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RRB JE CBT-1 2024-25 16 December 2024 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 40 GK / GS questions asked in RRB JE CBT-1 2024-25 on 16 December 2024 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Chemistry, Biology, Physics, Geography, Current Affairs, Ancient History.

📚 40 questions🗓️ 16 December 2024⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Chemistry (10) · Biology (7) · Physics (10) · Geography (2) · Current Affairs (5) · Ancient History (1) · Polity (3) · Static GK (1) · Modern History (1)

Chemistry (10)

Chemical Reactions and Equations · Combination reactions

Q1. Combination reaction can be represented as:

  1. (a) ABC à AB + C
  2. (b) AB + C à CB + A
  3. (c) AB + CD à AD + CD
  4. (d) AB + C à ABC
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) AB + C à ABC

Answer: Option 4 — AB + C → ABC
In a combination reaction two or more substances join to form a single product.
AB and C combine to give one product, ABC.
Revision note — Types of chemical reactions
• Combination: A + B → AB — e.g. CaO + H_(2)O → Ca(OH)_(2) (quicklime to slaked lime, exothermic).
• Decomposition: AB → A + B — the reverse of combination; needs heat, light or electricity (e.g. CaCO_(3) → CaO + CO_(2)).
• Displacement: A + BC → AC + B — a more reactive element pushes out a less reactive one (e.g. Fe + CuSO_(4) → FeSO_(4) + Cu).
• Double displacement: AB + CD → AD + CB — ions are exchanged, often forming a precipitate (e.g. BaCl_(2) + Na_(2)SO_(4)).
• Burning of coal (C + O_(2) → CO_(2)) and forming water from H_(2) and O_(2) are also combination reactions.
Do not mix these up
• Combination vs decomposition — combination ends in one product; decomposition starts from one reactant.
Also asked from this topic: the type of reaction CaO + H_(2)O → Ca(OH)_(2) + heat (combination reaction); the observation that confirms a combination reaction (only one new substance is produced).
Acids, Bases and Salts · pH scale and its importance

Q2. What is the pH value of pure water at 25°C?

  1. (a) 5
  2. (b) 3
  3. (c) 1
  4. (d) 7
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 7

Answer: Option 4 — 7
Pure water has equal H⁺ and OH⁻ ions (10⁻⁷ mol/L each at 25°C), so it is neutral with pH 7.
Revision note — pH scale
• pH = potential of hydrogen, given by S.P.L. Sørensen (1909); pH = −log[H⁺].
• Scale runs 0 to 14: below 7 acidic, 7 neutral, above 7 basic.
• More H⁺ ⇒ lower pH; each step of 1 pH is a 10-fold change in H⁺.
• Common values: gastric juice ≈ 1–2, lemon juice ≈ 2.5, milk ≈ 6.6, blood ≈ 7.4, sea water ≈ 8, milk of magnesia ≈ 10.
• Tooth decay starts when mouth pH falls below 5.5; acid rain has pH below 5.6.
Do not mix these up
• Neutral vs pure — any neutral solution (like NaCl in water) also has pH 7; it need not be pure water.
Also asked from this topic: the substance that is neutral on the pH scale (pure water); what a higher H⁺ concentration means (a lower pH).
Carbon and its Compounds · Homologous series

Q3. Which of the following is the correct definition of a homologous series?

  1. (a) A series of compounds having identical physical properties
  2. (b) A series of compounds having different functional groups
  3. (c) A series of compounds with the same molecular mass
  4. (d) A series of compounds having the same functional group and similar chemical properties
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A series of compounds having the same functional group and similar chemical properties

Answer: Option 4 — A series of compounds having the same functional group and similar chemical properties
Members of a homologous series carry the same functional group, so they react alike — similar chemical properties.
Revision note — Homologous series
• Successive members differ by a –CH_(2)– unit, i.e. by 14 u in molecular mass.
• All members fit one general formula — alkanes C_(n)H_(2n+2), alkenes C_(n)H_(2n), alkynes C_(n)H_(2n−2).
• Chemical properties stay similar (set by the functional group).
• Physical properties (melting point, boiling point, solubility) change gradually as molecular mass rises.
• Example: CH_(3)OH, C_(2)H_(5)OH, C_(3)H_(7)OH — the alcohol series (–OH group).
• Example: CH_(4), C_(2)H_(6), C_(3)H_(8) — methane, ethane, propane (alkanes).
Do not mix these up
• Homologous series vs isomers — homologues have different formulae (differ by CH_(2)); isomers have the same formula but different structures.
Also asked from this topic: the grouping of compounds that differ by a –CH_(2)– unit (homologous series); what methane, ethane and propane represent (a homologous series of alkanes).
Metals and Non-metals · Reactivity series

Q4. Which metal is placed at the top of the reactivity series?

  1. (a) Copper
  2. (b) Iron
  3. (c) Potassium
  4. (d) Silver
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Potassium

Answer: Option 3 — Potassium
Potassium (K) loses its outer electron most easily, so it heads the reactivity series.
Revision note — Reactivity series of metals
• Order: K > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Pb > [H] > Cu > Hg > Ag > Au.
• Most reactive: potassium; least reactive: gold (with platinum).
• K and Na react violently with cold water — the hydrogen catches fire; they are stored under kerosene.
• A more reactive metal displaces a less reactive one from its salt solution: Fe + CuSO_(4) → FeSO_(4) + Cu.
• Metals above hydrogen give H_(2) with dilute acids; Cu, Hg, Ag, Au do not.
• Metals low in the series (Au, Ag, Pt) occur free in nature; top metals (K, Na, Ca, Mg, Al) are extracted by electrolysis.
Also asked from this topic: the metal that reacts violently with cold water and the hydrogen catches fire (potassium); what a displacement reaction shows (the solid metal is more reactive than the metal in solution).
Chemical Reactions and Equations · Oxidation, reduction and redox reactions

Q5. In a redox reaction, reduction can be described as:

  1. (a) addition of oxygen
  2. (b) addition of hydrogen
  3. (c) addition of an electronegative element
  4. (d) loss of electrons
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) addition of hydrogen

Answer: Option 2 — addition of hydrogen
Reduction is the gain of hydrogen or the loss of oxygen by a substance.
Addition of oxygen, addition of an electronegative element and loss of electrons all describe oxidation.
Revision note — Oxidation and reduction
• Oxidation: gain of oxygen, loss of hydrogen, loss of electrons.
• Reduction: loss of oxygen, gain of hydrogen, gain of electrons.
• Redox: oxidation and reduction happen together in the same reaction.
• Example: CuO + H_(2) → Cu + H_(2)O — CuO is reduced, H_(2) is oxidised.
• Oxidising agent gets reduced itself; reducing agent gets oxidised itself.
• Everyday oxidation: corrosion (rusting) and rancidity of fats and oils.
Do not mix these up
• Electron view — memory aid OIL RIG: Oxidation Is Loss, Reduction Is Gain (of electrons).
Also asked from this topic: what oxidation involves in a redox reaction (loss of electrons); in CuO + H_(2) → Cu + H_(2)O, what is reduced (CuO, while hydrogen is oxidised).
Environmental Chemistry · Ozone layer and its depletion

Q6. Which of the following is/are responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer in the atmosphere?

