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RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 19 February 2026 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 41 GK / GS questions asked in RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 on 19 February 2026, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Polity, Modern History, Current Affairs, Static GK, Chemistry.

📚 41 questions🗓️ 19 February 2026
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Subjects: Economics (5) · Polity (5) · Modern History (6) · Current Affairs (14) · Static GK (3) · Chemistry (2) · Geography (6)

Economics (5)

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Sustainable Development Goals

Q1. Match the following List-I (World Events) with List-II (Outcomes) and choose your answer from the code given below. World Events (List -I) Outcome (List-II)1. United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, 1972 i) Millennium Development Goals (MDG)2. Brundtland Report, 1987 ii) Adoption of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)3. UN Millennium Summit, 2000 iii) Environmental Movement4. UN Summit, 2015 iv) The word ‘Sustainable Development’ was introduced

  1. (a) 1(iii), 2(iv), 3(i), 4(ii)
  2. (b) 1(i), 2(iv), 3(iii), 4(ii)
  3. (c) 1(i), 2(ii), 3(iii), 4(iv)
  4. (d) 1(i), 2(ii), 3(iv), 4(iii)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1(iii), 2(iv), 3(i), 4(ii)

Match the events with their correct outcomes:
1. United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, 1972 − resulted in Environmental Movement (iii).
2. Brundtland Report, 1987 − introduced the term 'Sustainable Development' (iv).
3. UN Millennium Summit, 2000 − led to Millennium Development Goals (MDG) (i).
4. UN Summit, 2015 − adopted Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) (ii).
Hence, correct matching is 1(iii), 2(iv), 3(i), 4(ii).
Final answer: Option 1
National Income · Economic growth and development

Q2. The 'Middle-Income Trap' refers to ____________.

  1. (a) Rapid transition to high-income status
  2. (b) Struggle to attain high income status
  3. (c) Over-reliance on foreign aid
  4. (d) Exclusive focus on agriculture
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Struggle to attain high income status

The 'Middle-Income Trap' is an economic condition.
It describes the difficulty countries face after achieving middle-income levels but fail to progress to high-income status.
Countries struggle to sustain growth and upgrade industries or move up the value chain.
Hence, the trap is the struggle to reach high income status after initial growth.
Option 2 is correct.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q3. What global events in late 2019 and early 2020 have contributed to a rethinking of globalisation strategies among policymakers?

  1. (a) COVID-19 pandemic
  2. (b) Decrease in oil prices and global warming
  3. (c) Urbanization and migration
  4. (d) Technological stagnation and inflation
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) COVID-19 pandemic

The COVID-19 pandemic began spreading globally in late 2019 and early 2020.
It caused major disruptions in global supply chains, travel, and trade.
Policymakers worldwide reconsidered their globalisation strategies to enhance resilience and reduce dependence on single sources.
None of the other options had as significant an impact on rethinking globalisation during that period.
Hence, the correct answer is COVID-19 pandemic.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Direct taxes

Q4. Which of the following was NOT a major recommendation of the Kelkar Task Force (2002) on direct taxes?

  1. (a) Elimination of the minimum alternate tax on corporate entities
  2. (b) Elimination of the standard deduction for salaried taxpayers
  3. (c) Reduction in corporate tax rate to 40 percent for domestic companies
  4. (d) Extension of PAN to cover all economic agents/citizens
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Reduction in corporate tax rate to 40 percent for domestic companies

The Kelkar Task Force (2002) recommended measures to rationalise and simplify direct taxes in India.
It suggested the elimination of minimum alternate tax (MAT) on corporate entities to reduce tax litigation and improve tax system fairness.
It also recommended removal of the standard deduction for salaried taxpayers to widen the tax base and simplify calculations.
Extension of PAN (Permanent Account Number) to all economic agents/citizens was advised to improve tax compliance and tracking.
However, it did NOT recommend reducing the corporate tax rate to 40% for domestic companies; this was not part of their major recommendations.
Hence, Option 3 is the correct answer as the recommendation that was NOT made by the Kelkar Task Force.
Economics Miscellaneous · Economic reform committees

Q5. Who was the Chairman of the 'Committee to Review Policy for Public Enterprises', set up by the Government of India in 1984?

