( Pratyahva )
  2. (b) Judicial Review
  3. (c) Impeachment ( Mahabhiyog )
  4. (d) Dismissal by the President
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Impeachment ( Mahabhiyog )

Correct Answer: Impeachment ( Mahabhiyog ) — Option (c)
The process of removing a Supreme Court judge is called Impeachment ( महाभियोग ). About Impeachment of Supreme Court Judges (Article 124(4)): Constitutional provision: Article 124(4) of the Indian Constitution; Grounds: Proved misbehaviour or incapacity; Process: An address is presented by each House of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha); Special majority required: Majority of total membership of each House AND 2/3 majority of members present and voting in each House; Both Houses must pass the address in the SAME session; After both Houses pass the address, the President issues the removal order; The Judges Enquiry Act, 1968 regulates the procedure: A motion (impeachment motion) must be signed by at least 100 members of Lok Sabha OR 50 members of Rajya Sabha; The Speaker/Chairman admits or rejects the motion; If admitted, a 3-member inquiry committee is formed (Chief Justice/SC judge + HC Chief Justice + a distinguished jurist); The committee investigates the charges; Historical note: No Supreme Court judge has ever been successfully impeached in India. The only attempt was against Justice V. Ramaswami (1993) — the motion failed as the ruling party abstained; About other processes: Recall ( Pratyahva ): A political mechanism to recall elected representatives — NOT applicable to judges; Judicial Review: The power of courts to review laws/government actions — it's a court power, not a removal process; Presidential dismissal: The President can remove judges only after the Parliament's address — not independently.
Option (a) Recall ( Pratyahva ) — Incorrect: Recall is a process used in some democracies to remove elected representatives before their term ends — it does NOT apply to Supreme Court judges in India; the correct process for removing SC judges is Impeachment. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Judicial Review — Incorrect: Judicial Review is the power of courts (especially the Supreme Court) to examine whether laws passed by Parliament or actions of the executive are constitutional — it is a court power, NOT the process of removing a judge.
Option (d) Dismissal by the President — Incorrect: While the President issues the final removal order, a judge cannot be simply 'dismissed by the President' at will; the removal requires an address passed by both Houses of Parliament with a special majority — the process is called Impeachment, not dismissal.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 9 May 2026 Shift 1 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q24. In which year did Junagadh district gain recognition for organizing the country’s first-ever Lok Adalat at Una?

  1. (a) 1983
  2. (b) 1985
  3. (c) 1984
  4. (d) 1982
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1982

Topic: Lok Adalat - Historical Milestone
First Lok Adalat in India:
Organized in Una, Junagadh district, Gujarat
Year:1982
Key Facts:
• Pioneer initiative in alternative dispute resolution
• Set precedent for nationwide Lok Adalat system
• Legal Services Authorities Act formalized it in 1987
Answer: Option 4 → 1982

Q25. Which of the following judicial approaches is best exemplified by the practice of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India?

  1. (a) Judicial Activism
  2. (b) Judicial Restraint
  3. (c) Judicial Absolutism
  4. (d) Judicial Passivism
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Judicial Activism

Topic: Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India
PILallows any citizen to approach courts for public causes, even without direct personal injury.
Introduced in 1980s by Justice P.N. Bhagwati and Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer.
Courts proactively take up cases on social issues like environment, human rights, corruption.
This representsJudicial Activism- courts actively interpreting law to protect public interest beyond traditional boundaries.
Judicial Restraint = courts limit their role; Absolutism/Passivism = not standard judicial terms.
Answer: Option 1 → Judicial Activism

Q26. Which of the following courts is empowered to impose the highest punishment among the subordinate courts in India?

  1. (a) Family Court
  2. (b) Consumer Court
  3. (c) Civil Court
  4. (d) Sessions Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sessions Court

Subordinate Courts in India - Punishment Powers
Sessions Court:Highest criminal court at district level.
Can imposeany punishmentincluding death penalty and life imprisonment.
Presided by Sessions Judge.
Other Courts:
Family Court - matrimonial and family disputes only.
Consumer Court - consumer protection cases, compensation.
Civil Court - civil matters, no criminal punishment.
Answer: Option 4 → Sessions Court

Q27. Public Interest Litigation is an example of which doctrine?

  1. (a) Judicial Review
  2. (b) Executive Action
  3. (c) Judicial Neutrality
  4. (d) Judicial Activism
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Judicial Activism

Public Interest Litigation (PIL)
PIL allows any citizen to approach court for public cause.
It is a tool ofJudicial Activismwhere courts take
proactive role in protecting rights of marginalized groups.
Introduced in India in 1980s by Justice P.N. Bhagwati.
Courts intervene beyond traditional disputes to ensure
social justice and constitutional rights.
Answer: Option 4 → Judicial Activism
SSC GD 2026 – 8 May 2026 Shift 3 · Supreme Court - composition and appointment

Q28. Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?

  1. (a) President
  2. (b) Prime Minister
  3. (c) Vice-President
  4. (d) Law Minister
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) President

Correct Answer: President — Option (a)
Article 124(2) of the Indian Constitution states that the Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President of India. The appointment is made after consultation with such Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts as the President deems necessary. By convention (since the Supreme Court's ruling in the Second Judges Case, 1993, and the Third Judges Case, 1998), the senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed as Chief Justice, based on the collegium system's recommendation. The President acts on the binding advice of the collegium headed by the outgoing Chief Justice.
Option (b) Prime Minister — Incorrect: While the PM heads the Union Cabinet, the appointment of the Chief Justice is made by the President, not the PM directly.
Option (c) Vice-President — Incorrect: The Vice-President's constitutional role relates to presiding over the Rajya Sabha; the CJI appointment is made by the President.
Option (d) Law Minister — Incorrect: The Law Minister may be involved in the process, but the constitutional authority to appoint the CJI rests with the President of India.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 8 May 2026 Shift 2 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q29. Which of the following subjects was addressed by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, granting Parliament the authority to establish tribunals?

