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SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 20 September 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 25 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 on 20 September 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Polity, Geography, Static GK, Ancient History, Modern History.

📚 25 questions🗓️ 20 September 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Economics (6) · Polity (3) · Geography (1) · Static GK (7) · Ancient History (2) · Modern History (1) · Medieval History (1) · Current Affairs (2) · Computer (1) · Physics (1)

Economics (6)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Education and research schemes

Q1. Which government initiative primarily focuses on improving learning outcomes and digital literacy in schools across India?

  1. (a) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
  2. (b) Digital India Mission
  3. (c) PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan
  4. (d) PM eVIDYA
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) PM eVIDYA

PM eVIDYA is a comprehensive initiative under the Ministry of Education to provide multi-mode access to digital education for schools, improving learning outcomes and digital literacy.
Swachh Bharat (cleanliness), Digital India (broader digital ecosystem) and PM Gati Shakti (infrastructure) target different domains.
Hence,PM eVIDYA is correct.
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Human Development Index and UNDP

Q2. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct option:
Assertion(A): The Human Development Index can increase even if income drops.
Reason(R): Improvements in life expectancy and education can offset income decline.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

HDI is a composite of life expectancy, education and income (GNI per capita). Even if income decreases, gains in life expectancy and education can lift the overall HDI score.
Thus A is true, R is true, and R correctly explains A.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Microeconomics and macroeconomics

Q3. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct option:
Assertion(A): In macroeconomics, treating a single commodity as representative of all goods allows simplification of aggregate analysis.
Reason(R): This is because all individual goods always behave identically under inflationary trends.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false.

Assertion A is true — macroeconomics uses a 'representative good' as an analytical simplification.
Reason R is false — individual goods do NOT behave identically under inflation; relative prices vary widely.
Hence, A is true, R is false.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign trade policy and EXIM

Q4. What was the primary aim of import substitution policy in India's early planning era?

  1. (a) Promote export-led industrialisation
  2. (b) Encourage foreign capital inflow
  3. (c) Replace foreign imports with domestic production
  4. (d) Liberalise trade barriers
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Replace foreign imports with domestic production

Import Substitution Industrialisation (ISI), pursued in early Indian planning, aimed to develop domestic industries to replace imported goods, thereby achieving self-reliance and reducing dependence on foreign imports.
It was the opposite of export promotion and liberalisation.
Hence, Option 3 is correct.
Industry and Infrastructure · Classification of industries (size, ownership, raw material)

Q5. Which of the followingcorrectlydescribes a heavy industry?

  1. (a) It uses light raw materials like cotton.
  2. (b) It produces light consumer goods.
  3. (c) Uses bulky inputs to produce heavy goods.
  4. (d) It manufactures cosmetics and toiletries.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Uses bulky inputs to produce heavy goods.

Heavy industries (e.g., iron and steel, cement, shipbuilding) use bulky raw materials and produce heavy capital goods/machinery.
Light industries use light raw materials (cotton, plastics) and produce consumer goods like cosmetics, toiletries.
Hence, Option 3 correctly describes heavy industry.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q6. Which international organisations played a crucial role in triggering the 1991 economic reforms in India?

  1. (a) UN and WHO
  2. (b) World Bank and IMF
  3. (c) WTO and UNESCO
  4. (d) ADB and WTO
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) World Bank and IMF

Facing a Balance of Payments crisis in 1991, India approached the IMF and the World Bank for emergency loans. Their structural adjustment conditions triggered the wide-ranging economic reforms (LPG — Liberalisation, Privatisation, Globalisation).
Hence, World Bank and IMF is correct.

Polity (3)

Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q7. Which of the following witness types is formally recognised in the BSA, 2023?

  1. (a) Political representatives
  2. (b) Character witnesses only
  3. (c) Mythological witnesses
  4. (d) Expert witnesses such as forensic analysts
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Expert witnesses such as forensic analysts

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 formally recognises expert witnesses such as forensic analysts under provisions equivalent to Section 45 of the earlier Evidence Act.
The other options are not recognised witness categories.
Hence, Option 4 is correct.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q8. Fill in the blanks:
The _____ List in Schedule VII deals solely with matters of national importance like defence and foreign affairs.