  1. (a) Subimal Dutt
  2. (b) S. S. Tarapore
  3. (c) Arjun Sengupta
  4. (d) K. Kasturirangan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Arjun Sengupta

The 'Committee to Review Policy for Public Enterprises' was set up by the Government of India in 1984.
Arjun Sengupta was appointed as the Chairman of this committee.
This committee played a key role in recommending reforms for public sector enterprises.
Hence, the correct answer is Arjun Sengupta.

Polity (5)

Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q6. An individual who is not a member of either House of Parliament may be appointed to the Council of Ministers; however, they must become a member of either House within a specified time frame of:

  1. (a) 12 Months
  2. (b) 09 Months
  3. (c) 06 Months
  4. (d) 03 Months
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 06 Months

An individual not initially a member of either House of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister.
Constitution of India mandates such a person must get elected or nominated to either House within 6 months.
If the person fails to become a member within 6 months, they cease to be a Minister.
Therefore, the specified time frame is 6 months, i.e., Option 3.
This is as per Article 75(5) of the Indian Constitution.
Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.
Fundamental Rights · Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24)

Q7. Article 23 of the Indian Constitution prohibits which of the following?

  1. (a) Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth
  2. (b) Prohibition of solemnisation of child marriages
  3. (c) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
  4. (d) Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour

Correct option is 3.
Article 23 of the Indian Constitution prohibits trafficking in human beings and forced labour.
It is one of the Fundamental Rights under the chapter on Right against Exploitation.
This article ensures no person is subjected to trafficking or forced labour.
Other options relate to different laws or articles.
Hence, the answer is option 3.
This completes the answer.
Amendments and Important Articles · Major constitutional amendments

Q8. The 44ᵗʰ Amendment Act of 1978 restored the standard term of the Lok Sabha and State Legislature to how many years?

  1. (a) five
  2. (b) seven
  3. (c) three
  4. (d) six
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) five

The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restored the term of the Lok Sabha and State Legislatures to five years.
Before the amendment, during emergency, the term was extended up to seven years.
This amendment reinstated the original duration defined in the Constitution.
Hence, the correct term restored is five years.
Final answer: Option 1
Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q9. What is the constitutional consequence if the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the ruling government?

  1. (a) Only the Prime Minister must submit resignation
  2. (b) The Council of Ministers is obligated to step down
  3. (c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is removed by the President
  4. (d) The government may continue without any change
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Council of Ministers is obligated to step down

When the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion, it means the House has expressed lack of support for the ruling government.
According to the Constitution of India, this requires the entire Council of Ministers to resign.
The government must step down as it no longer enjoys the majority support in the Lok Sabha.
Therefore, the Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, is obliged to resign after such a motion is passed.
Option 2 is correct.
Answer complete and verified.
Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Oaths, emoluments and other provisions

Q10. What is the correct sequence in which the oath of office binds a Union Minister?

  1. (a) Integrity → Constitution → Sovereignty → Duty → Impartiality (justice without fear or favour)
  2. (b) Constitution → Justice → Integrity → Sovereignty
  3. (c) Allegiance to the → Constitution, → Sovereignty and integrity → Faithful discharge of duties→ Impartiality
  4. (d) Allegiance → Sovereignty → Duty and Impartiality→ Faithful discharge
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Allegiance to the → Constitution, → Sovereignty and integrity → Faithful discharge of duties→ Impartiality

The oath of office for a Union Minister follows a specific order reflecting key principles.
First, there is allegiance to the Constitution, establishing loyalty to the supreme law of India.
Next, the Minister swears to uphold sovereignty and integrity of the country.
Then comes the promise for faithful discharge of duties, ensuring responsibility and dedication.
Finally, it includes impartiality, meaning justice without fear or favour.
Hence, Option 3 correctly presents the sequence of the oath of office for Union Ministers.
Final answer: Option 3

Modern History (6)

Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Anti-caste and depressed-class movements

Q11. How did Mahatma Gandhi’s views on untouchability shape the priorities of the Indian National Congress during the Gandhian phase?

