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SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 19 September 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 24 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 on 19 September 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Static GK, Ancient History, Medieval History, Modern History, Current Affairs, Polity.

📚 24 questions🗓️ 19 September 2025⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Static GK (8) · Ancient History (2) · Medieval History (1) · Modern History (1) · Current Affairs (3) · Polity (3) · Biology (1) · Economics (4) · Physics (1)

Static GK (8)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q1. Fill in the blank:
The sacred masked dances performed by monks at Hemis represent various _____ of the Drugpa lineage.

  1. (a) reincarnated lamas
  2. (b) ancient kings
  3. (c) guardian divinities
  4. (d) ancestral spirits
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) guardian divinities

At the Hemis Festival in Ladakh, monks perform the Cham masked dances depicting the guardian divinities (Dharmapalas) of the Drugpa (Drukpa) lineage.
These dances symbolise the triumph of good over evil.
Hence the correct answer is'guardian divinities'.
Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q2. Which type of folk song in Haryana is popularly known as 'Ragani', despite having no connection with the classical Raga-Ragini system?

  1. (a) Seasonal Songs
  2. (b) Marriage Ritual Songs
  3. (c) Folk Songs
  4. (d) Lullabies
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Folk Songs

In Haryana, the term 'Ragani' is popularly used to refer to folk songs — narrative ballads sung by traditional folk artists.
These are not connected to the classical Raga-Ragini system of Hindustani music.
Hence the correct answeris Folk Songs.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q3. Consider the statements about pawn promotion in chess:
1) A pawn can promote to any piece except king or pawn on reaching the other side.
2) Pawns can only promote to previously captured pieces.
Which of the statements is/arecorrect?

  1. (a) Only 1 is Correct
  2. (b) Only 2 is Correct
  3. (c) 1 and 2 are Correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 are Correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1 is Correct

A pawn reaching the other side can promote to any piece except king or pawn — Statement 1 is correct.
Pawn promotion is not restricted to captured pieces; a player can have multiple queens, for example. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Hence only Statement 1 is correct.
Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q4. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion(A): Pakistan's move from a 'Positive List' to a 'Negative List' of 1209 tariff lines for Indian goods under SAFTA was challenged by India as a violation of the agreement.
Reason(R): Article 23 of the SAFTA Agreement permits member countries to make unilateral tariff reservations in case of political disagreement.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false.

A is true — Pakistan's shift to a Negative List of 1209 tariff lines was challenged by India as inconsistent with SAFTA.
R is false — Article 23 of SAFTA does not permit unilateral tariff reservations on political grounds; tariff concessions must follow the agreement's provisions.
Hence A is true but R is false.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q5. Who is the author of 'Sleeping on Jupiter', a novel longlisted for the Booker Prize in 2015?

  1. (a) Kiran Desai
  2. (b) Anuradha Roy
  3. (c) Jhumpa Lahiri
  4. (d) T.N. Ninan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Anuradha Roy

'Sleeping on Jupiter' is a novel by Indian authorAnuradha Roy.
It was longlisted for the Man Booker Prize in 2015.
Hence the answer isAnuradha Roy.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the South Asian Federation (SAF) Games and identify which arecorrect:
1) The first edition was held in Kathmandu, Nepal, in 1984 with participation from all seven SAARC nations.
2) India has hosted the SAF Games more times than any other country up to 2016.

  1. (a) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) Only 1 is correct
  3. (c) Only 2 is correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 1 is correct

Statement 1 is CORRECT:The inaugural South Asian Federation (SAF) Games—now known simply as theSouth Asian Games—were held inKathmandu, Nepal, in September 1984. Allseven original SAARC founding nations(Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka) participated, competing across five initial sporting disciplines.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT:Up to 2016, India hadnothosted the SAF Games more times than any other country.
By the conclusion of the 2016 Guwahati-Shillong edition, the hosting breakdown stood as follows:
Bangladesh:3 times (1985, 1993, 2010)
India:3 times (1987, 1995, 2016)
Nepal:2 times (1984, 1999)
Pakistan:2 times (1989, 2004)
Sri Lanka:2 times (1991, 2006)
Because India was tied with Bangladesh for hosting the games three times, the claim that India hosted themmore times than any other countryis false.(Note: Nepal broke into the lead with its third hosting slot later in 2019).
Hence only Statement 1 is correct.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Puppetry and theatre forms

Q7. Fill in the Blank:
Tamasha is a folk theatre form mainly found in _____.

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Karnataka
  3. (c) Maharashtra
  4. (d) Odisha
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Maharashtra

Tamasha is a traditional Marathi folk theatre form mainly found in Maharashtra.
It combines song, dance and dialogue in a popular format.
Hence the answer is Maharashtra.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q8. Which of the following statements correctly describes a unique feature of the Dumhal dance of Kashmir?