  1. (a) Judicial review of laws made by high court
  2. (b) Service conditions of public servants
  3. (c) Election disputes of states only
  4. (d) Religious disputes
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Service conditions of public servants

42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
AddedPart XIV-A (Articles 323A & 323B)to the Constitution.
Article 323A:Administrative Tribunals
Parliament can establish tribunals forservice matters of public servants(disputes related to recruitment and conditions of service).
Article 323B:Tribunals for other matters
Parliament/State can establish tribunals for taxation, land reforms, elections, etc.
This amendment aimed to reduce burden on regular courts by creating specialized tribunals.
Answer: Option 2 → Service conditions of public servants
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 7 May 2026 Shift 2 · Supreme Court - jurisdiction (original, appellate, advisory)

Q30. Article 141 of the Indian Constitution declares that the law laid down by the Supreme Court is binding on ____.

  1. (a) State governments
  2. (b) All tribunals except civil courts
  3. (c) Only High Courts
  4. (d) All courts within the territory of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) All courts within the territory of India

Article 141 - Law Declared by Supreme Court
Constitutional Provision:
Article 141 states that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India.
Scope of Binding Nature:
• Applies to all subordinate courts
• Applies to all High Courts
• Applies to all tribunals
• Does not bind the Supreme Court itself (can overrule its own decisions)
This ensures uniformity in law across India and establishes the doctrine of precedent.
Answer: Option 4 → All courts within the territory of India

Q31. Provisions for the 'Control over subordinate courts' are provided in which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) Article 245
  2. (b) Article 235
  3. (c) Article 255
  4. (d) Article 225
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 235

Topic: Constitutional Provisions - Judiciary
Article 235deals with control of High Courts over subordinate courts.
It states that the control over district courts and courts subordinate
thereto including posting and promotion of judicial officers shall vest
in the High Court.
Other Articles:
Article 245 → Legislative powers of Parliament and State Legislatures
Article 225 → Jurisdiction of existing High Courts
Article 255 → Requirements as to recommendations and previous sanctions
Answer: Option 2 → Article 235

Q32. Control over district and subordinate courts’ posting, promotion and leaves of judges vests primarily in which authority?

  1. (a) Parliament
  2. (b) President of India
  3. (c) High Court
  4. (d) Law Ministry of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) High Court

Topic: Judicial Administration - Article 235
Constitutional Provision:
Article 235 of the Indian Constitution vests control over district courts and subordinate courts in theHigh Court.
Powers of High Court include:
• Posting and promotion of district judges
• Grant of leave to judges
• Disciplinary control over subordinate judiciary
Note:Appointment is done by Governor in consultation with High Court, but administrative control rests with High Court.
Answer: Option 3 → High Court
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 27 March 2026 Shift 1 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q33. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) was established under the:

  1. (a) Advocates Act, 1961
  2. (b) Legal Aid and Advice Act, 1972
  3. (c) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
  4. (d) Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987

Topic: National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)
Key Facts:
1. NALSA was established under theLegal Services Authorities Act, 1987
2. The Act came into force on9th November 1995
3. Purpose: Provide free legal aid to eligible sections of society
4. NALSA is headquartered in New Delhi
Answer: Option 3 → Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 25 March 2026 Shift 1 · Supreme Court - jurisdiction (original, appellate, advisory)

Q34. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to review any judgment pronounced or order made by it?

  1. (a) Article 145
  2. (b) Article 141
  3. (c) Article 136
  4. (d) Article 137
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 137

Topic:Supreme Court Powers - Review Jurisdiction
Article 137- Review of judgments or orders by the Supreme Court
Key Provision: Subject to provisions of any law made by Parliament and rules under Article 145, the Supreme Court has power to review any judgment pronounced or order made by it.
Other Articles:
Article 136 - Special Leave Petition (SLP)
Article 141 - Law declared by SC binding on all courts
Article 145 - Rules of Court, procedure
Answer: Option 4 → Article 137
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 25 March 2026 Shift 3 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q35. Which of the following Acts provides statutory status to Lok Adalats in India?

  1. (a) The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
  2. (b) The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
  3. (c) The Indian Constitution
  4. (d) The Civil Procedure Code, 1908
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987

Topic:Lok Adalats - Statutory Status
The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987provides statutory status to Lok Adalats.
Key Facts:
• Lok Adalats are alternative dispute resolution forums.
• They settle disputes through conciliation and compromise.
• Awards of Lok Adalats are deemed as decrees of civil court.
Answer: Option 1 → The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987

Q36. The power of High Courts to issue writs for purposes beyond Fundamental Rights is given under __________.

  1. (a) Article 245
  2. (b) Article 227
  3. (c) Article 226
  4. (d) Article 32
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 226

Topic: Constitutional Provisions - High Court Powers
Article 226:Empowers High Courts to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights AND for any other purpose.
Article 32:Supreme Court writs - only for Fundamental Rights enforcement.
Article 227:Superintendence power over subordinate courts.
Article 245:Legislative powers of Parliament and State Legislatures.
High Courts havewider writ jurisdictionthan Supreme Court under Article 226.
Answer: Option 3 → Article 226
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 22 March 2026 Shift 1 · Supreme Court - jurisdiction (original, appellate, advisory)

Q37. Which Article deals with the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

  1. (a) Article 131
  2. (b) Article 124
  3. (c) Article 32
  4. (d) Article 141
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 131

Topic:Original Jurisdiction of Supreme Court
Article 131deals with the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
It covers disputes between:
• Union and States
• States inter se (among themselves)
• Union and States on one side vs other States
Note: Article 32 → Fundamental Rights enforcement
Article 124 → Establishment of Supreme Court
Article 141 → Law declared by SC binding on all courts
Answer: Option 1 → Article 131

Q38. How do subordinate courts support the overall judicial system in India?