  1. (a) Endorsing separate political electorates for communities
  2. (b) Making abolition of untouchability a central objective
  3. (c) Concentrating on political integration of princely states
  4. (d) Shifting primary focus toward agrarian economic reforms
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Making abolition of untouchability a central objective

Mahatma Gandhi strongly opposed untouchability and called it a social evil.
During the Gandhian phase, he made the abolition of untouchability a core priority of the Indian National Congress.
This is why the Congress actively worked to eradicate untouchability and uplift the Harijans (Dalits).
Other options like separate electorates or agrarian reforms, though important, were not the central focus related to Gandhi's views on untouchability.
Hence, making abolition of untouchability a central objective is the correct answer.
Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · Home Rule Leagues

Q12. The Indian Home Rule League at Madras was founded by ______.

  1. (a) Subhas Chandra Bose
  2. (b) Annie Besant
  3. (c) Bala Gangadhar Tilak
  4. (d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Annie Besant

The Indian Home Rule League at Madras was founded by Annie Besant.
Annie Besant was a prominent leader who championed Indian self-rule.
She established the Home Rule League in Madras in 1916 to promote autonomy.
Other leaders like Tilak also founded Home Rule Leagues but in different regions.
Therefore, the correct founder at Madras is Annie Besant.
Final answer: Option 2
Gandhian Era · Champaran, Kheda and Ahmedabad

Q13. What key difference set the Kheda Satyagraha apart from the Ahmedabad Mill Strike during the phase of heightened nationalist activity?

  1. (a) Reliance on petitions and appeals to colonial authorities
  2. (b) Common leadership under the same nationalist figures
  3. (c) Emphasis on constitutional and legislative demands
  4. (d) Mobilisation of rural peasants versus organisation of urban workers
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mobilisation of rural peasants versus organisation of urban workers

The Kheda Satyagraha was mainly a peasants' movement in rural areas.
It focused on farmers in the Kheda district protesting against tax increases during famine and plague.
In contrast, the Ahmedabad Mill Strike involved urban workers in the textile mills fighting for better wages and working conditions.
Thus, the key difference lies in the mobilisation base: rural peasants versus urban industrial workers.
Final answer: Option 4
Revolt of 1857 · Causes of the revolt

Q14. What was the immediate cause that sparked the 1857 uprising among Indian sepoys?

  1. (a) Disbandment of local rulers
  2. (b) Use of greased cartridges in Enfield rifles
  3. (c) Heavy taxation
  4. (d) Attack on Lucknow by the British army
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Use of greased cartridges in Enfield rifles

The immediate cause of the 1857 uprising was the use of greased cartridges in Enfield rifles.
The cartridges were believed to be greased with cow and pig fat, offending both Hindu and Muslim sepoys.
This sparked widespread anger and was the final spark leading to revolt.
Hence, the primary trigger was the cartridge issue, not taxation or attacks on Lucknow.
Disbandment of local rulers was not the immediate cause but a background factor.
Final answer: Option 2
Gandhian Era · Communal Award and Poona Pact

Q15. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the Poona Pact of 1932?

  1. (a) It dropped the idea of separate electorates for depressed classes.
  2. (b) It was accepted by the government.
  3. (c) Seats reserved for depressed classes increased in the legislatures.
  4. (d) Ambedkar refused to sign the pact.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ambedkar refused to sign the pact.

Correct option is 4.
Poona Pact of 1932 was an agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
It dropped the idea of separate electorates for depressed classes.
Seats reserved for depressed classes actually increased.
The British government accepted the pact.
Ambedkar did not refuse to sign the pact; rather, he was a signatory.
Therefore, statement 4 is NOT true regarding the Poona Pact.
Final answer: Option 4
Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Raja Ram Mohan Roy and Brahmo Samaj

Q16. Which reformer attempted to synthesize Indian and Western religious thought in the 19th century?

  1. (a) Swami Vivekananda
  2. (b) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
  3. (c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
  4. (d) Keshab Chandra Sen
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Solution
Raja Ram Mohan Roytried tosynthesize Indian and Western religious ideasduring the 19th century.
He combinedUpanishadic monotheismwithmodern Western rationalism and liberal thought.
Through theBrahmo Samaj (1828), he promoted religious reform, opposed social evils likeSati, and encouraged auniversal, rational religion.
Hence, he is known for attempting toblend Indian spiritual traditions with Western intellectual ideas.

