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RRB Group D 2025-26 19 August 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 44 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Group D 2025-26 on 19 August 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Economics, Static GK, Chemistry, Physics, Biology.

📚 44 questions🗓️ 19 August 2026⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Current Affairs (18) · Economics (1) · Static GK (1) · Chemistry (8) · Physics (9) · Biology (5) · Geography (2)

Current Affairs (18)

Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Days and themes - current year

Q1. Which of the following was the theme of World Teachers' Day celebrated on 5 October 2025?

  1. (a) Valuing teacher voices: Towards a new social contract for education
  2. (b) The transformation of education begins with teachers
  3. (c) Inspiring the Next Generation of Learners
  4. (d) Recasting teaching as a collaborative profession
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Recasting teaching as a collaborative profession

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Recasting teaching as a collaborative profession
Explanation:
World Teachers' Day, observed every year on 5 October by UNESCO, ILO, UNICEF and Education International, had the 2025 theme"Recasting teaching as a collaborative profession", focusing on collaboration among teachers, students and stakeholders.
Important Facts:
• World Teachers' Day 2025 marked the anniversary of the 1966 ILO/UNESCO Recommendation concerning the Status of Teachers.
• The theme emphasised teamwork and shared responsibility for improving education quality.
• Confirmed via UNESCO and Teacher Task Force official announcements.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National elections and census updates

Q2. Which political party secured the highest number of seats in the West Bengal Assembly election in 2026?

  1. (a) Indian National Congress
  2. (b) All India Trinamool Congress
  3. (c) Bharatiya Janata Party
  4. (d) Communist Party of India (Marxist)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bharatiya Janata Party

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Bharatiya Janata Party
Explanation:
In the 2026 West Bengal Legislative Assembly election, theBharatiya Janata Party (BJP)emerged with the highest number of seats (206), ending the All India Trinamool Congress's 15-year rule in the state.
Important Facts:
• BJP's win marked a major shift in West Bengal's political landscape after TMC's long tenure since 2011.
• TMC finished as the principal opposition party in the new Assembly.
• Confirmed via multiple 2026 election result reports (Republic World, DD News, MSN).
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q3. The Cell Broadcast System (CBS), launched in May 2026 to strengthen India's emergency communication system, was developed by which organisation?

  1. (a) Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT)
  2. (b) National Informatics Centre (NIC)
  3. (c) Telecommunications Consultants India Limited (TCIL)
  4. (d) Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT)

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT)
Explanation:
The indigenously developedCell Broadcast System (CBS)was launched in May 2026 by Union Communications Minister Jyotiraditya Scindia, developed byC-DOTunder the guidance of Union Home Minister Amit Shah, to strengthen India's emergency alert and disaster communication system.
Important Facts:
• CBS enables mass, location-specific emergency alerts to mobile phones without needing app downloads.
• It supports India's disaster management and public safety communication framework.
• Confirmed via PIB press release (May 2026).
International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q4. Where was the 14th Ministerial Conference (MC14) of the World Trade Organization hosted in March 2026?

  1. (a) Abu Dhabi, UAE
  2. (b) Yaoundé, Cameroon
  3. (c) Nairobi, Kenya
  4. (d) Addis Ababa, Ethiopia
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Yaoundé, Cameroon

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Yaoundé, Cameroon
Explanation:
The 14th Ministerial Conference (MC14) of the World Trade Organization was held inYaoundé, Cameroon, from 26–29 March 2026.
Important Facts:
• This was the first WTO Ministerial Conference hosted in Sub-Saharan Africa.
• Confirmed via official WTO and FAO event pages.
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q5. In May 2026, the TARA glide weapon system was tested from which aircraft platform of the Indian Air Force?

  1. (a) Tejas light aircraft
  2. (b) Jaguar strike aircraft
  3. (c) Rafale combat aircraft
  4. (d) Mirage-2000 fighter aircraft
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Jaguar strike aircraft

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Jaguar strike aircraft
Explanation:
In May 2026, DRDO's indigenousTARA glide weapon systemunderwent its maiden flight trial from an IAFJaguarstrike aircraft off the Odisha coast, demonstrating sub-3 metre accuracy.
Important Facts:
• TARA achieved successful first flight trial after about 3 years of development.
• The trial came amid separate speculation about an Agni-6 missile test.
• Confirmed via Janes, Domain-b, and SSBCrack defence reports.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q6. At the Asian Indoor Athletics Championships 2026 held in Tianjin, China, which Indian athlete won the gold medal in the men's heptathlon by setting a new national indoor record?