  1. (a) By enacting new legislation
  2. (b) By centralizing legal power in the higher judiciary
  3. (c) By exclusively handling appeals
  4. (d) By providing accessible, prompt, and localized justice
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) By providing accessible, prompt, and localized justice

Topic: Subordinate Courts in Indian Judicial System
Role of Subordinate Courts:
Subordinate courts form the foundation of India's judicial hierarchy.
They handle majority of civil and criminal cases at district and local levels.
Key Functions:
• Provide justice at grassroots level, closer to citizens
• Ensure quick disposal of cases without traveling to High Courts
• Handle first instance trials in most civil and criminal matters
• Reduce burden on higher judiciary by resolving cases locally
Why other options are incorrect:
Option 1: Courts interpret laws, legislature enacts them
Answer: Option 4 → By providing accessible, prompt, and localized justice
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 March 2026 Shift 1 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q39. When did the Legal Services Authorities Act come into force?

  1. (a) 15 August 1947
  2. (b) 26 January 1950
  3. (c) 1 April 1988
  4. (d) 9 November 1995
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 9 November 1995

Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
The Act was enacted by Parliament in 1987 to provide free legal services to eligible sections of society.
Though passed in 1987, it came into force on9 November 1995.
The Act established NALSA (National Legal Services Authority) to ensure justice for all.
Answer: Option 4 → 9 November 1995
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 18 March 2026 Shift 1 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q40. The first E-Lok Adalat was held in which year in India?

  1. (a) 2014
  2. (b) 2012
  3. (c) 2020
  4. (d) 2016
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2020

E-Lok Adalat is an online dispute resolution platform.
The first E-Lok Adalat was conducted in2020during the COVID-19 pandemic.
It was launched by the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) to ensure justice delivery during lockdown.
Answer: Option 3 → 2020
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 18 March 2026 Shift 2 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q41. Consider the following statements regarding the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) and select which is/are correct.
1. It exercises original jurisdiction in matters related to recruitment and service conditions of public servants.
2. Members of the def ence forces, Supreme Court officers, and Parliamentary staff are also covered.
3. Members of CAT are appointed based on the recommendation of a high-powered committee chaired by the Prime Minister.

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 2 only
  4. (d) 4 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1 only

Statement 1:Correct ✓
CAT has original jurisdiction over recruitment and service matters of civil servants under Article 323A.
Statement 2:Incorrect ✗
Defence forces personnel, Supreme Court staff, and Parliament Secretariat employees areexcludedfrom CAT jurisdiction.
Statement 3:Incorrect ✗
CAT members appointed on recommendation of committee chaired byChief Justice of India, not Prime Minister.
Answer: Option 1 → 1 only
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 16 March 2026 Shift 1 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q42. Which legislation forms the legal basis for the creation and operation of the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?

  1. (a) The Service Matters Act, 1990
  2. (b) The Judiciary Act, 1971
  3. (c) The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985
  4. (d) The Tribunals Reforms Act, 1980
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985

Topic: Legal basis of Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT
Key fact 1: CAT was established under The Administrative
Tribunals Act, 1985 passed by Parliament.
Key fact 2: This Act provides the statutory framework for
creation, jurisdiction, and functioning of CAT.
Key fact 3: CAT hears disputes related to service matters
of government employees and statutory bodies.
Answer: Option 3 → The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985

Q43. Which court is considered the highest judicial authority in a district?

  1. (a) Munsif Court
  2. (b) District Court
  3. (c) High Court
  4. (d) Family Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) District Court

The DISTRICT COURT is the highest judicial authority in a district.
Court Hierarchy in India:
1. Supreme Court (Apex Court)
2. High Court (State level)
3. District Court (District level — highest in district)
4. Subordinate Courts (Civil/Criminal courts at lower levels)
5. Munsif/Magistrate Courts (lowest level)
Family Court: specialised , deals with matrimonial disputes; NOT the highest.
Answer: Option 2 → District Court
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 16 March 2026 Shift 3 · Judicial review and judicial activism

Q44. Under which Article does the Supreme Court have the power of judicial review?

  1. (a) Article 124
  2. (b) Article 30
  3. (c) Article 32
  4. (d) Article 72
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 32

The Supreme Court's power of JUDICIAL REVIEW is derived from Article 32.
Key Points:
• Article 32 gives the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of
Fundamental Rights. Dr. Ambedkar called it the 'Heart and Soul of the Constitution'.
• Judicial review is also inherent in Articles 13, 131–136, 143, 226, 246.
• Article 32 specifically empowers SC to issue writs (Habeas Corpus,
Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo Warranto).
Why NOT others:
• Art 124 → Establishment and constitution of Supreme Court.
• Art 30 → Rights of minorities to establish educational institutions.
• Art 72 → Pardoning power of the President.
Answer: Option 3 → Article 32

Q45. Which of the following best describes the legal mandate, jurisdiction, and functional philosophy of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in India's environmental governance framework?

  1. (a) The NGT is a constitutional body established under Article 323A and exercises advisory jurisdiction over environmental matters, recommending actions to the Union government.
  2. (b) The NGT is empowered to hear original applications and appeals on a wide range of environmental issues, but its decisions are not legally binding and are subject to review by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
  3. (c) The NGT, established under the NGT Act, 2010, is a statutory adjudicatory body with powers equivalent to a civil court, guided by principles of sustainable development, polluter pays, and precautionary principle, and its orders are binding and appealable only in the Supreme Court.
  4. (d) The NGT is an executive tribunal under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, and functions as an appellate forum for pollution control board decisions under the direct supervision of the Central Pollution Control Board.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The NGT, established under the NGT Act, 2010, is a statutory adjudicatory body with powers equivalent to a civil court, guided by principles of sustainable development, polluter pays, and precautionary principle, and its orders are binding and appealable only in the Supreme Court.

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the NGT Act, 2010. It is a statutory adjudicatory body with powers of a civil court. It is guided by principles of sustainable development, the polluter pays principle, and the precautionary principle. Its orders are legally binding and can only be challenged before the Supreme Court.
(1) NGT is not a constitutional body under Article 323A (which deals with Administrative Tribunals).
(2) NGT's decisions are legally binding, not merely advisory.
(4) NGT is not established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, nor under CPCB supervision.