Current Affairs (14)

State News · State schemes and events

Q17. In 2025, which Indian state government announced a legacy policy aimed at ensuring the long-term utilization of sports infrastructure developed for the National Games?

  1. (a) Maharashtra
  2. (b) Bihar
  3. (c) Uttarakhand
  4. (d) Gujarat
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Uttarakhand

The legacy policy to ensure long-term use of sports infrastructure from the National Games was announced by the Uttarakhand government in 2025.
This policy aims at maximising the utility of the facilities beyond the event.
Hence, Uttarakhand is the correct answer.
Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q18. In April 2025, which two Indian cricketers were featured in the Wisden 2025 honours list?

  1. (a) Ravichandran Ashwin and Jemimah Rodrigues
  2. (b) Rohit Sharma and Renuka Thakur
  3. (c) Jasprit Bumrah and Smriti Mandhana
  4. (d) Ravindra Jadeja and Harmanpreet Kaur
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Jasprit Bumrah and Smriti Mandhana

The Wisden Cricketers' Almanack 2025 honoured leading cricketers of India based on their performance.
Jasprit Bumrah and Smriti Mandhana featured prominently in the Wisden 2025 honours list due to their outstanding cricket achievements.
No other Indian pairs among the options were included in the 2025 Wisden honourees.
Thus, the correct answer is Jasprit Bumrah and Smriti Mandhana.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q19. In January 2025, India became the fourth nation in the world to successfully dock two satellites in space. What was the name of this mission?

  1. (a) Gaganyaan
  2. (b) Mars Orbiter
  3. (c) SpaDeX
  4. (d) Chandrayaan-3
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) SpaDeX

India successfully docked two satellites in space in January 2025 under the SpaDeX mission.
SpaDeX stands for Space Docking Experiment.
This made India the fourth nation after the USA, Russia, and China to perform space docking successfully.
Gaganyaan is India’s manned space mission, but unrelated to satellite docking.
Mars Orbiter and Chandrayaan-3 are interplanetary missions, not docking missions.
Thus, the correct name for the mission is SpaDeX.
Final answer: Option 3
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q20. In May 2025, DRDO’s DMSRDE laboratory in _________ created an advanced polymeric membrane designed for high-pressure desalination of seawater.

  1. (a) Jaipur
  2. (b) Kanpur
  3. (c) Hyderabad
  4. (d) Pune
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kanpur

The Defence Materials and Stores Research and Development Establishment (DMSRDE) is located in Kanpur.
In May 2025, DMSRDE Kanpur developed an advanced polymeric membrane for high-pressure seawater desalination.
This technology is aimed at addressing water scarcity by efficient desalination processes.
Hence, the correct location associated with this development is Kanpur.
Final answer: Option 2
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q21. In the 2024 Global Hunger Index released on October 2024, India is ranked 105ᵗʰ out of the how many countries?

  1. (a) 195
  2. (b) 127
  3. (c) 90
  4. (d) 210
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 127

Solution
• In theGlobal Hunger Index (GHI) 2024, India was ranked105ᵗʰ.
• The ranking was done among127 countries.
• The index measureshunger based on undernourishment, child wasting, child stunting and child mortality.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q22. India is ranked at what position among 142 Countries, in the World Justice Project(WJP) Rule of Law Index 2024, released on October 2024?

  1. (a) 14th
  2. (b) 10th
  3. (c) 52nd
  4. (d) 79th
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 79th

India is ranked 79th among 142 countries in the World Justice Project (WJP) Rule of Law Index 2024.
The ranking reflects India's position based on the assessment released in October 2024.
This is important for understanding India's relative rule of law status globally.
Hence, the correct ranking is 79th.
Final answer: Option 4
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Health and medical research

Q23. What was the primary theme of the International Symposium on Health Technology Assessment (ISHTA) 2025?

  1. (a) Showcasing medical device technologies
  2. (b) Promoting digital health innovations
  3. (c) Enhancing global health security efforts
  4. (d) Bridging evidence to policy for healthcare
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bridging evidence to policy for healthcare

The primary theme of the International Symposium on Health Technology Assessment (ISHTA) 2025 was focused on bridging evidence to policy for healthcare.
This means the symposium aimed to connect scientific evidence on health technologies with practical policy-making to improve healthcare outcomes.
Thus, it was not just about technology showcase or innovations but about the translation of evidence into policy decisions.
Hence, option 4 is correct.
Final answer: Option 4
Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q24. Which Indian filmmaker was inducted as a registered member of the European Film Academy in 2025?