  1. (a) Hydrofluorocarbons
  2. (b) Chlorofluorocarbons
  3. (c) Ethane
  4. (d) Methane
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Chlorofluorocarbons

Answer: Option 2 — Chlorofluorocarbons
CFCs rise to the stratosphere, where UV rays break them and release chlorine atoms.
One chlorine atom can destroy thousands of ozone (O_(3)) molecules.
Revision note — Ozone layer
• Ozone O_(3) is formed when UV splits O_(2) into single O atoms, which join another O_(2): O + O_(2) → O_(3).
• The ozone layer lies in the stratosphere (about 15–35 km) and absorbs harmful UV radiation.
• CFCs were used in refrigerators, air conditioners, aerosol sprays and fire extinguishers.
• The ozone thinning was noticed in 1980s; the ozone hole was first reported over Antarctica (1985).
• Montreal Protocol (1987) phases out ozone-depleting substances; 16 September is World Ozone Day.
• Halons release bromine; CFCs, HCFCs and carbon tetrachloride release chlorine.
• Extra UV reaching Earth causes skin cancer and cataract.
Do not mix these up
• HFCs vs CFCs — HFCs contain no chlorine, so they do not deplete ozone.
HFCs are greenhouse gases, controlled by the Kigali Amendment (2016).
• Ozone depletion vs global warming — methane and CO_(2) cause warming, not ozone loss.
Also asked from this topic: the agreement that phases out ozone-depleting substances (Montreal Protocol); where the ozone hole was first discovered (Antarctica).
Metals and Non-metals · Ionic compounds and their properties

Q7. Which of the following best describes why ionic compounds like potassium bromide (KBr) do NOT conduct electricity in solid form but do in molten form?

  1. (a) Solid KBr consists of neutral atoms with no free electrons.
  2. (b) Ionic bonds prevent ion movement in solid KBr.
  3. (c) In molten form, KBr decomposes into gaseous atoms.
  4. (d) Solid KBr has weak ions that do not conduct electricity.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ionic bonds prevent ion movement in solid KBr.

Answer: Option 2 — Ionic bonds prevent ion movement in solid KBr.
In solid KBr the K⁺ and Br⁻ ions are locked in a rigid crystal lattice by strong electrostatic attraction.
Electricity needs moving charges; on melting the lattice breaks and the ions become free to move.
Revision note — Properties of ionic compounds
• Formed by transfer of electrons from a metal to a non-metal (e.g. NaCl, KBr, MgCl_(2), CaO).
• Hard solids, but brittle — they break into pieces under pressure.
• High melting and boiling points — much energy is needed to break the strong interionic attraction (NaCl melts at 801 °C).
• Soluble in water, insoluble in kerosene and petrol.
• Conduct electricity only in molten state or aqueous solution, never as solids.
• Charge is carried by ions here, whereas in metals it is carried by free electrons.
Do not mix these up
• Ionic compound vs metal — solid copper conducts through free electrons; solid KBr has no mobile charge at all.
Also asked from this topic: why sodium chloride is a solid at room temperature (strong electrostatic attraction between ions); a property common to ionic compounds (high melting and boiling points).
Environmental Chemistry · Ozone layer and its depletion

Q8. Why is the depletion of the ozone layer a concern for humans?

  1. (a) It leads to increased water pollution.
  2. (b) It increases soil fertility.
  3. (c) It promotes plant growth.
  4. (d) It protects us from harmful radiation.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It protects us from harmful radiation.

Answer: Option 4 — It protects us from harmful radiation.
Here "it" is the ozone layer: it absorbs the sun's harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
If it thins, more UV reaches Earth — so its depletion is a concern for humans.
Revision note — Ozone layer and its depletion
• Ozone (O_(3)) is formed in the stratosphere when UV splits O_(2): O_(2) → O + O, then O + O_(2) → O_(3).
• The ozone layer lies mainly 15–35 km above Earth and absorbs UV-B and UV-C.
• Main cause of depletion: chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) from refrigerators, ACs and aerosols; halons release bromine.
• The ozone hole was first detected over Antarctica (1985).
• More UV causes skin cancer, cataract and weakened immunity, and harms crops and plankton.
• Montreal Protocol (1987) phases out ozone-depleting substances; World Ozone Day is 16 September.
Do not mix these up
• Ozone depletion vs global warming — depletion lets in more UV; global warming is caused by greenhouse gases trapping heat.
Also asked from this topic: the function of the ozone layer (absorbing UV radiation from the sun); the main cause of ozone depletion (chlorofluorocarbons); the primary harmful effect of UV on humans (skin cancer).
Acids, Bases and Salts · Common salts - preparation and uses (baking soda, washing soda, bleaching powder, plaster of Paris)

Q9. Which ion reduces at the cathode during electrolysis of fresh brine solution?

  1. (a) OH⁻
  2. (b) H^(+)
  3. (c) Na^(+)
  4. (d) Cl⁻
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) H^(+)

Answer: Option 2 — H^(+)
In brine, water supplies H^(+) ions, which are reduced (gain electrons) more easily than Na^(+).
At the cathode: 2H^(+) + 2e⁻ → H_(2) — hydrogen gas is given off, and Na^(+) stays in solution with OH⁻ as NaOH.
Revision note — Chlor-alkali process
• Electrolysis of brine (aqueous NaCl): 2NaCl + 2H_(2)O → 2NaOH + Cl_(2) + H_(2).
• Anode (+): Cl⁻ is oxidised → chlorine gas.
• Cathode (−): H^(+) (from water) is reduced → hydrogen gas.
• NaOH forms near the cathode — hence "chlor-alkali" (chlorine + alkali).
• Uses: Cl_(2) → bleaching powder, PVC, disinfectants; H_(2) → fuel, ammonia, hydrogenation of oils; NaOH → soaps, paper, degreasing metals.
Do not mix these up
• Oxidation vs reduction — reduction (gain of electrons) happens at the cathode; oxidation at the anode.
• Brine vs molten NaCl — only molten NaCl gives sodium metal at the cathode; in brine, hydrogen wins.
Also asked from this topic: the product formed at the cathode during electrolysis of brine (hydrogen gas); the name of the process that makes NaOH from brine (chlor-alkali process).
Carbon and its Compounds · Bonding in carbon and catenation

Q10. Which of the following options represents the correct Lewis structure for methane (CH₄)?