Q46. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the constitutional and legal framework dealing with atrocities against Scheduled Castes in India, especially in light of the Supreme Court's interpretation in Subhash Kashinath Mahajan v. State of Maharashtra (2018) and subsequent legislative response?

  1. (a) The Supreme Court in 2018 upheld the automatic arrest provisions under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, declaring that procedural safeguards like preliminary inquiry or prior approval were unnecessary, as they dilute the object of the Act.
  2. (b) The 2018 Supreme Court judgment introduced procedural safeguards such as preliminary inquiry and prior approval before arrest under the SC/ST Act, citing the need to balance the protection of the innocent and prevent misuse.
  3. (c) Parliament responded to the 2018 judgment by accepting the suggested procedural safeguards and incorporating them via the SC/ST (Amendment) Act, 2018 to ensure checks and balances in the arrest procedure.
  4. (d) Article 15(4) and 17 together provide the constitutional basis for punishing atrocities, making the SC/ST Act enforceable as a part of Fundamental Rights and not merely statutory protections.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The 2018 Supreme Court judgment introduced procedural safeguards such as preliminary inquiry and prior approval before arrest under the SC/ST Act, citing the need to balance the protection of the innocent and prevent misuse.

Option b is correct . In the Subhash Kashinath Mahajan case (2018), the Supreme Court directed that a preliminary inquiry be conducted before registering an FIR, and prior approval of the appointing authority be taken before arresting a public servant under the SC/ST Act. This was done to prevent misuse while balancing the rights of the innocent.
• Option 1 is wrong: The Court actually introduced safeguards, not upheld automatic arrest.
• Option 3 is wrong: Parliament responded by passing the SC/ST (Amendment) Act, 2018, which overturned the Supreme Court's safeguards and restored the original automatic arrest provisions.
• Option 4 is wrong: While Articles 15(4) and 17 are constitutional provisions, the SC/ST Act is a statutory protection, not a Fundamental Right per se.

Q47. Which of the following statements best describes the current legal and social status of LGBTQIA+ rights in India,
considering the landmark Supreme Court rulings and recent legislative efforts?

  1. (a) The Supreme Court in Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018) decriminalized consensual same-sex relations, but same-sex marriage and adoption rights remain unrecognized, with no comprehensive anti-discrimination law in place.
  2. (b) The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019, fully addresses all concerns raised by the LGBTQIA+ community, including self-identification of gender and protection from workplace discrimination.
  3. (c) The Indian Penal Code still criminalizes consensual homosexual acts under Section 377, despite international pressure and activism.
  4. (d) Same-sex marriage is legally recognized in India, and the government has passed comprehensive laws granting full inheritance and adoption rights to LGBTQIA+ couples.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The Supreme Court in Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018) decriminalized consensual same-sex relations, but same-sex marriage and adoption rights remain unrecognized, with no comprehensive anti-discrimination law in place.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – SC (2018) decriminalized same-sex relations; marriage/adoption rights unrecognized; no anti-discrimination law
The current legal status of LGBTQIA+ rights in India:
• Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018): The Supreme Court read down Section 377 of the IPC, decriminalizing consensual same-sex relations between adults.
• Same-sex marriage: NOT legally recognized. In 2023, the SC (Constitution Bench) declined to recognize same-sex marriage, leaving it to Parliament.
• Adoption rights: Same-sex couples do NOT have legal adoption rights in India.
• Anti-discrimination law: No comprehensive anti-discrimination law covering sexual orientation exists in India.
• Transgender Persons Act 2019: Provides some protections for transgender persons but does not address all LGBTQIA+ concerns.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2: The Transgender Act 2019 does NOT fully address all LGBTQIA+ concerns — it has been criticized by the community for many shortcomings.
Option 3: Section 377 was read down by the Supreme Court in 2018 — consensual same-sex relations are no longer criminalized.
Option 4: Same-sex marriage is NOT legally recognized in India.

Q48. In the landmark case R.C. Poudyal v. Union of India (1994), the Supreme Court of India dealt with which of the following key constitutional issues related to the integration of Sikkim into the Indian Union?

  1. (a) Whether Article 371F violates the principle of secularism by allowing special legal protections to the Buddhist monastic institutions of Sikkim.
  2. (b) Whether the reservation of a seat in the Sikkim Legislative Assembly exclusively for the Sangha (monastic community) violates the principles of universal adult franchise and equality under the Constitution.
  3. (c) Whether the President's power to notify Sikkim as a state under Article 2 was constitutionally valid without the need for a constitutional amendment under Article 368.
  4. (d) Whether the provisions of Article 371F, granting legislative supremacy to the Sikkim Assembly, are in violation of the doctrine of separation of powers.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Whether the reservation of a seat in the Sikkim Legislative Assembly exclusively for the Sangha (monastic community) violates the principles of universal adult franchise and equality under the Constitution.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Reservation of a seat for the Sangha in the Sikkim Legislative Assembly
In R.C. Poudyal v. Union of India (1994), the Supreme Court examined whether Article 371F, which provides special protections for Sikkim's integration into India, was constitutionally valid. A key issue was whether reserving a seat in the Sikkim Legislative Assembly exclusively for the Sangha (Buddhist monastic community) violated the constitutional principles of universal adult franchise and equality under Articles 14, 15, and 326 of the Constitution. The Court upheld the provision as a valid special arrangement for Sikkim's unique historical and social circumstances.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1: While secularism and Buddhist institutions were related topics, the core issue was about the reserved seat and adult franchise — not a general secularism challenge.
Option 3: The validity of the President's power under Article 2 was not the main focus of this case.
Option 4: Separation of powers in relation to Article 371F's legislative supremacy was not the central constitutional question addressed.

Q49. Which institution has issued guidelines to prevent arbitrary exercise of police powers, such as custodial torture or illegal detention?