  1. (a) Jeswin Aldrin
  2. (b) Avinash Sable
  3. (c) Tejaswin Shankar
  4. (d) Eldhose Paul
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tejaswin Shankar

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Tejaswin Shankar
Explanation:
At the Asian Indoor Athletics Championships 2026 held in Tianjin, China,Tejaswin Shankarwon the gold medal in the men's heptathlon, breaking the national indoor record.
Important Facts:
• India won a total of 5 medals at the event, including another national record by Pooja Singh.
• Confirmed via Olympics.com and World Athletics reports.
Sports - Current · Olympics, Asian Games and Commonwealth Games - current

Q7. Which Alpine skier won three gold medals (Downhill, Super-G, and Team Combined) at the Milano Cortina 2026 Winter Olympics?

  1. (a) Lucas Pinheiro Braathen
  2. (b) Marco Odermatt
  3. (c) Mikaela Shiffrin
  4. (d) Franjo von Allmen
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Franjo von Allmen

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Franjo von Allmen
Explanation:
Swiss Alpine skierFranjo von Allmenwon three gold medals — in Downhill, Super-G, and Team Combined — at the Milano Cortina 2026 Winter Olympics.
Important Facts:
• His third gold came in the men's Super-G on 11 February 2026.
• His triple-gold feat earned him a Forbes 30 Under 30 nomination.
• Confirmed via Olympics.com, CBC Sports, and ESPN reports.

Q8. Which Indian Constitution Amendment Bill introduced in Lok Sabha in April 2026 reverts to the principle of each state having seats in proportion to its population?

  1. (a) The Constitution (141st Amendment bill)
  2. (b) The Constitution (121st Amendment bill)
  3. (c) The Constitution (111th Amendment bill)
  4. (d) The Constitution (131st Amendment bill)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The Constitution (131st Amendment bill)

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – The Constitution (131st Amendment bill)
Explanation:
TheConstitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026, introduced in Lok Sabha in April 2026 along with the Delimitation Bill, 2026, seeks to revert to the principle of allocating Lok Sabha seats to states in proportion to their population.
Important Facts:
• It was introduced alongside the Delimitation Bill, 2026 and the Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026.
• Union Home Minister Amit Shah replied to the Lok Sabha discussion on these bills.
• Confirmed via PRS India and PIB records.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q9. Which of the following is a service-oriented digital platform launched by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in May 2026 during the National Summit on Innovation and Inclusivity to maintain longitudinal digital health records of women across the continuum of maternal and child healthcare?

  1. (a) Sakhi
  2. (b) JANANI
  3. (c) LaQshya
  4. (d) SUMAN
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) JANANI

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – JANANI
Explanation:
The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched theJANANIdigital platform in May 2026 during the National Summit on Innovation and Inclusivity, to maintain longitudinal digital health records of women across maternal and child healthcare.
Important Facts:
• JANANI aims to strengthen tracking and continuity of care for mothers and children.
• It was launched around Mother's Day 2026.
• Confirmed via ANI News, Business Standard, and Business Today reports.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q10. Which of the following mobile applications was launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment during the Chintan Shivir held in Chandigarh from 24–26 April 2026 to support digital survey-based rehabilitation monitoring and field-level implementation?

  1. (a) SMILE–Beggary Survey Mobile Application
  2. (b) PM-DAKSH Mobile Application
  3. (c) Sugamya Bharat Mobile Application
  4. (d) SITHA Mobile Application
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) SMILE–Beggary Survey Mobile Application

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – SMILE–Beggary Survey Mobile Application
Explanation:
During the 'Chintan Shivir' held in Chandigarh from 24–26 April 2026, the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment launched theSMILE–Beggary Survey Mobile Applicationto support digital survey-based rehabilitation monitoring and field-level implementation.
Important Facts:
• The app strengthens real-time data collection for beggary rehabilitation efforts under the SMILE scheme.
• The Chintan Shivir also saw the launch of NMBA 2.0 for drug de-addiction efforts.
• Confirmed via OpenGov Asia, Telangana Today, and GK247 reports.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q11. What is the name of the scheme launched by the Government of India in June 2026 to develop 100 industrial parks with a ₹33,660 crore outlay?

  1. (a) BHAVYA
  2. (b) NAVYA
  3. (c) BHANDAN
  4. (d) BHARATAVYA
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) BHAVYA

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – BHAVYA
Explanation:
The Government of India approved theBHAVYAscheme in 2026 to develop 100 plug-and-play industrial parks with an outlay of ₹33,660 crore.
Important Facts:
• BHAVYA is administered under DPIIT (Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade).
• It aims to boost manufacturing infrastructure across India.
• Confirmed via The Statesman, Foxmandal, and DD News reports.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q12. The AI platform 'SARAL AI', reported in April 2026, is being developed by the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) for which of the following purposes?