  1. (a) A carbon atom bonded to four hydrogen atoms with triple bonds
  2. (b) A carbon atom bonded to two hydrogen atoms with double bonds
  3. (c) A carbon atom bonded to one hydrogen atom with a double bond
  4. (d) A carbon atom bonded to four hydrogen atoms with single bonds
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A carbon atom bonded to four hydrogen atoms with single bonds

Answer: Option 4 — A carbon atom bonded to four hydrogen atoms with single bonds
Carbon (2, 4) has 4 valence electrons; it shares one with each of 4 hydrogen atoms, forming 4 single covalent bonds.
Carbon completes its octet and each H its duplet.
Revision note — Covalent bonding in carbon
• Carbon is tetravalent — it forms 4 covalent bonds by sharing electrons, not by losing or gaining 4.
• Methane (CH_(4)): 4 C–H single bonds; tetrahedral shape, bond angle 109.5°.
• Single bond = 1 shared pair; double = 2 pairs (ethene, C_(2)H_(4)); triple = 3 pairs (ethyne, C_(2)H_(2)).
• O_(2) has a double bond; N_(2) has a triple bond.
• Catenation plus tetravalency let carbon form millions of compounds.
• Covalent compounds have low melting and boiling points and are poor conductors of electricity.
Also asked from this topic: the properties that let carbon form millions of compounds (strong covalent bonding and tetravalency); why covalent compounds have low melting points (weak intermolecular forces).

Biology (7)

Ecology and Environment · Waste management and biodegradable substances

Q11. Thermocol disposables are being widely used in parties and restaurants. By promoting this practice ________.

  1. (a) we are increasing non-biodegradable waste
  2. (b) we are increasing the hygiene concern in us
  3. (c) we are reducing expenses; disposables are cheap to use
  4. (d) we are making the waste biodegradable
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) we are increasing non-biodegradable waste

Answer: Option 1 — we are increasing non-biodegradable waste
Thermocol is expanded polystyrene, a plastic that microorganisms cannot break down.
Every discarded plate or cup adds to non-biodegradable waste that stays for hundreds of years.
Revision note — Biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances
• Biodegradable: broken down by decomposers (bacteria, fungi) — paper, cotton, wood, food waste, dead animals.
• Non-biodegradable: not broken down by microbes — plastics, polythene, thermocol (styrofoam), glass, aluminium cans, DDT.
• Non-biodegradable waste clogs drains, harms aquatic animals, and burning it releases toxic gases.
• Chemicals like DDT concentrate up the food chain — biological magnification.
• Better choice at parties: kulhads, leaf plates (pattals), steel or washable crockery.
• Waste management rests on the 3Rs — Reduce, Reuse, Recycle.
Also asked from this topic: an advantage of paper cups over plastic cups (they are biodegradable); the effect of non-biodegradable substances in water bodies (they clog drains and harm aquatic life).
Ecology and Environment · Ecosystem and its components

Q12. Which of the following categories are NOT a class of consumers?

  1. (a) Producers
  2. (b) Carnivores
  3. (c) Parasites
  4. (d) Herbivores
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Producers

Answer: Option 1 — Producers
Producers (green plants, some bacteria) make their own food by photosynthesis, so they are not consumers.
Herbivores, carnivores and parasites all depend on other organisms for food — they are consumers.
Revision note — Components of an ecosystem
• Biotic components: producers, consumers and decomposers.
• Producers are autotrophs — they fix solar energy; they form the first trophic level.
• Herbivores = primary consumers (2nd level); small carnivores = secondary consumers; large carnivores = tertiary consumers.
• Omnivores eat both plants and animals; parasites live on a host and draw food from it — still consumers.
• Decomposers (bacteria and fungi) break down dead remains and return nutrients to the soil.
• Abiotic components: sunlight, temperature, water, air, soil, minerals.
Do not mix these up
• Producers vs decomposers — both are outside the consumer chain; producers make food, decomposers break down dead matter.
Also asked from this topic: the group that depends solely and directly on producers for food (herbivores); what herbivores are in a food web (primary consumers).
Ecology and Environment · Ecosystem and its components

Q13. Garden is an ecosystem because:

  1. (a) it has only biotic components like plants, trees and flowers
  2. (b) the living organisms in it interact with each other and are affected by abiotic components
  3. (c) the living organisms in it interact with each other and are not affected by abiotic components
  4. (d) it has both plants, trees and animals like insects, frogs, birds, etc., as biotic components
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) the living organisms in it interact with each other and are affected by abiotic components

Answer: Option 2 — the living organisms in it interact with each other and are affected by abiotic components
An ecosystem is the biotic community together with its abiotic surroundings, interacting as one unit.
A garden has plants, insects, birds and microbes that interact with each other and with soil, water, light and air.
Revision note — Ecosystem
• Definition: all living organisms of an area plus the physical factors (temperature, rainfall, wind, soil, minerals) they interact with.
• Biotic components: producers, consumers, decomposers.
• Abiotic components: sunlight, temperature, water, air, soil, minerals.
• Natural ecosystems: forests, ponds, lakes, grasslands, deserts.
• Artificial (human-made) ecosystems: gardens, crop-fields, aquariums.
• The Sun is the ultimate source of energy for every ecosystem.
Do not mix these up
• Community vs ecosystem — a community is only the living organisms; an ecosystem adds the non-living environment.
Also asked from this topic: the best definition of an ecosystem (interaction of biotic and abiotic components); an example of an abiotic factor (soil); an example of an artificial ecosystem (crop-field).
Ecology and Environment · Waste management and biodegradable substances

Q14. Why do non-biodegradable wastes cause environmental problems?

  1. (a) They are toxic to plants only.
  2. (b) They can be easily recycled.
  3. (c) They increase soil fertility.
  4. (d) They remain in the environment for a long time.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) They remain in the environment for a long time.

Answer: Option 4 — They remain in the environment for a long time.
Decomposers (bacteria, fungi) cannot break these substances down.
They persist for years, pile up and harm soil, water and living beings.
Revision note — Non-biodegradable wastes
• Examples: plastics, polythene, glass, metals (aluminium cans), DDT, styrofoam.
• Microbes lack the enzymes to digest them, so they stay inert in nature.
• Plastics clog drains, choke animals and cut soil aeration and water seepage.
• Chemicals like DDT and mercury build up along the food chain — biological magnification; highest at the top consumer (humans).
• Remedy: the 3Rs — Reduce, Reuse, Recycle; segregate waste into wet (green bin) and dry (blue bin).
Also asked from this topic: the main concern with non-biodegradable waste (it accumulates and causes pollution); the advantage of paper cups over plastic cups (they are biodegradable).
Ecology and Environment · Waste management and biodegradable substances

Q15. Rashi wants to make compost for her kitchen garden. She plans to use kitchen wastes. Which set of articles is best suited for her work?