  1. (a) Sriram Raghavan
  2. (b) Kiran Rao
  3. (c) Pan Nalin
  4. (d) Neeraj Ghaywan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pan Nalin

Correct option is 3: Pan Nalin.
Pan Nalin was inducted as a registered member of the European Film Academy in 2025.
This membership recognises his contribution to cinema internationally.
Other options like Sriram Raghavan, Kiran Rao, and Neeraj Ghaywan were not inducted in 2025.
Hence, Pan Nalin is the right answer.
Final answer: Option 3
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q25. Which state hosted the 38ᵗʰ National Games of India in 2025?

  1. (a) Maharashtra
  2. (b) Uttarakhand
  3. (c) Karnataka
  4. (d) Gujarat
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Uttarakhand

The 38th National Games of India were hosted by Uttarakhand in 2025.
Uttarakhand successfully organised the games, showcasing various sports disciplines across the state.
This was the first time Uttarakhand hosted the National Games.
Hence, the correct answer is Uttarakhand.
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Books released

Q26. Who is the author of the book 'Leo: The Untold Story of Chennai Super Kings', which was launched in March 2025?

  1. (a) K. Chandrashekharan
  2. (b) P.S. Raman
  3. (c) Ravichandran Ashwin
  4. (d) Aniruddha Srikanth
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) P.S. Raman

Solution
• The book“Leo: The Untold Story of Chennai Super Kings”was launched inMarch 2025 in Chennai.
• It was written byP.S. Raman, a senior advocate and formerVice-President of the Tamil Nadu Cricket Association (TNCA).
• The book describes thehistory, controversies, and success journey of the IPL team Chennai Super Kings (CSK).
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Books released

Q27. Who is the author of the book titled 'I Am?', which was launched by Vice-president of India, Jagdeep Dhankhar in February 2025?

  1. (a) Gopichand P. Hinduja
  2. (b) Roshni Nadar
  3. (c) Satya Nadella
  4. (d) Grandhi Mallikarjuna Rao
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Gopichand P. Hinduja

Correct Answer: Gopichand P. Hinduja
The book“I Am?”wascompiled/ authored by Gopichand P. Hinduja, Chairman of the Hinduja Group.
It waslaunched by the Vice-President of India, Jagdeep Dhankhar, in February 2025at the Vice President Enclave.
The book focuses onphilosophical reflections, spirituality, and multicultural understanding, reflecting the author’s life experiences and beliefs.
State News · State schemes and events

Q28. Who is the Chairperson of the Hyderabad City Security Council (HCSC) supporting the STREE Summit 2025?

  1. (a) CV Anand
  2. (b) Joshna Chinappa
  3. (c) Geeta Goti
  4. (d) C Shekar Reddy
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) CV Anand

Explanation:
TheSTREE Summit 2025was organized by theHyderabad City Security Council (HCSC)in Hyderabad.
TheChairperson of HCSCsupporting the summit isC. V. Anand, who is also theHyderabad City Police Commissioner.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q29. Who was appointed as the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission by President Droupadi Murmu in May 2025?

  1. (a) Dr. Alok Kumar
  2. (b) Dr. Ajay Kumar
  3. (c) Dr. Ajit Kumar
  4. (d) Dr. Anil Kumar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dr. Ajay Kumar

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) Chairman is appointed by the President of India.
In May 2025, President Droupadi Murmu appointed Dr. Ajay Kumar as the Chairman of UPSC.
This is an official announcement and part of important current affairs for competitive exams.
Hence, the correct answer is Dr. Ajay Kumar, option 2.
This completes the answer.
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q30. Who was honored with the Padma Shri in 2025 for preserving the traditional Tanglia weaving art?