  1. (a) To establish a centralized repository for secure storage and commercialization of patents generated through publicly funded research.
  2. (b) To create an AI-driven platform for allocating research grants and monitoring institutional performance across universities.
  3. (c) To enable AI-assisted drafting and filing of intellectual property applications for researchers.
  4. (d) To convert complex research publications and patents into simple, multilingual content for wider public dissemination.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To convert complex research publications and patents into simple, multilingual content for wider public dissemination.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – To convert complex research publications and patents into simple, multilingual content for wider public dissemination.
Explanation:
SARAL AI, developed by the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), converts complex research papers and patents into simplified, multilingual content to make science more accessible to the general public.
Important Facts:
• It was reported/discussed around April 2026, including at a TIFR scientific talk event.
• Union Minister Jitendra Singh described it as converting research into simplified content.
• Confirmed via ANRF-related reports (Construction World, iasgyan, adda247, Akashvani).
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q13. Which international agreement on carbon markets was activated between India and the Republic of Korea in April 2026?

  1. (a) Kyoto Protocol Flexibility Mechanisms
  2. (b) Article 6.2 of the Paris Agreement
  3. (c) Green Climate Fund (GCF) Protocol
  4. (d) Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 6.2 of the Paris Agreement

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Article 6.2 of the Paris Agreement
Explanation:
India and South Korea signed a landmark pact underArticle 6.2 of the Paris Agreementin April 2026 to launch a cross-border carbon market/carbon credit cooperation mechanism.
Important Facts:
• Article 6.2 allows bilateral cooperative approaches for internationally transferred mitigation outcomes (ITMOs).
• This is among the first such bilateral carbon market agreements activated by India.
• Confirmed via IANS, Free Press Journal, and Carbon Pulse reports.
Economy, Banking and Business · Business and corporate news

Q14. Which organization has launched the 'Krishi Sakhi Initiative' in March 2026 to empower women farmers and promote inclusive growth?

  1. (a) United India Insurance Company Limited
  2. (b) Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India
  3. (c) Agriculture Insurance Company of India Limited (AIC)
  4. (d) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Agriculture Insurance Company of India Limited (AIC)

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Agriculture Insurance Company of India Limited (AIC)
Explanation:
TheAgriculture Insurance Company of India Limited (AIC)launched the 'Krishi Sakhi Initiative' in March 2026 to empower women farmers and promote inclusive agricultural growth, in line with the International Year of the Woman Farmer 2026.
Important Facts:
• The initiative aims to raise crop insurance awareness among women farmers.
• It was launched around mid-March 2026.
• Confirmed via PIB press release and Rural Voice, TaxTMI reports.
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q15. During PM Modi's visit to Rome in May 2026, which spiritual leader informed him that Sanatana Dharma Samgha was recognized as an official religion by the Italian Parliament?

  1. (a) Mata Amritanandamayi
  2. (b) Swami Vivekananda
  3. (c) Sadhguru Jaggi Vasudev
  4. (d) Swamini Shuddhananda Ghiri
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Swamini Shuddhananda Ghiri

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Swamini Shuddhananda Ghiri
Explanation:
During PM Modi's visit to Rome in May 2026, spiritual leaderSwamini Shuddhananda Ghiriof the Sanatana Dharma Samgha informed him that the Sanatana Dharma Samgha had been recognised as an official religion by the Italian Parliament.
Important Facts:
• This recognition marked a historic step for Hindu religious recognition in Italy.
• PM Modi's Rome visit was part of a broader multi-nation tour, alongside meetings with Italian PM Giorgia Meloni.
• Confirmed via shabariseva.com report quoting the spiritual leader directly.
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q16. Following confirmed tiger sightings after years of declining numbers, which state regained recognition for having a tiger presence in India’s 2026 tiger estimation process?

  1. (a) Uttar Pradesh
  2. (b) Odisha
  3. (c) Gujarat
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gujarat

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Gujarat
Explanation:
After confirmed tiger sightings,Gujaratregained recognition as a tiger-presence state in India's 2026 tiger estimation process, following NTCA confirmation of a resident tiger in the Ratanmahal area — the state's first such recognition in about 33 years.
Important Facts:
• Gujarat had lost its tiger-bearing status decades ago before this reinstatement.
• The recognition followed camera-trap confirmation by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).
• Confirmed via Drishti IAS, DeshGujarat, and Indian Masterminds reports.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q17. Which of the following states became the overall champion at the Khelo India Beach Games 2026, held in the Union Territory of Diu, by winning the most bronze medals to break a three-way tie?