  1. (a) It is performed by women during harvest festivals.
  2. (b) It is accompanied solely by string instruments and solo singing.
  3. (c) Only Wattal men perform it around a banner planted into the ground.
  4. (d) It allows spontaneous performance by any community on any occasion.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Only Wattal men perform it around a banner planted into the ground.

Dumhal is a traditional folk dance performed only by the men of the Wattal tribe of Kashmir.
They dance around a banner planted into the ground on specific occasions.
Hence Option 3 correctly describes its unique feature.

Ancient History (2)

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Temple architecture styles (Nagara, Dravida, Vesara)

Q9. Read the following statements and choose the correct option:
Statement1: The amalaka sits atop the shikhara in Nagara-style temples.
Statement2: In Drāviḍa-style temples, the vimana refers to the gateway tower (gopuram).

  1. (a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
  2. (b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect
  3. (c) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect
  4. (d) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect

Statement 1 is correct — the amalaka (ribbed stone disc) sits atop the shikhara in Nagara temples.
Statement 2 is incorrect — in Dravida temples, the vimana is the tower over the sanctum, not the gopuram (gateway tower).
Hence Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.
Gupta Empire · Gupta administration and economy

Q10. Which term-meaning pair isaccuratein relation to the Gupta dynasty?

  1. (a) Vaishthika – enjoyment tax
  2. (b) Bhaga – forced-labour levy
  3. (c) Adeya – "that which is to be surrendered" (tribute/dues)
  4. (d) Dasaparadha – grain tithe
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Adeya – "that which is to be surrendered" (tribute/dues)

Adeya literally means 'that which is to be surrendered' — i.e., tribute or dues payable to the king, correctly matched.
Bhaga was the king's share of produce, not forced labour (Vishti was forced labour).
The other pairs are also misdescribed.
HenceOption 3is accurate.

Medieval History (1)

Early Medieval North India · Rajput dynasties

Q11. Which of the following kingdom was under the rule of the Sisodia dynasty during the 15th century?

  1. (a) Gujarat
  2. (b) Malwa
  3. (c) Mewar
  4. (d) Bengal
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mewar

The Sisodia dynasty was the ruling dynasty ofMewar(with capital at Chittor/Udaipur) during the 15th century.
Notable Sisodia rulers include Rana Kumbha and Rana Sanga.
Hence the kingdom wasMewar.

Modern History (1)

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q12. How did Pitt's India Act contribute to unifying British administration in India?

  1. (a) By allowing Governors to act independently.
  2. (b) By dissolving the Court of Directors.
  3. (c) By giving the Governor General supreme authority over Presidencies.
  4. (d) By merging civil and military departments.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) By giving the Governor General supreme authority over Presidencies.

Pitt's India Act of 1784 placed the Governor General of Bengal with supreme authority over the Madras and Bombay Presidencies.
This established a unified British administrative system in India.
The other options misstate the Act's provisions.

Current Affairs (3)

Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q13. Which Indian para-athlete became the first para archer to receive the Padma Shri after winning a historic gold medal at the 2024 Paris Paralympics?

  1. (a) Rakesh Kumar
  2. (b) Harvinder Singh
  3. (c) Mariyappan Thangavelu
  4. (d) Sumit Antil
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Harvinder Singh

Harvinder Singh won India's first-ever gold medal in para archery at the 2024 Paris Paralympics.
Following this achievement, he became the first para archer to receive the Padma Shri.
Hence the answer isHarvinder Singh.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q14. According to the Global Peace Index 2024, what is the role of Positive Peace in the context of violent conflict and economic instability?

  1. (a) It measures the number of conflicts per country
  2. (b) It predicts military expenditure trend
  3. (c) It identifies structural factors that promote peace and can forecast declines in peacefulness
  4. (d) It calculates the percentage of GDP lost due to war
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It identifies structural factors that promote peace and can forecast declines in peacefulness

The Global Peace Index defines Positive Peace as the attitudes, institutions and structures that create and sustain peaceful societies.
It identifies structural factors that promote peace and can forecast declines in peacefulness.
The other options describe negative peace measures or unrelated metrics.
State News · State firsts

Q15. Which Indian state became the first to notify all its wetlands under the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017 by mid-2025?

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Odisha
  3. (c) Madhya Pradesh
  4. (d) Himachal Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Odisha

By mid-2025, Odisha became the first Indian state to notify all its wetlands under the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017.
Hence the answer is Odisha.