  1. (a) Vinayak Lohani
  2. (b) Pawan Goenka
  3. (c) Prashanth Prakash
  4. (d) Parmar Lavjibhai Nagjibhai
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Parmar Lavjibhai Nagjibhai

Padma Shri is one of India's prestigious civilian awards.
Parmar Lavjibhai Nagjibhai was honoured in 2025 for preserving the traditional Tanglia weaving art.
This award recognised his efforts in sustaining and promoting this cultural craft.
Thus, the correct recipient for the Padma Shri in this context is Parmar Lavjibhai Nagjibhai.
Final answer: Option 4

Static GK (3)

Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q31. The Indian classical dance forms Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam originated in which Indian states, respectively?

  1. (a) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
  2. (b) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
  3. (c) Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

The classical dance form Kuchipudi originated in Andhra Pradesh.
The classical dance form Bharatanatyam originated in Tamil Nadu.
Therefore, Kuchipudi is from Andhra Pradesh and Bharatanatyam is from Tamil Nadu.
Hence, the correct option is Option 3.
Final answer: Option 3
Dances · Classical dance exponents

Q32. The Indian dancer Guru Vempati Chinna Satyam was related to which dance form, for which he was honoured with the Padma Bhushan in 1998?

  1. (a) Kathakali
  2. (b) Kuchipudi
  3. (c) Manipuri
  4. (d) Mohiniyattam
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kuchipudi

Guru Vempati Chinna Satyam was a renowned exponent of Kuchipudi dance form.
He greatly contributed to popularising Kuchipudi globally.
In recognition of his work, he was honoured with the Padma Bhushan in 1998.
Hence, the dance form related to Guru Vempati Chinna Satyam is Kuchipudi.
Final answer: Option 2
Music and Musical Instruments · Carnatic music

Q33. The term 'Ragam-Tanam-Pallavi' is associated with which style of Indian music?

  1. (a) Folk Music
  2. (b) Sufi Music
  3. (c) Hindustani Music
  4. (d) Carnatic Music
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Carnatic Music

The term 'Ragam-Tanam-Pallavi' belongs to the South Indian classical music tradition.
It is a central piece in Carnatic Music compositions and performances.
Ragam refers to the melodic improvisation, Tanam to the rhythmic improvisation, and Pallavi is the thematic line sung.
This style is distinct from Hindustani Music and other styles like Folk or Sufi Music.
Hence, the correct answer is Carnatic Music.

Chemistry (2)

Environmental Chemistry · Pollution control devices

Q34. Which measure has been made mandatory for brick kilns in India to reduce emissions, as per the 2024 government report on pollution control?

  1. (a) Use of electrostatic filters in stacks
  2. (b) Conversion to solar thermal drying systems
  3. (c) Transition to zig-zag kiln technology
  4. (d) Retrofitting of biomass combustion units
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Transition to zig-zag kiln technology

The 2024 government report mandates zig-zag kiln technology for brick kilns in India.
This technology reduces emissions significantly compared to traditional methods.
It improves combustion efficiency and cuts down air pollutants.
Thus, adoption of zig-zag kiln technology is compulsory to control pollution from brick kilns.
Final answer: Option 3
Environmental Chemistry · Air quality management (AQI, NAAQS, NCAP, GRAP)

Q35. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Comprehensive Environmental Pollution Index?

  1. (a) It was first introduced in 1983.
  2. (b) All the polluting sources identified in the area shall be notified and brought into the public domain.
  3. (c) It shall be an early warning tool.
  4. (d) It can applied to locations other than industrial clusters.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It was first introduced in 1983.

Correct option: 1
Comprehensive Environmental Pollution Index (CEPI) was introduced by the Central Pollution Control Board of India much later than 1983, around 2009.
The other features are correct:
- CEPI notifies all polluting sources in an area publicly.
- It acts as an early warning tool to identify pollution levels.
- It can be applied to locations beyond just industrial clusters.
Therefore, 'It was first introduced in 1983' is NOT a feature of CEPI.
Answer closed.

Geography (6)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Coastal plains

Q36. Which of the following coastal features in India is believed to have submerged due to tectonic or sea-level changes, as referenced in Indian mythology and archaeology?