  1. (a) Tamil Nadu
  2. (b) Madhya Pradesh
  3. (c) Manipur
  4. (d) Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Karnataka

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Karnataka
Explanation:
At the Khelo India Beach Games 2026, held in Diu,Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Manipur were tied on 3 gold and 2 silver medals each; Karnataka broke the three-way tie by winning the most bronze medals (6, versus 3 for Tamil Nadu and 2 for Manipur) to become overall champion.
Important Facts:
• Tamil Nadu finished second and Manipur third in the overall standings.
• This was one of the closest overall title races in Khelo India Games history.
• Confirmed via Tribune India, ANI News, and Olympics.com medal tally reports.
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q18. At the 16th India–EU Summit held in January 2026, the conclusion of which agreement was jointly announced by the Prime Minister of India and the President of the European Commission?

  1. (a) India–European Union Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement
  2. (b) India–European Union Investment Protection Agreement
  3. (c) India–European Union Digital Partnership Agreement
  4. (d) India–European Union Free Trade Agreement (India–EU FTA)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) India–European Union Free Trade Agreement (India–EU FTA)

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – India–European Union Free Trade Agreement (India–EU FTA)
Explanation:
At the 16th India–EU Summit held in January 2026, the Prime Minister of India and the President of the European Commission jointly announced the conclusion of theIndia–EU Free Trade Agreement (FTA).
Important Facts:
• The summit also covered strategic partnership areas including trade and defence.
• It was described as a historic outcome by Union Minister Piyush Goyal.
• Confirmed via European Commission press release and DD News reports.

Economics (1)

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q19. According to the Union Budget 2026–27, the newly announced Khelo India Mission aims to transform India's sports sector over the next ______.

  1. (a) 10 years
  2. (b) 20 years
  3. (c) 5 years
  4. (d) 15 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 10 years

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – 10 years
Explanation:
In the Union Budget 2026–27, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced theKhelo India Missionto transform India's sports sector over the next decade, i.e.,10 years.
Important Facts:
• The Budget also earmarked ₹500 crore for the promotion of sports goods manufacturing.
• The mission aims to build training infrastructure and develop coaches over the long term.
• Confirmed via PIB press release and multiple budget news reports.

Static GK (1)

Important Days and Themes · National days

Q20. When was GST Day 2026 celebrated in Hyderabad to mark nine years of implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST)?

  1. (a) 1 July 2026
  2. (b) 22 January 2026
  3. (c) 2 March 2026
  4. (d) 15 August 2026
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1 July 2026

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – 1 July 2026
Explanation:
GST Day 2026 was celebrated on1 July 2026in Hyderabad, marking nine years since the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax in India (rolled out on 1 July 2017).
Important Facts:
• GST Day is observed annually on 1 July across India.
• The Hyderabad event highlighted GST's transformative role in nation building.
• Confirmed via Telangana Today, BankExamsToday, and GST Chennai official notices.

Chemistry (8)

Q21. Which statement best describes the result when a sodium atom in the gaseous state loses one electron?

  1. (a) The atom becomes a sodium ion with a positive charge.
  2. (b) The atom becomes a sodium ion with a negative charge.
  3. (c) The atom is converted into a neutron.
  4. (d) The atom remains a neutral sodium atom.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The atom becomes a sodium ion with a positive charge.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – The atom becomes a sodium ion with a positive charge.
Explanation:
A neutral sodium atom (Na) has equal numbers of protons and electrons. When it loses one electron, the number of protons (11) exceeds the number of electrons (10), giving the resulting species a net+1 charge. This is the sodium cation, Na⁺.
Important Facts:
• Losing electrons → cation (positive charge); gaining electrons → anion (negative charge).
• Na → Na⁺ + e⁻ is the ionization of sodium.
• Protons never change in a simple electron loss/gain, so the atom is not converted into a different element or a neutron.
Acids, Bases and Salts · Common salts - preparation and uses (baking soda, washing soda, bleaching powder, plaster of Paris)

Q22. Which of the following is a product formed at the cathode during the electrolysis of brine?

  1. (a) Sodium metal
  2. (b) Hydrogen gas
  3. (c) Chlorine gas
  4. (d) Oxygen gas
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Hydrogen gas

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Hydrogen gas
Explanation:
During electrolysis of brine (concentrated aqueous NaCl solution), at thecathode, water molecules are preferentially reduced (since Na⁺ is not easily reduced in aqueous solution), releasinghydrogen gas (H₂)and leaving OH⁻ ions behind (forming NaOH in solution). At theanode, Cl⁻ ions are oxidized to releasechlorine gas (Cl₂).
Important Facts:
• Chlor-alkali process: 2NaCl + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂ (cathode) + Cl₂ (anode).
• Products: H₂ gas, Cl₂ gas, and NaOH solution — all industrially important.
Environmental Chemistry · Ozone layer and its depletion

Q23. The primary harmful effect of UV radiation on humans, if not blocked by the ozone layer, is:

  1. (a) hypertension
  2. (b) asthma
  3. (c) anaemia
  4. (d) skin cancer
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) skin cancer

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Skin cancer
Explanation:
The ozone layer absorbs most of the Sun's harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation. If it is depleted, increased UV exposure reaching the Earth's surface can damage skin cell DNA, significantly raising the risk ofskin cancer, along with cataracts and other skin damage.
Important Facts:
• UV radiation is classified as UV-A, UV-B, and UV-C; UV-B is most linked to skin cancer.
• Ozone layer depletion is caused mainly by CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons).
Chemical Reactions and Equations · Oxidation, reduction and redox reactions

Q24. In the reaction MnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + 2H₂O + Cl₂, which substance is oxidized?