  1. (a) Peels of fruits, leftover vegetables, plastic waste, thermocol cups.
  2. (b) Peels of fruits, leftover vegetables, paper, packing sheets.
  3. (c) Peels of fruits, leftover vegetables, paper, torn cotton clothes.
  4. (d) Peels of fruits, leftover vegetables, plastic waste, old mobile phone.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Peels of fruits, leftover vegetables, paper, torn cotton clothes.

Answer: Option 3 — Peels of fruits, leftover vegetables, paper, torn cotton clothes.
Compost is made by microbes decomposing organic waste.
Every item in this set is biodegradable — plant matter or natural fibre.
Revision note — Composting
• Composting — conversion of biodegradable kitchen and garden waste into manure (humus) by bacteria and fungi.
• Suitable: fruit and vegetable peels, leftover food, dry leaves, paper, cotton cloth, cow dung.
• Not suitable: plastic, polythene, thermocol, glass, metal, e-waste — they are non-biodegradable.
• Vermicomposting uses red worms (Eisenia fetida) to speed up composting.
• Compost improves soil fertility, water-holding capacity and aeration, and cuts landfill waste.
Also asked from this topic: why composting is environmentally beneficial (it converts organic waste into useful manure); an example of biodegradable waste (dead animals).
Ecology and Environment · Pollution - effects on living beings

Q16. What impact does human activities have on the environment?

  1. (a) They help in waste disposal
  2. (b) No impact
  3. (c) They contribute to environmental pollution
  4. (d) Only a positive impact
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) They contribute to environmental pollution

Answer: Option 3 — They contribute to environmental pollution
Burning fuels, industry, vehicles, deforestation, plastics and chemical use add pollutants to air, water and soil faster than nature can clean them.
Revision note — Human activities and the environment
• Air pollution: burning fossil fuels releases CO_(2), SO_(2), NO_(x) and particulates; CO_(2) drives the greenhouse effect.
• Water pollution: industrial effluents, sewage and fertiliser run-off; excess nutrients cause eutrophication.
• Soil pollution: pesticides, plastics and non-biodegradable waste; DDT shows biological magnification.
• Deforestation causes soil erosion, floods and loss of biodiversity.
• CFCs from refrigerators and aerosols deplete the ozone layer.
• Remedies: the 3Rs (Reduce, Reuse, Recycle), renewable energy, afforestation.
Also asked from this topic: the main human source of carbon dioxide emissions (burning of fossil fuels); the activity that upsets the balance between soil formation and soil erosion (deforestation).
Ecology and Environment · Waste management and biodegradable substances

Q17. Mohan went to a cafe and ordered a soft drink. The waiter brought his order in a plastic glass with a plastic straw. Mohan, being environment friendly, is not happy as:

  1. (a) plastic glass and plastic straw is non biodegradable and persists in soil for a long time
  2. (b) a plastic glass and plastic straw does not add to the standard of the cafe
  3. (c) plastic glass and plastic straw spoils the taste of the drink
  4. (d) the plastic glass and plastic straw were not of his favourite colour
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) plastic glass and plastic straw is non biodegradable and persists in soil for a long time

Answer: Option 1 — plastic glass and plastic straw is non biodegradable and persists in soil for a long time
Plastic cannot be broken down by decomposers (bacteria, fungi), so a used glass and straw stay in the soil and water for hundreds of years.
Single-use items like these are the easiest plastic to avoid.
Revision note — Non-biodegradable waste
• Biodegradable: broken down by microbes — paper, cotton, food waste, leaves, dead animals.
• Non-biodegradable: not broken down by microbes — plastic, polythene, glass, aluminium cans, DDT.
• Plastic clogs drains, chokes animals that swallow it and releases toxic gases (dioxins) when burnt.
• India banned identified single-use plastic items, including plastic straws, from 1 July 2022.
• Eco-friendly substitutes: paper or bamboo straws, glass, steel or kulhad (clay) cups.
• Waste management rests on the 3Rs — Reduce, Reuse, Recycle.
Also asked from this topic: an example of biodegradable waste (dead animals); what non-biodegradable waste does in water bodies (clogs drains and harms aquatic life).

Physics (10)

Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Electric motor

Q18. An electric motor converts electrical energy into:

  1. (a) electron energy
  2. (b) magnetic energy
  3. (c) nuclear energy
  4. (d) mechanical energy
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) mechanical energy

Answer: Option 4 — mechanical energy
A current-carrying coil in a magnetic field feels a force and rotates.
So the motor turns electrical energy into mechanical energy (rotation).
Revision note — Electric motor
• Principle: a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field experiences a force.
• Direction of the force: Fleming's left-hand rule (First finger — field, seCond finger — current, thuMb — motion).
• Parts: armature coil, permanent magnet (field magnet), split-ring commutator, brushes, axle.
• The split ring reverses the current every half rotation, so the coil keeps turning in one direction.
• Commercial motors use an electromagnet, many turns of wire and a soft-iron core to raise power.
• Uses: fans, mixers, washing machines, water pumps, electric trains.
Do not mix these up
• Motor vs generator — a motor turns electrical → mechanical (left-hand rule); a generator turns mechanical → electrical (right-hand rule).
Also asked from this topic: the device that uses the force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field to give motion (electric motor).
Electricity · Ohm's law

Q19. If a conductor follows the Ohm’s law, then the graph between current and voltage will be a/an _______.

  1. (a) straight line
  2. (b) ellipse
  3. (c) parabola
  4. (d) hyperbola
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) straight line

Answer: Option 1 — straight line
Ohm's law: V = I × R; with R constant, current ∝ voltage, so the V–I graph is a straight line through the origin.
Revision note — Ohm's law
• Statement: at constant temperature, the current through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference across it.
• V = IR; unit of resistance ohm (Ω) = 1 V/A.
• Slope of the V–I graph (V on the y-axis) gives the resistance R; a steeper line means higher resistance.
• Conductors that obey the law are ohmic (metal wires, nichrome); diodes and filament bulbs at high temperature are non-ohmic (curved graph).
• Law given by Georg Simon Ohm (1827).
Also asked from this topic: the graph for Ohm's law for a resistor at constant temperature (a straight line through the origin); what happens to current if resistance is doubled at the same voltage (it halves).
Electricity · Heating effect of current and Joule's law

Q20. If a resistor of 15 Ω carries a current of 2.5 A for 12 seconds, the heat produced is _____ joules.