Polity (3)

Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · GST Council

Q16. Fill in the blanks:
The Chairperson of the GST Council is the _____ of India.

  1. (a) Prime Minister
  2. (b) Union Finance Minister
  3. (c) President
  4. (d) Vice-President
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Union Finance Minister

As per Article 279A of the Constitution, theUnion Finance Minister of Indiachairs the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council.
Hence the correct answer isUnion Finance Minister.
Parliament · Rajya Sabha

Q17. Consider the following statements about the Rajya Sabha and choose the correct option:
1) Rajya Sabha is a continuing house of the Parliament, immune to dissolution under any circumstance.
2) Rajya Sabha members serve staggered six-year terms, with one-third retiring every two years.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Statement 1 is correct — Rajya Sabha is a permanent (continuing) house and cannot be dissolved.
Statement 2 is correct — its members serve six-year terms with one-third retiring every two years (staggered terms).
Hence both statements are correct.
Fundamental Rights · Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) and writs

Q18. Which Article of the Constitution confers the right to constitutional remedies, and how is it linked to Fundamental Rights?

  1. (a) Article 32; it is called the "heart and soul" of the Constitution
  2. (b) Article 226; it is a protective mechanism for Directive Principles
  3. (c) Article 21; it deals with personal liberty only
  4. (d) Article 14; it ensures equality before law
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 32; it is called the "heart and soul" of the Constitution

Article 32 of the Constitution provides the right to constitutional remedies, allowing citizens to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called it the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution.
Hence Option 1 is correct.

Biology (1)

Tissues · Connective tissue (blood, bone, cartilage, ligament, tendon)

Q19. Read the below statements about connective tissues:
1. Tendons connect muscles to bones and are made of dense regular connective tissue.
2. Ligaments connect bones to bones and are slightly elastic.
3. Cartilage contains calcium salts and is harder than bone.
Which of the above statements arecorrect?

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3 all are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct

Statement 1 is correct — tendons connect muscles to bones and are made of dense regular connective tissue.
Statement 2 is correct — ligaments connect bones to bones and are slightly elastic.
Statement 3 is incorrect — cartilage does NOT contain calcium salts and is softer (not harder) than bone.
Henceonly Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Economics (4)

Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Cost, revenue and utility concepts

Q20. Which curve shows all combinations of two goods that give a consumer equal satisfaction?

  1. (a) Indifference curve
  2. (b) Budget constraint
  3. (c) Isoquant curve
  4. (d) Marginal cost curve
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Indifference curve

An Indifference Curve represents all combinations of two goods that give a consumer the same level of satisfaction (utility).
Budget constraint shows the limit of purchasing power; Isoquant relates to production; Marginal cost curve relates to costs of production.
Hence the correct answer is the Indifference Curve.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q21. Which plan introduced the Minimum Needs Programme?

  1. (a) Third
  2. (b) Fourth
  3. (c) Fifth
  4. (d) Sixth
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Fifth

The Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974–79) introduced the Minimum Needs Programme (MNP) aimed at providing certain basic minimum needs to the people.
Hence the answer is the Fifth Plan.
Economics Miscellaneous · Economic terms and abbreviations

Q22. Which is NOT part of the Washington Consensus?

  1. (a) Trade liberalisation
  2. (b) Fiscal discipline
  3. (c) Export subsidies
  4. (d) Tax reform
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Export subsidies

The Washington Consensus prescribes fiscal discipline, tax reform, trade liberalisation, privatisation, deregulation, etc.
Export subsidies are NOT part of the Washington Consensus — they contradict trade liberalisation principles.
Hence Option 3 is not part of the Washington Consensus.
Industry and Infrastructure · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q23. Read the following statements carefully and choose thecorrectoption regarding Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion(A): The New Economic Policy of 1991 resulted in the abolition of industrial licensing for most industries.
Reason(R): Licensing was re-imposed to regulate growing private sector monopolies.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false.

A is true — the 1991 New Economic Policy abolished industrial licensing for most industries (except a few strategic sectors).
R is false — licensing was abolished, not re-imposed; the reform was meant to remove the License Raj.
Hence A is true but R is false.

Physics (1)

Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Earth's magnetism

Q24. Which phenomenon is primarily responsible for auroras near Earth's poles?

  1. (a) Earthquake waves
  2. (b) Lightning discharges
  3. (c) Solar wind and magnetic field interaction
  4. (d) Volcanic ash dispersion
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Solar wind and magnetic field interaction

Auroras (Northern and Southern Lights) occur when charged particles from the solar wind interact with Earth's magnetic field and excite atmospheric gases near the poles.
The interaction produces the characteristic glowing lights.
Hence Option 3 is correct.
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