  1. (a) HCl
  2. (b) MnCl₂
  3. (c) H₂O
  4. (d) MnO₂
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) HCl

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – HCl
Explanation:
In MnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + 2H₂O + Cl₂: Manganese goes from +4 (in MnO₂) to +2 (in MnCl₂) — areduction. Chlorine (in HCl) goes from -1 to 0 (in Cl₂) — anoxidation, meaning HCl loses electrons and isoxidized. MnO₂ acts as the oxidizing agent, and HCl acts as the reducing agent (and is itself oxidized).
Important Facts:
• This reaction is used in the laboratory preparation of chlorine gas.
• Oxidation = loss of electrons / increase in oxidation state; Reduction = gain of electrons / decrease in oxidation state.
Carbon and its Compounds · Ethanol and ethanoic acid

Q25. Which process converts ethanol to ethene when ethanol is heated at 443 K with excess concentrated sulphuric acid?

  1. (a) Reduction of ethanol
  2. (b) Dehydration of ethanol
  3. (c) Oxidation of ethanol
  4. (d) Hydrolysis of ethanol
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dehydration of ethanol

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Dehydration of ethanol
Explanation:
When ethanol is heated with excess concentrated sulphuric acid at 443 K, sulphuric acid acts as a dehydrating agent, removing a water molecule from ethanol to produce ethene: C₂H₅OH → CH₂=CH₂ + H₂O. This is calleddehydration of ethanol.
Important Facts:
• Concentrated H₂SO₄ acts as a dehydrating agent in this reaction.
• This is a standard example of an elimination reaction producing an alkene from an alcohol.
Structure of Atom · Electronic configuration and shells

Q26. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?Statement I: The maximum number of electrons in any shell is given by 2n².Statement II: The third shell (n=3) can hold up to 12 electrons.

  1. (a) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
  2. (b) Only statement I is correct.
  3. (c) Only statement II is correct.
  4. (d) Both statements I and II are correct.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only statement I is correct.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Only statement I is correct.
Explanation:
By the Bohr-Bury rule, the maximum number of electrons that can occupy a shell numbered n is given by2n²— Statement I is correct. For the third shell (n=3), this gives 2×3² =18, not 12, so Statement II isincorrect.
Important Facts:
• K shell (n=1): max 2 electrons.
• L shell (n=2): max 8 electrons.
• M shell (n=3): max 18 electrons.
• N shell (n=4): max 32 electrons.
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Solutions, solubility and concentration

Q27. A student adds salt to water until no more salt dissolves and some salt remains undissolved at the bottom. What does this indicate?

  1. (a) The solution formed is a colloidal solution
  2. (b) Salt has very low solubility in water
  3. (c) The solution formed is saturated salt solution
  4. (d) Salt is completely insoluble in water
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The solution formed is saturated salt solution

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – The solution formed is saturated salt solution
Explanation:
When a solvent has dissolved the maximum amount of solute possible at a given temperature, and additional solute remains undissolved, the solution is called asaturated solution. Since salt does dissolve substantially in water (just not indefinitely), this rules out 'very low solubility' or 'completely insoluble'; and a true salt solution is not colloidal.
Important Facts:
• A saturated solution is in dynamic equilibrium with undissolved solute at a given temperature.
• Heating the solution can often dissolve more solute (making it unsaturated), showing solubility depends on temperature.
Metals and Non-metals · Chemical properties of metals

Q28. Aluminium reacts with oxygen. Which chemical formula represents the product of this reaction?

  1. (a) AlO₂
  2. (b) Al₂O
  3. (c) Al₃O₂
  4. (d) Al₂O₃
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Al₂O₃

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Al₂O₃
Explanation:
Aluminium has a valency of +3 and oxygen has a valency of -2. Balancing charges (cross-multiplication of valencies) gives the formulaAl₂O₃(aluminium oxide): 4Al + 3O₂ → 2Al₂O₃.
Important Facts:
• Al₂O₃ is also known as alumina, a key component of bauxite ore and a very stable, protective oxide layer on aluminium metal.
• This protective oxide layer is why aluminium resists corrosion despite being a reactive metal.