  1. (a) 900
  2. (b) 1125
  3. (c) 1800
  4. (d) 450
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1125

Formula — Joule's law of heating.
Heat produced = (current)² × resistance × time
H = I² × R × t
Substitute the values.
I = 2.5 A, R = 15 Ω, t = 12 s
I² = 2.5 × 2.5 = 6.25
H = 6.25 × 15 × 12
H = 6.25 × 180 = 1125 J
Answer: 1125 joules
Revision note — Heating effect of electric current
• Joule's law: H = I²Rt — heat ∝ square of current, ∝ resistance, ∝ time.
• Using V = IR, the same heat is H = VIt = V²t ÷ R.
• Doubling the current makes the heat four times.
• Heating elements use nichrome — high resistivity and high melting point.
• An electric fuse works on the heating effect; its wire has a low melting point.
Also asked from this topic: the change in heat when the current is doubled (four times); the relation for Joule's law of heating (H = I²Rt); the SI unit of the heat produced in a resistor (joule).
Square the current first — writing 2.5 × 15 × 12 = 450 is the trap option.
Electricity · Resistance, resistivity and their factors

Q21. A wire has a resistance of R. If its length is increased by a factor of 8 and its cross-sectional area is decreased by a factor of 4, what is its new resistance (R')?

  1. (a) R' = 32 R
  2. (b) R' = 8 R
  3. (c) R' = 2 R
  4. (d) R' = 16 R
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) R' = 32 R

Formula — resistance of a wire.
Resistance = resistivity × length ÷ area
R = ρ × L ÷ A
Resistivity ρ depends only on the material, so it stays the same.
Apply the changes.
New length = 8L
New area = A ÷ 4
R' = ρ × 8L ÷ (A ÷ 4)
R' = ρ × 8L × 4 ÷ A
R' = 32 × (ρL ÷ A) = 32R
Answer: R' = 32R
Revision note — Factors on which resistance depends
• R is directly proportional to length and inversely proportional to area of cross-section.
• Resistivity (ρ) is a property of the material; SI unit ohm metre (Ω m).
• Resistivity changes with temperature, not with the length or thickness of the wire.
• A wire stretched to n times its length (volume fixed) has resistance n²R — its area falls to A ÷ n.
• Metals and alloys: nichrome has a much higher resistivity than copper.
Also asked from this topic: the new resistance of a 4 Ω wire stretched to double length (16 Ω); the effect of doubling the length on resistance (it becomes four times when stretched).
Area is in the denominator — dividing it by 4 multiplies R by 4, so 8 × 4 = 32, not 8 ÷ 4 = 2.
Electricity · Ohm's law

Q22. The potential difference, V, across the ends of a given metallic wire in an electric circuit is directly proportional to the current flowing through it, provided its temperature remains the same. This is known as:

  1. (a) Newton's law
  2. (b) Ohm's law
  3. (c) Ampere's law
  4. (d) Resistance law
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ohm's law

Answer: Option 2 — Ohm's law
Ohm's law: at constant temperature, V ∝ I, so V = IR, where R is the resistance of the wire.
Revision note — Ohm's law
• Given by Georg Simon Ohm (German physicist) in 1827.
• V = IR; R = V/I; SI unit of resistance = ohm (Ω) = 1 V/A.
• The V–I graph of an ohmic conductor is a straight line through the origin; its slope gives R.
• The law holds only if temperature and other physical conditions stay the same.
• Resistance depends on length (R ∝ l), area (R ∝ 1/A), material (resistivity ρ) and temperature: R = ρl/A.
• Non-ohmic devices (diodes, filament lamps at high temperature) do not give a straight V–I line.
Do not mix these up
• Ohm's law vs Ampere's law — Ohm links V, I and R in a circuit; Ampere's law relates the magnetic field around a closed loop to the current through it.
Also asked from this topic: what happens to current when resistance is doubled at constant voltage (it halves); the quantity measured in volt per ampere (resistance, in ohm).
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Magnetic field due to current (Oersted, right-hand thumb rule)

Q23. Consider a conductor in the plane of the paper with current going from bottom to the top. What will be the direction of the magnetic field lines to the left of the conductor?

  1. (a) Opposite to the direction of the current.
  2. (b) Perpendicular to the plane of the paper and going in.
  3. (c) In the direction of the current.
  4. (d) Perpendicular to the plane of the paper and coming out.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Perpendicular to the plane of the paper and coming out.

Answer: Option 4 — Perpendicular to the plane of the paper and coming out.
Right-hand thumb rule: hold the wire with the thumb along the current (upward); the curled fingers give the field.
The fingers come out of the paper on the left of the wire and go into the paper on the right.
Revision note — Magnetic field of a straight current-carrying conductor
• Discovered by Hans Christian Oersted (1820) — a current deflects a compass needle.
• Field lines are concentric circles centred on the wire, in a plane perpendicular to it.
• Right-hand thumb rule is also called Maxwell's corkscrew rule.
• Field strength ∝ current I and ∝ 1/distance from the wire.
• Reversing the current reverses the direction of the field lines.
• Symbols: ⊙ (dot) = out of the paper; ⊗ (cross) = into the paper.
Do not mix these up
• Right-hand thumb rule vs Fleming's rules — thumb rule gives the field around a current; Fleming's left-hand rule gives the force on a conductor; Fleming's right-hand rule gives the induced current.
Also asked from this topic: the other name of the right-hand thumb rule (Maxwell's corkscrew rule); the effect of reversing the current in a straight conductor (the field direction reverses).
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Electric generator and Fleming's right-hand rule

Q24. The Fleming’s right hand rule is used to find the:

  1. (a) direction of the motion of the current carrying conductor
  2. (b) direction of the current of a current carrying conductor
  3. (c) direction of the magnetic field associated with a current carrying conductor
  4. (d) direction of the gravitational field
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) direction of the current of a current carrying conductor

Answer: Option 2 — direction of the current of a current carrying conductor
Fleming's right-hand rule gives the direction of the induced current when a conductor moves in a magnetic field.
It is the generator rule.
Revision note — Fleming's rules
• Stretch the thumb, forefinger and middle finger mutually perpendicular.
• Right hand: thumb = motion of conductor, forefinger = magnetic field, middle finger = induced current.
• Left hand: forefinger = field, middle finger = current, thumb = force / motion of the conductor.
• Right-hand rule → electric generator (mechanical → electrical energy).
• Left-hand rule → electric motor (electrical → mechanical energy).
• Induced current arises from electromagnetic induction, discovered by Michael Faraday (1831).
Do not mix these up
• Right-hand rule vs left-hand rule — right finds the current (generator); left finds the force / motion (motor).
• Fleming's right-hand rule vs right-hand thumb rule — the thumb rule gives the magnetic field around a current.
Also asked from this topic: the effect of rotating a generator coil at double speed (the induced potential difference doubles); the induced current in a rod moving north in an eastward field (vertically downward).
Electricity · Numericals on electricity

Q25. A conductor has a current of 150 mA flowing through it with a resistance of 0.8 Ω. Find the potential difference across the conductor.