  1. (a) National Human Rights Commission
  2. (b) Law Commission of India
  3. (c) Supreme Court of India
  4. (d) Central Bureau of Investigation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Supreme Court of India

The correct answer is (c) Supreme Court of India.
The Supreme Court of India has issued landmark guidelines to prevent arbitrary police powers. The most famous is the D.K. Basu vs. State of West Bengal (1997) judgment, where the Supreme Court laid down detailed guidelines on arrest procedures, detainee rights, and custodial responsibilities to prevent custodial torture and illegal detention.
(a) National Human Rights Commission: Can investigate human rights violations and make recommendations, but its guidelines are advisory; the binding guidelines on police powers come from the Supreme Court.
(b) Law Commission of India: An advisory body that recommends legal reforms; does not issue binding guidelines.
(d) Central Bureau of Investigation: An investigative agency; does not issue guidelines to prevent police powers.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 5 January 2026 Shift 2 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q50. The 'National Green Tribunal' (NGT) was set up in 2010 to handle cases related to?

  1. (a) The stock market
  2. (b) Family disputes
  3. (c) Environmental protection and forests
  4. (d) Consumer rights
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Environmental protection and forests

The correct answer is (c) Environmental protection and forests.
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 to provide a specialized forum for speedy disposal of cases relating to environmental protection, conservation of forests and other natural resources, enforcement of environmental laws, and compensation for damages caused to persons and property from environmental disasters.
(a) The stock market: SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) regulates the stock market; not the NGT.
(b) Family disputes: Family courts or civil courts handle family disputes; not the NGT.
(d) Consumer rights: Consumer forums/courts handle consumer rights cases; not the NGT.

Q51. Which constitutional provision allows Punjab, Haryana & Chandigarh to have a joint High Court?

  1. (a) Article 231
  2. (b) Article 232
  3. (c) Article 233
  4. (d) Article 235
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 231

The correct answer is Article 231 (Option 1).
Article 231 of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a common High Court for two or more states. Under this provision, the Punjab and Haryana High Court serves both the state of Punjab, the state of Haryana, and the Union Territory of Chandigarh — making it a joint High Court under Article 231.
Option 2 - Article 232: Article 232 was a transitional provision about existing High Courts; it is not the provision enabling joint High Courts.
Option 3 - Article 233: Article 233 deals with the appointment of district judges; it does not deal with joint High Courts.
Option 4 - Article 235: Article 235 deals with control over subordinate courts by High Courts; it is not related to establishing joint High Courts.

Q52. The power to issue the writs to enforce the fundamental rights is given by constitution to High court mentioned in which article?

  1. (a) Art-32
  2. (b) Art-125
  3. (c) Art-226
  4. (d) Art-20
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Art-226

The correct answer is Art-226 (Option 3).
Article 226 of the Indian Constitution empowers High Courts to issue writs (Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto) for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for other legal purposes.
Option 1 - Art-32: This is the 'Right to Constitutional Remedies' which empowers the Supreme Court (not High Courts) to issue writs for enforcing fundamental rights.
Option 2 - Art-125: This article deals with the salaries and service conditions of Supreme Court judges.
Option 4 - Art-20: This article provides protection against double jeopardy, ex post facto laws, and self-incrimination.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 19 December 2025 Shift 1 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q53. Which of the following amendment created the Tribunals under Articles 323A and 323B?

  1. (a) 42nd Amendment
  2. (b) 44th Amendment
  3. (c) 48th Amendment
  4. (d) 52nd Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 42nd Amendment

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 (often called the 'Mini Constitution' as it made sweeping changes) added Part XIV-A to the Constitution (Articles 323A and 323B), which provides for the establishment of Administrative Tribunals. Article 323A deals with Administrative Tribunals for Central and State government service matters, while Article 323B deals with Tribunals for other matters like taxation, industrial disputes, etc.
Option 2 is incorrect: The 44th Amendment Act (1978) mainly restored civil liberties curtailed during Emergency and changed property from a Fundamental Right to a legal right; it did not create the Tribunal articles.
Option 3 is incorrect: There is no significant 48th Amendment relevant to Tribunals.
Option 4 is incorrect: The 52nd Amendment Act (1985) added the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law); it did not deal with Tribunals.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 18 December 2025 Shift 2 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q54. In 2025, which body issued the calendar for organising National Lok Adalats ?

  1. (a) Law Commission of India
  2. (b) Bar Council of India
  3. (c) National Legal Services Authority
  4. (d) Department of Justice
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) National Legal Services Authority

The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) issued the calendar for organising National Lok Adalats in 2025. NALSA, constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, is the apex body for providing free legal services to eligible persons and for organising Lok Adalats . National Lok Adalats are held on a single day across the country simultaneously, on dates notified by NALSA.
Option 1 is incorrect: The Law Commission of India is an advisory body that recommends law reforms; it does not organise Lok Adalats .
Option 2 is incorrect: The Bar Council of India regulates the legal profession and conducts examinations for advocates; it does not organise Lok Adalats .
Option 4 is incorrect: The Department of Justice (under Ministry of Law and Justice) oversees judicial appointments and infrastructure; the Lok Adalat calendar is specifically issued by NALSA.
SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 – 11 December 2025 Shift 1 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q55. What is a quicker method for resolving disagreements between businesses?

  1. (a) Long court trials
  2. (b) Starting fights
  3. (c) Ignoring the problem
  4. (d) Alternative dispute resolution
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Alternative dispute resolution

Correct Answer: Alternative dispute resolution (Option 4)
Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) refers to methods such as arbitration, mediation, and conciliation used to resolve disputes outside formal court proceedings. ADR is faster, less expensive, and confidential compared to traditional litigation.
Long court trials are slow and expensive — the opposite of a quick solution.
Starting fights and Ignoring the problem are not legitimate legal mechanisms.

Q56. Who has the authority to appoint a Sessions Judge of one sessions division as an Additional Sessions Judge of another division?