Physics (9)

Light - Refraction and Lenses · Convex lens - image formation and uses

Q29. A real, inverted and diminished image of an object is formed by a convex lens. At which position is the object placed?

  1. (a) Beyond 2F
  2. (b) Between the principal focus (F) and 2F
  3. (c) At the principal focus (F)
  4. (d) At 2F
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Beyond 2F

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Beyond 2F
Explanation:
For a convex lens, areal, inverted, and diminishedimage is formed only when the object is placedbeyond 2F(farther than twice the focal length). The image then forms between F and 2F on the other side, smaller than the object.
Important Facts:
• Object at 2F → image at 2F, real, inverted, same size.
• Object between F and 2F → image beyond 2F, real, inverted, magnified.
• Object at F → image at infinity.
• Object between F and lens → image is virtual, erect, magnified.
Human Eye and the Colourful World · Atmospheric refraction (twinkling of stars, advance sunrise)

Q30. Why do stars appear to twinkle when observed from the Earth?

  1. (a) Due to scattering of light by dust particles in the air
  2. (b) Due to refraction caused by varying air layers in the atmosphere
  3. (c) Due to absorption of light by atmospheric gases
  4. (d) Due to reflection of light from clouds
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Due to refraction caused by varying air layers in the atmosphere

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Due to refraction caused by varying air layers in the atmosphere
Explanation:
Starlight passes through the Earth's atmosphere, which has layers of air at different temperatures and densities. As light continuously refracts (bends) while passing through these changing layers, the apparent position and brightness of the star fluctuates rapidly, causing thetwinklingeffect (atmospheric scintillation).
Important Facts:
• Planets do not twinkle noticeably because they are much closer and appear as extended sources, averaging out the refraction effects.
• This phenomenon is called stellar scintillation.
Electricity · Resistance, resistivity and their factors

Q31. A student uses two wires of the same material and length but different thickness in the same circuit. Which statement best explains why the thicker wire causes a higher ammeter reading?

  1. (a) The thicker wire has a larger area, resulting in higher resistance and lower current
  2. (b) The thicker wire has more resistivity, resulting in higher current
  3. (c) The thicker wire has a larger area, resulting in lower resistance and higher current
  4. (d) The thicker wire has a different material, resulting in higher current
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The thicker wire has a larger area, resulting in lower resistance and higher current

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – The thicker wire has a larger area, resulting in lower resistance and higher current
Explanation:
Resistance of a wire is given by R = ρL/A, where A is the cross-sectional area. For wires of the same material (same ρ) and length (same L), athicker wire has a larger cross-sectional area (A), so its resistance islower. By Ohm's Law (I = V/R), a lower resistance at the same voltage produces ahigher current, giving a higher ammeter reading.
Important Facts:
• Resistance is inversely proportional to cross-sectional area.
• Resistivity (ρ) depends only on the material, not thickness, so it stays the same for both wires here.
Work, Energy and Power · Simple machines and levers

Q32. Two machines lift the same load. Machine P requires an effort of 100 N, while Machine Q requires an effort of 50 N. Which machine has the greater mechanical advantage?

  1. (a) Both machines are equally efficient
  2. (b) Machine Q
  3. (c) Machine P
  4. (d) Cannot be determined
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Machine Q

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Machine Q
Explanation:
Mechanical Advantage (MA) = Load / Effort. Since both machines lift the same load, the machine requiringless efforthas thegreater MA. Machine Q needs only 50 N compared to Machine P's 100 N, so Machine Q has double the mechanical advantage of Machine P.
Important Facts:
• MA is inversely proportional to the effort required for a fixed load.
• A higher MA means the machine multiplies the applied force more effectively.
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Solenoid and electromagnet

Q33. A student wants to create a bar magnet using a current-carrying solenoid. Which arrangement of magnetic field lines would indicate that the solenoid is behaving like a bar magnet?

  1. (a) The field lines emerge from one end and enter the other end, forming closed loops outside the solenoid.
  2. (b) Inside the solenoid, the field lines are arranged along randomly curved paths.
  3. (c) The field lines rotate in a spiral pattern from one end of the solenoid to the other.
  4. (d) The field lines form straight and parallel lines only outside the solenoid.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The field lines emerge from one end and enter the other end, forming closed loops outside the solenoid.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – The field lines emerge from one end and enter the other end, forming closed loops outside the solenoid.
Explanation:
A current-carrying solenoid produces a magnetic field pattern very similar to that of a bar magnet: field lines emerge from one end (behaving like the North pole), travel through the space outside, and enter the other end (behaving like the South pole), forming continuousclosed loops. Inside the solenoid, the field lines are straight and parallel, indicating a uniform field — just like inside a bar magnet.
Important Facts:
• One end of a current-carrying solenoid acts as a north pole and the other as a south pole, determined by the direction of current flow (right-hand thumb rule).
• Uniform field lines inside a solenoid are used in devices like electromagnets.
Units, Measurement & Dimensions · Derived units and units named after scientists

Q34. If the unit of force is newton, which combination of fundamental SI units makes up one newton?