  1. (a) Kavaratti in Lakshadweep
  2. (b) Dwaraka near Gujarat
  3. (c) Rameshwaram near Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Sunderbans in West Bengal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dwaraka near Gujarat

Option 2 is correct: Dwaraka near Gujarat.
Dwaraka is historically and mythologically cited as the submerged city of Lord Krishna.
Archaeological findings off the coast of Gujarat support the existence of an ancient submerged settlement.
Tectonic activities and sea-level rise are believed to have caused its submergence.
No other options listed have strong claims of submergence linked with mythology and archaeology.
Hence, the answer is Dwaraka near Gujarat.
Final answer: Option 2
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Himalayas - ranges and peaks

Q37. Which of the following features distinguishes the Purvanchal hills from the rest of the Himalayan mountain system?

  1. (a) They include the Aravalli and Satpura hill groups
  2. (b) They form the highest peaks of the Zanskar range
  3. (c) They stretch in a convex arc along the eastern frontier
  4. (d) They are snow-covered throughout the year
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) They stretch in a convex arc along the eastern frontier

The Purvanchal hills are located in the eastern part of the Himalayan mountain system.
They are characterised by stretching in a convex arc along the eastern frontier of India.
Other options are incorrect:
1. Aravalli and Satpura hills are separate hill systems, not part of Purvanchal.
2. The highest peaks of the Zanskar range are in the western Himalayas.
4. Purvanchal hills are not snow-covered throughout the year, unlike the higher Himalayas.
Hence, option 3 correctly distinguishes the Purvanchal hills from the rest of the Himalayas.
Final answer: Option 3
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Northern Plains

Q38. Which of the following is the main reason for the flatness of the Great Indian Plains?

  1. (a) Tectonic uplift
  2. (b) River deposition
  3. (c) Glacial erosion
  4. (d) Wind erosion
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) River deposition

The Great Indian Plains are formed mainly by the sediments brought by the rivers.
These rivers flow from the Himalayas and surrounding highlands, depositing alluvial soil over a large area.
This river deposition results in the flat and fertile plains found in Northern India.
Other causes like tectonic uplift or erosion play a lesser role in shaping the plains' flatness.
Hence, the primary reason for the flatness of the Great Indian Plains is river deposition.
Final answer: Option 2
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Coastal plains

Q39. Which of the following options correctly explains why the eastern coastal plains of India are wider and more deltaic than the western coastal plains?

  1. (a) Eastern rivers flow over steep gradients
  2. (b) Eastern plains have more tectonic uplift
  3. (c) Eastern plains receive less tidal influence
  4. (d) Eastern rivers form large deltas due to gentle slopes
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Eastern rivers form large deltas due to gentle slopes

The eastern coastal plains are wider and more deltaic because the rivers flowing into the Bay of Bengal have gentle slopes.
These gentle slopes cause the rivers to deposit more sediments at their mouths, forming large deltas.
In contrast, western coastal plains are narrow because rivers there flow through steep gradients directly into the Arabian Sea, resulting in less sediment deposition.
Hence, the main reason is the gentle slope of the eastern rivers leading to large delta formation.
Final answer: Option 4
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Himalayas - ranges and peaks

Q40. Which peak marks the north-western end of the Great Himalaya?

  1. (a) Namcha Barwa
  2. (b) Kanchenjunga
  3. (c) Mount Everest
  4. (d) Nanga Parbat
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Nanga Parbat

The north-western end of the Great Himalaya is marked by Nanga Parbat.
Nanga Parbat is a famous peak located in the western Himalayas in Pakistan.
It stands as the western anchor of the Himalayan range.
Other peaks like Everest and Kanchenjunga are located more towards the central and eastern parts of the Himalayas respectively.
Namcha Barwa marks the eastern end, not the north-western end.
Hence, the correct answer is Nanga Parbat.
India - States and Union Territories · State boundaries and borders

Q41. Which two districts of Uttarakhand share the inter-state border with Himachal Pradesh in the north-west?

  1. (a) Uttarkashi and Dehradun
  2. (b) Pauri and Rudraprayag
  3. (c) Champawat and Bageshwar
  4. (d) Chamoli and Pithoragarh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Uttarkashi and Dehradun

Uttarakhand shares its north-western border with Himachal Pradesh.
Among its districts, Uttarkashi and Dehradun lie along this inter-state border.
Hence, Uttarkashi and Dehradun are the two districts sharing the inter-state border with Himachal Pradesh in the north-west.
Final answer: Option 1
All shifts19 February 2026 Shift 1 →
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