  1. (a) District Magistrate
  2. (b) High Court
  3. (c) Supreme Court
  4. (d) State Government
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) High Court

Correct Answer: High Court
Under the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) / Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), the High Court has the power to appoint a Sessions Judge of one sessions division to act as an Additional Sessions Judge of another division. The judiciary's internal transfers and appointments at the sessions level are controlled by the respective High Courts.
Option 1 (District Magistrate): Incorrect. DM is an executive officer with no such judicial appointment power.
Option 3 (Supreme Court): Incorrect. The SC oversees High Courts, not direct Sessions Judge appointments.
Option 4 (State Government): Incorrect. The State Government appoints Sessions Judges on the recommendation of the High Court, but transfer within divisions is the High Court's domain.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 7 December 2025 Shift 2 · Judicial review and judicial activism

Q57. Who among the following is the final interpreter of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) The President of India
  2. (b) The Parliament
  3. (c) The Supreme Court of India
  4. (d) The Prime Minister
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The Supreme Court of India

The Supreme Court of India is the final interpreter of the Indian Constitution. It has the ultimate authority to decide constitutional disputes, review laws, and protect the fundamental rights of citizens. Neither the President nor the Parliament can overrule its constitutional interpretation.

Q58. Which of the following High Courts has jurisdiction over more than one state?

  1. (a) Kerala High Court
  2. (b) Guwahati High Court
  3. (c) Patna High Court
  4. (d) Delhi High Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Guwahati High Court

The correct answer is option 2. The Guwahati High Court , also known as the High Court of Assam, initially had jurisdiction over all the seven northeastern states. Today, it still serves as the common High Court for several states. The principal seat is in Guwahati (Assam), while it has permanent benches in Nagaland (Kohima), Mizoram (Aizawl), and Arunachal Pradesh (Itanagar) . This makes it unique among Indian High Courts, as most others have jurisdiction over only one state or union territory.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 28 November 2025 Shift 2 · Supreme Court - composition and appointment

Q59. Article 126 of the Indian Constitution mentions _____.

  1. (a) Appointment of ad hoc Judges
  2. (b) Appointment of acting Chief Justice of India
  3. (c) Supreme Court to be a court of record
  4. (d) Seat of Supreme Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Appointment of acting Chief Justice of India

Article 126 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Appointment of an acting Chief Justice of India. When the office of the Chief Justice of India is vacant, or when the Chief Justice is unable to perform duties, the President of India can appoint one of the other Judges of the Supreme Court to perform the duties.
Article 127 deals with appointment of ad hoc Judges.
Article 129 declares the Supreme Court to be a court of record.
Article 130 deals with the Seat of the Supreme Court.

Q60. Which article of the Indian constitution is related with power of High Courts to issue certain writs?

  1. (a) Article 32
  2. (b) Article 227
  3. (c) Article 226
  4. (d) Article 131
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 226

Article 226 of the Indian Constitution empowers the High Courts to issue writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari for enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose.
Article 32 gives the Supreme Court (not High Courts) the power to issue writs; Article 227 deals with superintendence of High Courts over subordinate courts; Article 131 deals with original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Hence, Article 226 is correct.

Q61. Which article of the Indian Constitution mentions that "There shall be a High Court for each State"?

  1. (a) Article 124
  2. (b) Article 214
  3. (c) Article 226
  4. (d) Article 32
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 214

Article 214 of the Indian Constitution states: 'There shall be a High Court for each State.' This article establishes the High Court as the apex court for each state in India.
Article 124: Establishment and constitution of the Supreme Court. Article 226: Power of High Courts to issue writs. Article 32: Right to Constitutional Remedies (a Fundamental Right to approach the Supreme Court). The candidate incorrectly selected Article 124.

Q62. As per State of the Judiciary Report 2023, women constitute ________ of the working strength of the district judiciary.

  1. (a) 29.3%
  2. (b) 36.3%
  3. (c) 26.3%
  4. (d) 46.3%
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 36.3%

According to the State of the Judiciary Report 2023, women constitute 36.3% of the working strength of the district judiciary in India. This figure reflects the increasing representation of women in the judicial system at the district level. The other percentages — 29.3%, 26.3%, and 46.3% — do not correspond to the figure cited in this report.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 19 September 2025 Shift 1 · Supreme Court - jurisdiction (original, appellate, advisory)

Q63. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 131 provides exclusive original jurisdiction to High Courts in federal disputes.
2. The Supreme Court can adjudicate disputes between States under Article 131.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 2

Article 131 grants exclusive ORIGINAL jurisdiction to the Supreme Court (not High Courts) in disputes between Centre and States or between States — Statement 1 is wrong.
Under Article 131, the Supreme Court adjudicates disputes between States — Statement 2 is correct.
Henceonly Statement 2is correct.

Q64. Arrange the following judicial events chronologically:
1. Berubari Union case
2. Kesavananda Bharati case
3. S.R. Bommai case

  1. (a) 1-2-3
  2. (b) 3-2-1
  3. (c) 2-1-3
  4. (d) 3-1-2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1-2-3

Berubari Union case → 1960.
Kesavananda Bharati case → 1973.
S.R. Bommai case → 1994.
Chronological order: 1-2-3.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 16 September 2025 Shift 2 · Supreme Court - jurisdiction (original, appellate, advisory)

Q65. Which of the following disputes falls under the Supreme Court's exclusive original jurisdiction as per Article 131 of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Inter-State water disputes
  2. (b) Election disputes of MPs and MLAs
  3. (c) Disputes between Centre and one or more States
  4. (d) Appeals against High Court decisions
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Disputes between Centre and one or more States

• Indian Constitution - Article 131:
• Article 131 gives the Supreme Court EXCLUSIVE ORIGINAL jurisdiction in disputes:
• Between the Government of India and one or more States
• Between the Government of India and any State(s) on one side and States on the other
• Between two or more States
• Inter-State water disputes fall under Article 262 (Water Disputes Tribunals)
• Election disputes: High Court has original jurisdiction under Article 329
• Answer: Disputes between Centre and one or more States
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 16 September 2025 Shift 3 · Supreme Court - jurisdiction (original, appellate, advisory)

Q66. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 131A gave High Courts exclusive power to decide on central laws' validity.
2. It was repealed by the 43rd Constitutional Amendment.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 2

Statement 1 is incorrect — Article 131A (inserted by the 42nd Amendment) gave the Supreme Court exclusive jurisdiction (not High Courts) over questions concerning the constitutional validity of Central laws.
Statement 2 is correct — Article 131A was repealed by the 43rd Constitutional Amendment in 1977.
Hence only Statement 2 is correct.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 14 September 2025 Shift 1 · Supreme Court - jurisdiction (original, appellate, advisory)

Q67. Consider the following statements:
1. Supreme Court can transfer cases from one High Court to another.
2. Article 139A was introduced by the 42nd Amendment.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Statement 1: Under Article 139A(2), the Supreme Court may transfer cases pending in one High Court to another High Court when expedient for the ends of justice. Correct.
Statement 2: Article 139A was inserted into the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. Correct.
Hence both statements are correct.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 9 September 2025 Shift 1 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q68. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution specifically deal with the establishment of Tribunals for administrative and other matters?