  1. (a) 5.3 V
  2. (b) 120 V
  3. (c) 18.75 V
  4. (d) 0.12 V
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 0.12 V

Formula — Ohm's law.
Potential difference = current × resistance
V = I × R
Convert the current to amperes.
1 A = 1000 mA
I = 150 mA = 150 ÷ 1000 = 0.15 A
Substitute.
R = 0.8 Ω
V = 0.15 × 0.8 = 0.12 V
Answer: 0.12 V
Revision note — Ohm's law
• At constant temperature, V ∝ I, so V = IR; the V–I graph is a straight line through the origin.
• Units: V in volt, I in ampere, R in ohm (Ω); 1 Ω = 1 V/A.
• 1 mA = 10⁻³ A; 1 kΩ = 1000 Ω.
• Rearranged: I = V/R and R = V/I.
Also asked from this topic: the current when a 12 V battery is joined to a 6 Ω resistor (2 A); the quantity whose unit is volt per ampere (ohm).
Trap: using 150 instead of 0.15 A gives 120 V — always convert mA to A first.
Electricity · Resistance, resistivity and their factors

Q26. If a wire is stretched to quadruple its length without changing its area, what will happen to its resistivity?

  1. (a) It quadruples.
  2. (b) It remains the same.
  3. (c) It doubles.
  4. (d) It halves.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It remains the same.

Answer: Option 2 — It remains the same.
Resistivity (ρ) is a property of the material (and its temperature), not of the wire's shape.
Stretching changes the resistance, never the resistivity.
Revision note — Resistance and resistivity
• R = ρL/A — resistance is directly proportional to length and inversely proportional to area of cross-section.
• Resistivity depends only on the nature of the material and temperature; SI unit ohm metre (Ω m).
• A wire stretched to n times its length (volume fixed) has n² times the resistance — doubling gives 4R.
• Metals have low resistivity (10⁻⁸ Ω m); alloys like nichrome have higher resistivity and are used in heaters.
• Silver is the best conductor; copper and aluminium are used for transmission wires.
Do not mix these up
• Resistance vs resistivity — resistance changes with length, area and material; resistivity changes only with material and temperature.
Also asked from this topic: the new resistance when a 4 Ω wire is stretched to double its length (16 Ω); why nichrome is used in heaters (high resistivity and high melting point).
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Magnetic field and field lines

Q27. What do the magnetic field lines around a bar magnet represent?

  1. (a) The gravitational field
  2. (b) The flow of air around the magnet
  3. (c) The movement of electrons around the magnet
  4. (d) The direction and strength of the magnetic field
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The direction and strength of the magnetic field

Answer: Option 4 — The direction and strength of the magnetic field
The tangent to a field line at any point gives the direction of the field there, and the closeness of the lines shows its strength.
Revision note — Magnetic field lines
• Outside a magnet they run from north pole to south pole; inside, from south to north — so they are closed loops.
• Lines are crowded near the poles, where the field is strongest.
• No two field lines ever cross — at a crossing a compass would point two ways at once.
• The field direction at a point is the way the north pole of a compass points.
• Field lines are traced with iron filings or a compass needle; SI unit of magnetic field: tesla (T).
Also asked from this topic: what closely spaced field lines indicate (a stronger magnetic field); the pattern of field lines of a current-carrying solenoid (parallel straight lines inside, like a bar magnet outside).

Geography (2)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Himalayas - ranges and peaks

Q28. Which of the following states is also known as the ‘Molassis basin’, which is made up of soft unconsolidated deposits?

  1. (a) Mizoram
  2. (b) Meghalaya
  3. (c) Tripura
  4. (d) Assam
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mizoram

Answer: Option 1 — Mizoram
NCERT describes Mizoram as the 'Molassis basin', made up of soft, unconsolidated deposits.
It lies in the Purvanchal, the eastern hills of the Himalayan system.
Revision note — The Eastern Hills (Purvanchal)
• Beyond the Dihang gorge, the Himalayas bend south and run along India's eastern border as the Purvanchal.
• Its hills: Patkai Bum (Arunachal–Myanmar border), Naga hills, Manipur hills, Mizo (Lushai) hills.
• These are made mostly of sandstone (sedimentary rock) and are covered with dense forests.
• The Barak is the main river of the Manipur and Mizoram region.
• Loktak lake in Manipur, with its floating phumdis, lies in the middle of this area.
• Molasse = soft sediments shed from rising mountains and laid down in a basin in front of them.
Do not mix these up
• Mizo hills vs Meghalaya (Garo–Khasi–Jaintia) hills — Mizo hills belong to the Himalayan Purvanchal; the Meghalaya hills are part of the Peninsular plateau.
Also asked from this topic: the easternmost range of the Himalayas (Purvanchal); the hills NOT part of the eastern Himalayan extension (Khasi hills).
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Textile and other industries

Q29. According to the Annual Report 2019-20 of the Ministry of Textiles, India's textile industry contributes what percentage to the industry output, in value terms?

  1. (a) 6%
  2. (b) 18%
  3. (c) 7%
  4. (d) 15%
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 7%

Answer: Option 3 — 7%
The Ministry of Textiles Annual Report 2019-20 puts the textile and apparel industry's share at 7% of industry output in value terms.
Revision note — India's textile industry
• Report figures: about 2% of GDP, 7% of industry output, about 12% of export earnings.
• One of the largest employers after agriculture — over 4.5 crore workers directly.
• India is among the largest producers of cotton and jute and the second-largest producer of silk.
• The industry is self-reliant across the full value chain — from raw fibre to finished garments.
• The first modern cotton mill came up in Mumbai (1854); Ahmedabad is called the "Manchester of India".
• Key schemes: PM MITRA parks, PLI for textiles, SAMARTH (skilling).
Also asked from this topic: a unique feature of India's textile industry (self-reliant across the full value chain); a pair of agro-based industries (cotton textiles and sugar).

Current Affairs (5)

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q30. What is the name of the Lunar Polar Exploration Mission, a collaboration with Japan's JAXA which was approved by India's National Space Commission in October 2024?

  1. (a) Moonet
  2. (b) Mopex
  3. (c) Lupex
  4. (d) SpaceX
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Lupex

Answer: Option 3 — Lupex
LUPEX (Lunar Polar Exploration Mission) is a joint mission of ISRO and Japan's JAXA to explore the Moon's south polar region.
Revision note — LUPEX mission
• Main aim: study the quantity and quality of water (ice) in the lunar polar region.
• JAXA builds the launch vehicle (H3) and the rover; ISRO builds the lander.
• It will land near the permanently shadowed regions of the lunar south pole.
• JAXA = Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency; ISRO HQ is in Bengaluru.
• Earlier Indian Moon missions: Chandrayaan-1 (2008), Chandrayaan-2 (2019), Chandrayaan-3 (landed 23 August 2023) near the south pole.
• As of 2026: LUPEX is being taken up as Chandrayaan-5, to fly on Japan's H3 rocket.
Also asked from this topic: the launch vehicle for Chandrayaan-5 (H3-24L); the primary objective of LUPEX (to study water on the Moon).
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q31. In May 2024, the Indian Air Force successfully tested its Arogya Maitri Disaster Management Cube in __________.