  1. (a) Kilogram per meter per second
  2. (b) Kilogram meter per second squared
  3. (c) Kilogram meter per second
  4. (d) Meter per kilogram per second squared
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kilogram meter per second squared

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Kilogram meter per second squared
Explanation:
By Newton's second law, Force = mass × acceleration. In SI units, mass is in kilograms (kg) and acceleration is in meters per second squared (m/s²). Therefore, 1 newton = 1kg·m/s².
Important Facts:
• 1 N = 1 kg·m·s⁻², a derived SI unit.
• This is a standard dimensional relationship taught in mechanics.
Sound and Waves · Nature and types of waves (longitudinal, transverse)

Q35. When a bell rings inside a jar and the air is slowly removed, what happens to the sound?

  1. (a) The sound becomes louder
  2. (b) The sound becomes fainter as air is removed
  3. (c) The pitch of the sound increases
  4. (d) The bell stops vibrating immediately as air is removed
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The sound becomes fainter as air is removed

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – The sound becomes fainter as air is removed
Explanation:
Sound is a mechanical wave and requires a material medium (like air) to travel. As air is gradually pumped out of the jar, fewer air molecules remain to transmit the vibrations from the bell, so the sound becomes progressivelyfainter, eventually becoming inaudible in a near-vacuum, even though the bell continues to vibrate.
Important Facts:
• This is a classic demonstration proving that sound cannot travel through a vacuum, unlike light.
• The bell's hammer mechanism can still be seen striking (if visible) even when no sound is heard.
Motion · Motion graphs (distance-time, velocity-time)

Q36. Which quantity is represented by the slope of a position-time graph for an object moving in a straight line?

  1. (a) Momentum
  2. (b) Linear velocity
  3. (c) Acceleration
  4. (d) Force
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Linear velocity

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Linear velocity
Explanation:
On a position-time (displacement-time) graph, theslopeat any point equals the rate of change of position with respect to time, which is the definition ofvelocity. A steeper slope indicates higher velocity; a horizontal line (zero slope) indicates the object is at rest.
Important Facts:
• Slope of a velocity-time graph gives acceleration, not the slope of a position-time graph.
• A curved position-time graph indicates changing velocity (i.e., acceleration is present).
Work, Energy and Power · Simple machines and levers

Q37. What is the primary purpose of a simple machine?

  1. (a) To create energy
  2. (b) To reduce the total work done in a task
  3. (c) To increase the weight of an object
  4. (d) To make work easier by changing the magnitude or direction of a force
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To make work easier by changing the magnitude or direction of a force

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – To make work easier by changing the magnitude or direction of a force
Explanation:
A simple machine (like a lever, pulley, or inclined plane) does not create energy or reduce the total work done (in fact, due to friction, real machines require slightly more input work than useful output work). Its purpose is tomake work more convenientby allowing a change in the magnitude of the applied force (trading force for distance, or vice versa) and/or the direction in which the force is applied.
Important Facts:
• Work-energy principle: machines cannot create energy (violates conservation of energy) — they only transform how force and displacement are applied.
• Ideal machines conserve work input = work output; real machines have output work less than input due to friction.

Biology (5)

Cell - Structure and Function · Discovery of cell and cell theory

Q38. Which material did Robert Hooke use to first discover "cells"?

  1. (a) Leaf surface
  2. (b) Cork slice
  3. (c) Onion peel
  4. (d) Human cheek
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Cork slice

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Cork slice
Explanation:
In 1665, Robert Hooke examined a thin slice ofcorkunder a primitive compound microscope and observed small box-like compartments, which he named 'cells' (resembling the small rooms/cells of a monastery).
Important Facts:
• Hooke published his observations in the book 'Micrographia' (1665).
• The cork cells he saw were actually dead cell walls, not living cells.
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Blood vessels, circulation and blood pressure

Q39. What prevents blood from flowing backward inside the low-pressure veins of the human circulatory system?

  1. (a) Microscopic capillaries
  2. (b) One-way valves
  3. (c) High pumping force
  4. (d) Thick elastic walls
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) One-way valves

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – One-way valves
Explanation:
Veins carry blood back to the heart at low pressure. To prevent the backflow of blood (especially against gravity in limbs), veins containone-way (semilunar) valvesthat allow blood to flow only toward the heart.
Important Facts:
• Arteries, which carry high-pressure blood away from the heart, do not need such valves (except the semilunar valves at the heart's exit points).
• Valve failure in veins can lead to conditions like varicose veins.