  1. (a) Articles 32 and 226
  2. (b) Articles 14 and 15
  3. (c) Articles 323A and 323B
  4. (d) Articles 356C and 360D
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Articles 323A and 323B

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 9 September 2025 Shift 2 · Supreme Court - jurisdiction (original, appellate, advisory)

Q69. Which constitutional body is empowered to adjudicate legal disputes between the Centre and one or more states in India?

  1. (a) Finance Commission
  2. (b) Inter-State Council
  3. (c) Supreme Court of India
  4. (d) Election Commission
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Supreme Court of India

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 9 September 2025 Shift 2 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q70. Which legal authority gives statutory status to Lok Adalats in India?

  1. (a) The Arbitration and Conciliation Act
  2. (b) The Civil Procedure Code
  3. (c) The Indian Penal Code
  4. (d) The Legal Services Authorities Act
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The Legal Services Authorities Act

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 8 September 2025 Shift 1 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q71. Which of the following tribunals deals specifically with service-related matters of public servants?

  1. (a) National Green Tribunal
  2. (b) Central Administrative Tribunal
  3. (c) Income Tax Appellate Tribunal
  4. (d) Armed Forces Tribunal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Central Administrative Tribunal

Q72. How did Public Interest Litigation (PIL) emerge in India as a tool of judicial activism?

  1. (a) It began in 1979 when the Supreme Court allowed individuals to file cases for public interest.
  2. (b) It was introduced by the Lok Adalat system in 2005.
  3. (c) It originated under the 42ⁿᵈ Constitutional Amendment (1976).
  4. (d) It was first used during the Emergency (1975-77).
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It began in 1979 when the Supreme Court allowed individuals to file cases for public interest.

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 4 September 2025 Shift 1 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q73. Who organises Lok Adalats in India?

  1. (a) Law Commission of India
  2. (b) Bar Council of India
  3. (c) Advocate General of State
  4. (d) National and State Legal Services Authorities
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) National and State Legal Services Authorities

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 4 September 2025 Shift 2 · Judicial review and judicial activism

Q74. What is the primary purpose of Judicial Review in India?

  1. (a) To amend the Constitution
  2. (b) To elect judges
  3. (c) To examine the constitutionality of laws
  4. (d) To appoint ministers
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To examine the constitutionality of laws

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 4 September 2025 Shift 3 · Supreme Court - composition and appointment

Q75. According to Article 130 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such other place or places as may be appointed by:

  1. (a) the Parliament, through legislation
  2. (b) the Chief Justice of India, with the approval of the President
  3. (c) the President, in consultation with the Prime Minister
  4. (d) the Union Cabinet, with advice from the Law Ministry
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) the Chief Justice of India, with the approval of the President

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 3 September 2025 Shift 1 · Supreme Court - jurisdiction (original, appellate, advisory)

Q76. Which of the following is true about the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India?

  1. (a) It deals with criminal appeals only
  2. (b) It settles disputes between the Union and states
  3. (c) It grants pardons to criminals
  4. (d) It reviews the decisions of tribunals
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It settles disputes between the Union and states

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 3 September 2025 Shift 2 · Judicial review and judicial activism

Q77. Which of the following courts is known as the 'Guardian of the Constitution' in India?

  1. (a) Supreme Court
  2. (b) Lok Adalat
  3. (c) District Court
  4. (d) High Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Supreme Court

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 2 September 2025 Shift 2 · Judicial review and judicial activism

Q78. Which of the following best reflects Judicial Activism?

  1. (a) Voluntary interference by the judiciary in public interest
  2. (b) Only enforcing existing laws strictly
  3. (c) Passive interpretation of laws
  4. (d) Declaring elections null and void
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Voluntary interference by the judiciary in public interest

Q79. Who among the following is the appointing authority of District Judges in India?

  1. (a) Prime Minister
  2. (b) President of India
  3. (c) Chief Justice of India
  4. (d) Governor of the state
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Governor of the state

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 1 September 2025 Shift 1 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q80. Which of the following cases CANNOT be taken up by a Lok Adalat?

  1. (a) Motor accident claims
  2. (b) Non-compoundable criminal offences
  3. (c) Land acquisition cases
  4. (d) Divorce disputes under mutual consent
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Non-compoundable criminal offences

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 1 September 2025 Shift 2 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q81. Which of the following statements is correct about Article 323B of the Constitution?

  1. (a) It allows the creation of tribunals only for the armed forces.
  2. (b) It permits tribunals for matters like taxation, land reforms, and labour disputes.
  3. (c) It restricts tribunals to environmental cases only.
  4. (d) It empowers states to establish tribunals for local governance.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It permits tribunals for matters like taxation, land reforms, and labour disputes.

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 29 August 2025 Shift 2 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q82. Lok Adalats in India have statutory status under which of the following enactments?

  1. (a) The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
  2. (b) The Civil Procedure Code, 1908
  3. (c) The Indian Penal Code, 1860
  4. (d) The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987

Q83. Before becoming the Chief Justice of India, Justice BR Gavai served in which court?

  1. (a) Bombay High Court
  2. (b) Madras High Court
  3. (c) Allahabad High Court
  4. (d) Delhi High Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Bombay High Court

Q84. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India is primarily associated with which of the following?