  1. (a) Agra
  2. (b) Pokhran
  3. (c) Bhuj
  4. (d) Mysuru
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Agra

Answer: Option 1 — Agra
In May 2024 the Indian Air Force para-dropped the Aarogya Maitri Health Cube from a C-130J Super Hercules at the Agra drop zone and deployed it successfully.
Revision note — Aarogya Maitri Health Cube (BHISHM)
• Part of Project BHISHM — Bharat Health Initiative for Sahyog, Hita and Maitri.
• The world's first portable disaster hospital, built in cube-shaped modules that can be air-dropped.
• One set can treat about 200 casualties and carries medicines, surgical kits, food, power and a mobile operating theatre.
• The cubes are RFID-tagged and managed through a tablet app for quick inventory.
• Developed under the Aarogya Maitri initiative announced by India to supply medical aid to developing countries in disasters.
Agra is home to the IAF's Paratroopers Training School and its drop zone — most Indian air-drop trials happen there.
State News · State elections and results

Q32. How many seats did the Bhartiya Janata Party win in the Jammu & Kashmir assembly elections held in 2024?

  1. (a) 29
  2. (b) 49
  3. (c) 19
  4. (d) 39
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 29

Answer: Option 1 — 29
In the 2024 Jammu & Kashmir Assembly election (90 seats) the BJP won 29 seats, all from the Jammu region, and became the second-largest party.
Revision note — J&K Assembly election 2024
• First Assembly election in J&K after the abrogation of Article 370 (August 2019) and the first as a Union Territory.
• Held in three phases — 18 September, 25 September and 1 October 2024; results on 8 October 2024.
• Party tally: JKNC 42, BJP 29, Congress 6, PDP 3, out of 90 elected seats.
• Omar Abdullah (JKNC) became Chief Minister, winning from Ganderbal; Surinder Kumar Choudhary became Deputy CM.
• The Lieutenant Governor can nominate 5 members in addition to the 90 elected seats.
Also asked from this topic: the Deputy Chief Minister after the 2024 election (Surinder Kumar Choudhary, JKNC); the constituency of the Chief Minister (Ganderbal).
42 is the National Conference's figure — do not mix up the winner's tally with the BJP's.
International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q33. What was the venue of the 23^(rd) meeting of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) in 2024?

  1. (a) New Delhi, India
  2. (b) Sanghai, China
  3. (c) Dhaka, Bangladesh
  4. (d) Islamabad, Pakistan
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Islamabad, Pakistan

Answer: Option 4 — Islamabad, Pakistan
The 23rd meeting of the SCO Council of Heads of Government was hosted by Pakistan in Islamabad on 15–16 October 2024; India was represented by External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar.
Revision note — Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
• Founded on 15 June 2001 in Shanghai; grew out of the Shanghai Five (1996).
• Founding members: China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan.
• India and Pakistan became full members in 2017 (Astana summit); Iran in 2023; Belarus in 2024 — 10 members.
• Secretariat: Beijing; Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS): Tashkent.
• Official languages: Russian and Chinese.
• The Heads of State Council (summit) is the top body — the 2024 summit was at Astana, Kazakhstan (July 2024); India chaired the SCO in 2023 (virtual summit, New Delhi).
Do not mix these up
• Heads of State vs Heads of Government meeting — the summit (Heads of State) in 2024 was at Astana; the Heads of Government (Prime Ministers) meeting in 2024 was at Islamabad.
Also asked from this topic: the year India became a full member of the SCO (2017); the city where the SCO was established (Shanghai); an official language of the SCO (Chinese).
Jaishankar's trip was the first visit to Pakistan by an Indian External Affairs Minister in nearly a decade — that is why the venue was in the news.
Sports - Current · Cricket - current

Q34. Which of the following teams won the 17^(th) Edition of Indian Premier League?

  1. (a) Delhi Capitals
  2. (b) Mumbai Indians
  3. (c) Chennai Superkings
  4. (d) Kolkata Knight Riders
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Kolkata Knight Riders

Answer: Option 4 — Kolkata Knight Riders
Kolkata Knight Riders (KKR) won IPL 2024, the 17th edition, beating Sunrisers Hyderabad by 8 wickets in the final.
Revision note — Indian Premier League
• IPL 2024 final: 26 May 2024, M. A. Chidambaram Stadium (Chepauk), Chennai.
• KKR captain: Shreyas Iyer; it was KKR's third title (2012, 2014, 2024).
• Player of the final: Mitchell Starc; Player of the tournament: Sunil Narine.
• Orange Cap 2024: Virat Kohli; Purple Cap 2024: Harshal Patel.
• First season: 2008, won by Rajasthan Royals; run by the BCCI.
• Most titles: Mumbai Indians and Chennai Super Kings — 5 each.
• The 18th edition (2025) was won by Royal Challengers Bengaluru — their first title.
Also asked from this topic: the year of the first IPL season (2008, won by Rajasthan Royals).

Ancient History (1)

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Stupas and chaityas

Q35. What is the primary function of ‘viharas’ in Buddhist architecture?

  1. (a) To hold public gatherings
  2. (b) To house relics
  3. (c) To serve as residential places for Buddhist priests
  4. (d) To serve as meditation halls
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To serve as residential places for Buddhist priests

Answer: Option 3 — To serve as residential places for Buddhist priests
A vihara is a Buddhist monastery — the place where monks (bhikkhus) lived, especially during the rainy season.
Revision note — Buddhist architecture
• Stupa — a solid dome over the relics of the Buddha or a monk (e.g. Sanchi, Bharhut, Amaravati).
• Chaitya — a prayer / congregational hall, often apsidal, with a small stupa at the end (e.g. Karle, Bhaja).
• Vihara — residence of monks: cells around a central courtyard.
• Rock-cut chaityas and viharas: Ajanta, Ellora, Karle, Bhaja, Nasik.
• Great viharas became universities: Nalanda (founded by Kumaragupta I) and Vikramashila (founded by Dharmapala).
Do not mix these up
• Stupa vs chaitya vs vihara — relics, prayer hall, living quarters.
Also asked from this topic: the main function of chaityas (congregational halls); a site famous for rock-cut chaityas and viharas (Ajanta); the plan of the Panch Mahal, Fatehpur Sikri (Buddhist vihara).