Q40. According to Haberlandt's proposal, the ability of a single mature plant cell to develop into a full-fledged plant is called _________.

  1. (a) Totipotency
  2. (b) Permeability
  3. (c) Contact inhibition
  4. (d) Turgidity
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Totipotency

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Totipotency
Explanation:
Gottlieb Haberlandt, considered the father of plant tissue culture, proposed in 1902 that a single mature (differentiated) plant cell retains the inherent capability to regenerate into a complete, fully functional plant under suitable conditions. This property is known astotipotency.
Important Facts:
• Totipotency is the foundational principle behind plant tissue culture and cloning techniques.
• Permeability, contact inhibition, and turgidity are unrelated cellular concepts.

Q41. In mammals, what is the primary advantage of having a four-chambered heart in relation to the transportation of blood in the lungs?

  1. (a) Prevents mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
  2. (b) Reduces blood pressure in the lungs
  3. (c) It ensures only oxygenated blood enters the lung tissue
  4. (d) Allows blood to flow only once through the heart
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Prevents mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Prevents mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
Explanation:
A four-chambered heart (two atria, two ventricles) completely separates the pulmonary circuit (deoxygenated blood to lungs) from the systemic circuit (oxygenated blood to body). This complete separationprevents mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, ensuring highly efficient oxygen delivery to tissues — important for the high metabolic rate of mammals (endothermy).
Important Facts:
• Deoxygenated blood (not oxygenated) is what enters the lungs to be oxygenated, so option 3 is factually wrong.
• Two-chambered (fish) and three-chambered (most reptiles/amphibians) hearts allow some mixing of blood.
Nutrition and Digestion · Nutrition in animals (amoeba, ruminants)

Q42. Choose the incorrect statement regarding food intake in unicellular organisms.

  1. (a) Amoeba takes in food by forming pseudopodia.
  2. (b) Amoeba follows an autotrophic mode of nutrition.
  3. (c) Food is taken in through the process of endocytosis.
  4. (d) Paramecium uses cilia to move and to take in food.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Amoeba follows an autotrophic mode of nutrition.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Amoeba follows an autotrophic mode of nutrition.
Explanation:
Amoeba is aheterotroph— specifically, it obtains food throughholozoic nutrition, engulfing food particles by forming temporary finger-like extensions called pseudopodia (a form of endocytosis called phagocytosis). It does not manufacture its own food, so calling it 'autotrophic' is incorrect. Paramecium, in contrast, uses cilia both for locomotion and to sweep food particles into its oral groove.
Important Facts:
• Autotrophs (like plants and some algae, e.g., Euglena in light) synthesize their own food; Amoeba cannot.
• Phagocytosis (engulfing solid food particles) is a specific type of endocytosis.

Geography (2)

Universe and Solar System · Eclipses, seasons, day and night

Q43. A climate modeler wants to explain why polar regions have long periods of darkness and light during the year. Which factor is most responsible for this phenomenon?

  1. (a) Atmospheric composition blocks sunlight at the poles
  2. (b) Earth’s axial tilt and spherical shape affect sunlight distribution
  3. (c) Ocean currents change the amount of sunlight received
  4. (d) Only latitude determines day length at the poles
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Earth’s axial tilt and spherical shape affect sunlight distribution

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Earth's axial tilt and spherical shape affect sunlight distribution
Explanation:
The Earth is tilted at about 23.5° on its axis and revolves around the Sun. This combination, together with its spherical shape, causes polar regions to receive continuous sunlight (polar day) for part of the year and no sunlight (polar night) during another part, as the poles alternately tilt toward or away from the Sun.
Important Facts:
• This is why the Arctic and Antarctic experience 'midnight sun' and long polar nights.
• Without axial tilt, day length would not vary seasonally at any latitude.

Q44. A climatologist analyzes why the Southern Hemisphere gyres rotate in a specific direction. Which factor primarily explains the rotation pattern of these ocean gyres?

  1. (a) Earth’s rotation deflects water movement
  2. (b) Temperature gradients push water
  3. (c) Wind direction drives all rotation
  4. (d) Land mass distribution alters flow
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Earth’s rotation deflects water movement

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Earth's rotation deflects water movement
Explanation:
Ocean gyres are large systems of rotating currents driven mainly by wind, but their specific rotational direction (clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere, counter-clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere) is determined by theCoriolis effect, which results from the Earth's rotation deflecting moving water (and air) — to the left in the Southern Hemisphere and to the right in the Northern Hemisphere.
Important Facts:
• The Coriolis effect is zero at the equator and increases toward the poles.
• Major Southern Hemisphere gyres include the South Pacific, South Atlantic, and Indian Ocean gyres, all rotating anticlockwise.
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