  1. (a) Police investigations
  2. (b) Judicial review
  3. (c) Judicial activism
  4. (d) Election Commission
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Judicial activism

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 28 August 2025 Shift 1 · Judicial review and judicial activism

Q85. Which of the following options correctly describes the scope of judicial review under the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) Both, Supreme Court and High Courts can strike down unconstitutional laws.
  2. (b) Judicial review is explicitly mentioned in the Constitution (Article 13).
  3. (c) Courts can review any law only after approval by the Parliament.
  4. (d) Only the Supreme Court can declare laws unconstitutional.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both, Supreme Court and High Courts can strike down unconstitutional laws.

Q86. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court uphold the Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right in 2017?

  1. (a) Puttaswamy vs. Union of India
  2. (b) Indira Sawhney vs. Union of India
  3. (c) Navtej Singh Johar vs. Union of India
  4. (d) Shreya Singhal vs. Union of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Puttaswamy vs. Union of India

Q87. Who has the authority to transfer judges of the High Courts in India?

  1. (a) Chief Justice of India acting on behalf of the Supreme Court
  2. (b) Parliament of India
  3. (c) Chief Minister of the State
  4. (d) President of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) President of India

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 21 August 2025 Shift 1 · Supreme Court - composition and appointment

Q88. Which of the following constitutional bodies was created to recommend appointments and transfers of judges in India?

  1. (a) High Court Tribunal
  2. (b) Central Judicial Commission
  3. (c) National Judicial Appointments Commission
  4. (d) Supreme Council of Judges
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) National Judicial Appointments Commission

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 21 August 2025 Shift 2 · Supreme Court - jurisdiction (original, appellate, advisory)

Q89. Which of the following falls under the Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction, according to the Constitution of India (Article 131)?

  1. (a) Enforcement of fundamental rights of individuals
  2. (b) Appeals from criminal cases in High Courts
  3. (c) Disputes between States or between a State and the Union
  4. (d) Election petitions against sitting Members of Parliaments
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Disputes between States or between a State and the Union

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 20 August 2025 Shift 3 · Judicial review and judicial activism

Q90. In which case did the SC hold that judicial review is a basic feature of the Constitution?

  1. (a) Shankari Prasad case
  2. (b) Golaknath case
  3. (c) Shah Bano Case
  4. (d) Kesavananda Bharati case
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Kesavananda Bharati case

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 19 August 2025 Shift 1 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q91. The Supreme Court struck down certain provisions of the Tribunals (Rationalisation and Conditions of Service) Ordinance, 2021. Which provision did the Court declare invalid?

  1. (a) The rule that tribunal decisions are not appealable to any court
  2. (b) Establishment of administrative tribunals for service matters (which is in the Constitution)
  3. (c) Requirement that all tribunal members be retired judges of High Courts
  4. (d) A fixed four-year tenure limit for tribunal members
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A fixed four-year tenure limit for tribunal members

Q92. Which of the following is a primary function of the District Courts in India?

  1. (a) Hearing appeals from lower courts within the district
  2. (b) Advising the President of India
  3. (c) Settling disputes between Union and State governments
  4. (d) Issuing writs to enforce fundamental rights (without High Court)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Hearing appeals from lower courts within the district

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 19 August 2025 Shift 3 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q93. What has the Supreme Court of India ruled regarding the independence of tribunals?

  1. (a) Tribunals, being quasi-judicial bodies, must be independent of the executive, just like regular courts.
  2. (b) Tribunals can be managed by the subject-matter ministry to improve efficiency.
  3. (c) Tribunals must be headed by sitting High Court judges to ensure credibility.
  4. (d) Tribunals are executive bodies and need not be independent of the executive.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tribunals, being quasi-judicial bodies, must be independent of the executive, just like regular courts.

Q94. Which Article empowers the High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of Legal and Fundamental Rights?

  1. (a) Article 124
  2. (b) Article 324
  3. (c) Article 136
  4. (d) Article 226
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 226

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 14 August 2025 Shift 1 · Judicial review and judicial activism

Q95. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution is commonly cited as forming the constitutional basis for Judicial Review?

  1. (a) Article 19
  2. (b) Article 370
  3. (c) Article 13
  4. (d) Article 30
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 13

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 14 August 2025 Shift 3 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q96. Which of the following Acts provides legal status to Lok Adalats in India?

  1. (a) Civil Procedure Code, 1908
  2. (b) Indian Penal Code, 1860
  3. (c) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
  4. (d) Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987

Q97. Which of the following correctly describes a key function of Subordinate Courts in India?

  1. (a) Resolve civil and criminal disputes at the district level
  2. (b) Draft laws for the State
  3. (c) Interpret international treaties
  4. (d) Review decisions of High Courts
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Resolve civil and criminal disputes at the district level

Q98. The National eCourts Project, launched by the Department of Justice, is primarily aimed at:

  1. (a) digitising and upgrading district and subordinate courts
  2. (b) creating new Central Administrative Tribunals
  3. (c) building new court complexes in rural areas
  4. (d) establishing a nationwide telecom system for police
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) digitising and upgrading district and subordinate courts

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 12 August 2025 Shift 1 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q99. Article 323B of the Constitution of India (added by the 42nd Amendment) empowers the Parliament to establish tribunals for adjudication of matters related to certain subjects. Which of the following matters is specifically covered under Article 323B?

  1. (a) Appointment of Supreme Court judges
  2. (b) Only industrial disputes between employers and workers
  3. (c) Recruitment and service conditions of public servants (civil services)
  4. (d) Matters such as taxation, foreign exchange, land reforms, etc., which can be assigned to tribunals by legislation
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Matters such as taxation, foreign exchange, land reforms, etc., which can be assigned to tribunals by legislation

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 12 August 2025 Shift 2 · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q100. Which of the following types of cases is NOT generally taken up by Lok Adalats in India?

  1. (a) Motor accident claims
  2. (b) Utility bill disputes
  3. (c) Divorce settlements
  4. (d) Murder trials
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Murder trials

12

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