Polity (3)

Judiciary · High Courts

Q36. Which of the following Constitution Amendments empowers Parliament to establish common High court for two or more than two States?

  1. (a) 9^(th) Constitutional Amendment Act
  2. (b) 7^(th )Constitutional Amendment Act
  3. (c) 6^(th) Constitutional Amendment Act
  4. (d) 8^(th) Constitutional Amendment Act
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 7^(th )Constitutional Amendment Act

Answer: Option 2 — 7th Constitutional Amendment Act
The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 empowered Parliament to establish a common High Court for two or more States (and a Union Territory) under Article 231.
Revision note — High Courts and the 7th Amendment
• Article 214: there shall be a High Court for each State.
• Article 231: Parliament may by law establish a common High Court for two or more States — e.g. Guwahati High Court (Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh), Punjab & Haryana High Court (with Chandigarh).
• The 7th Amendment (1956) gave effect to the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 — it abolished the Part A, B, C, D classification and created 14 States and 6 Union Territories.
• The same amendment allowed Parliament to extend a High Court's jurisdiction to a Union Territory (Article 230).
• India has 25 High Courts; the oldest is the Calcutta High Court (1862).
• Judges of a High Court are appointed by the President (Article 217) and retire at 62.
Also asked from this topic: common High Court for two or more States (Article 231); a High Court for each State (Article 214); a High Court shared by several States (Guwahati).
The 7th Amendment is the "States Reorganisation" amendment — common High Courts came with the redrawn map.
Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q37. Which of the following articles deals with the office of the special officer for Linguistic Minorities?

  1. (a) 350-A
  2. (b) 350-B
  3. (c) 351-B
  4. (d) 351-A
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 350-B

Answer: Option 2 — 350-B
Article 350B provides for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities, appointed by the President, to look into the safeguards given to linguistic minorities.
Revision note — Official language provisions (Part XVII)
• Part XVII covers Articles 343–351 on the official language.
• Article 343: Hindi in Devanagari is the official language of the Union.
• Article 350A: facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage.
• Article 350B: Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities; he reports to the President, whose reports are laid before Parliament. Both 350A and 350B were added by the 7th Amendment, 1956.
• Article 351: directive for the development of the Hindi language.
• The Special Officer is also called the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities; the office functions under the Ministry of Minority Affairs.
Do not mix these up
• 350A vs 350B — 350A is about mother-tongue teaching; 350B is about the Special Officer for linguistic minorities.
Also asked from this topic: the Article for the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities (Article 350-B); the officer provided under Article 350B (Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities).
A for Alphabet-learning in the mother tongue, B for the Babu (officer) — 350A and 350B.
Judiciary · Landmark judgments

Q38. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court mention that the Fundamental Right to Primary Education is the Right to Life under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) P Sambamurthy vs Union of India
  2. (b) Shreya Singhal vs Union of India
  3. (c) Navtej Singh Johar vs Union of India
  4. (d) Unni Krishnan vs State of Andhra Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Unni Krishnan vs State of Andhra Pradesh

Answer: Option 4 — Unni Krishnan vs State of Andhra Pradesh
In Unni Krishnan, J.P. vs State of Andhra Pradesh (1993) the Supreme Court held that the right to education up to 14 years flows from the Right to Life under Article 21.
Revision note — Right to Education in the Constitution
• Mohini Jain vs State of Karnataka (1992) first linked education with Article 21.
• Unni Krishnan (1993) limited it: free education is a fundamental right for children up to 14 years.
• The 86th Amendment Act, 2002 added Article 21A (free and compulsory education for 6–14 years).
• The same amendment changed Article 45 (DPSP: early childhood care up to 6 years) and added Article 51A(k) (Fundamental Duty of parents).
• The RTE Act, 2009 came into force on 1 April 2010.
Do not mix these up
• Article 21 vs Article 21A — the courts read education into Article 21 (1992–93); Article 21A was added later by the 86th Amendment (2002).
• Mohini Jain vs Unni Krishnan — Mohini Jain (1992) linked education to Article 21; Unni Krishnan (1993) limited the right to 14 years.
Also asked from this topic: the Article that gives the right to education (Article 21A); the amendment that made education a Fundamental Right (86th Amendment Act, 2002).

Static GK (1)

Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q39. Who is the author of 'Fiction as History: The Novel and the City in Modern North India,' published in 2019?

  1. (a) Vasudha Dalmia
  2. (b) Jhumpa Lahiri
  3. (c) Arundhati Roy
  4. (d) Salman Rushdie
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Vasudha Dalmia

Answer: Option 1 — Vasudha Dalmia
Fiction as History: The Novel and the City in Modern North India (2019) is by literary historian Vasudha Dalmia; it reads early Hindi novels as a history of the north Indian city and its society.
Revision note — Vasudha Dalmia and her work
• Vasudha Dalmia is a scholar of Hindi literature and modern Indian culture; she taught at the University of California, Berkeley.
• The Nationalization of Hindu Traditions — her study of Bharatendu Harishchandra and 19th-century Banaras.
• Poetics, Plays and Performances — on modern Hindi theatre (including Habib Tanvir).
• Fiction as History treats the Hindi novel as a record of how the north Indian city and its society changed.
"History" in a title often signals an academic, non-fiction book — look for the scholar among the novelists.

Modern History (1)

Gandhian Era · Khilafat and Non-Cooperation Movement

Q40. The Khilafat committee was formed in Bombay, to defend temporal powers of Khalifa, in _________.

  1. (a) June 1919
  2. (b) July 1919
  3. (c) March 1919
  4. (d) January 1919
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) March 1919

Answer: Option 3 — March 1919
Ottoman Turkey was defeated in the First World War.
A harsh treaty was feared for the Khalifa, the spiritual head of the Islamic world.
To defend his temporal powers, a Khilafat Committee was formed in Bombay in March 1919.
Revision note — Khilafat Movement
• Led by the Ali brothers — Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali.
• Other leaders: Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, Hakim Ajmal Khan, Hasrat Mohani.
• Gandhiji saw it as a chance to bring Hindus and Muslims into one united national movement.
• 17 October 1919 was observed as Khilafat Day; Gandhi presided over the All India Khilafat Conference at Delhi (November 1919).
• Calcutta session (September 1920) accepted the non-cooperation programme; Nagpur session (December 1920) endorsed it.
• The Non-Cooperation-Khilafat Movement began in January 1921.
• It was called off after the Chauri Chaura incident (February 1922); the Khilafat issue ended when Turkey abolished the Caliphate in 1924.
Also asked from this topic: when the Non-Cooperation-Khilafat Movement began (January 1921); the incident after which Gandhi withdrew the Non-Cooperation Movement (Chauri Chaura).
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