  1. (a) Union
  2. (b) State
  3. (c) Concurrent
  4. (d) Residuary
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Union

The Union List (List I) in the Seventh Schedule contains subjects of national importance such as defence, foreign affairs, atomic energy, railways, etc. on which only Parliament can legislate.
State and Concurrent Lists cover other subjects; Residuary powers lie with Parliament but are not a separate 'List' in the Seventh Schedule.
Hence, Union is correct.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Financial relations

Q9. Which of the following statements regarding State Funds under the Indian Constitution is/are correct?
1) The Consolidated Fund of the State is defined under Article 266.
2) The Contingency Fund of the State is operated by the Governor in accordance with rules made by the State Legislature.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Statement 1: Article 266 defines the Consolidated Fund of India and of each State — correct.
Statement 2: Article 267(2) provides for the Contingency Fund of the State, placed at the disposal of the Governor and operated by him under rules made by the State Legislature — correct.
Hence, both 1 and 2 are correct.

Geography (1)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Rock systems of India (Dharwar, Cuddapah, Vindhyan, Gondwana)

Q10. The Vindhyan system of rocks is known for the production of which of the following?

  1. (a) Manganese
  2. (b) Iron ore and coal
  3. (c) Limestones
  4. (d) Bauxite
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Limestones

The Vindhyan rock system is famous for sedimentary deposits, especially limestones used for cement industry, building stones, sandstones and slate s . Manganese and iron ore are mainly from Dharwar/Cuddapah systems; Bauxite is from laterite deposits.
Hence,Limestonesis the correct answer.

Static GK (7)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q11. Which Kodava harvest festival, celebrated with chants of 'Poli, Poli, Deva' and a ceremonial paddy harvest, invokes Lord Iguthappa?

  1. (a) Kambala
  2. (b) Kailpodh
  3. (c) Puthari
  4. (d) Onam
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Puthari

Puthari is the harvest festival of the Kodava community in Karnataka, celebrated with chants of 'Poli, Poli, Deva' invoking their deity Lord Iguthappa, and includes a ceremonial paddy harvest. Kambala is a buffalo race; Kailpodh is the festival of arms; Onam is the Kerala harvest festival.
Hence,Puthariis correct.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q12. What is the standard height of a football goal post?

  1. (a) 2.44 m
  2. (b) 3.66 m
  3. (c) 1.99 m
  4. (d) 3.54 m
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 2.44 m

According to FIFA Laws of the Game, the standard height of a football goal (from the ground to the lower edge of the crossbar) is2.44 metres(8 feet).
Sports · Athletics - events, rules and specifications

Q13. Which of the following istrueabout relay races?

  1. (a) A relay team has 6 members, with 4 running members.
  2. (b) The baton exchange zone is 50 meters long.
  3. (c) The baton must weigh exactly 100 grams.
  4. (d) The length of the baton is 10–12 cm.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) A relay team has 6 members, with 4 running members.

Per the official key, the marked correct option is 'A relay team has 6 members, with 4 running members'.
Note: Standard relay rules typically state 4 members (4 × 100m or 4 × 400m) — the marked answer reflects the question paper's key.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q14. What is the primary literary significance of the book 'Bonkers!' by Natasha Sharma?

  1. (a) Known as a memoir of rural life
  2. (b) Known as a historical epic on colonial India
  3. (c) Known for experimental style and social themes
  4. (d) Known as a science fiction on future societies
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Known for experimental style and social themes

Natasha Sharma's 'Bonkers!' is known for its experimental, witty narrative style and engagement with social themes accessible to younger readers.
It is not a memoir, historical epic or science fiction.
Hence, Option 3 is correct.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q15. Which is/are correct about the first Asian Games held in 1951?
A) Held at Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium with 12 nations.
B) Japan topped the medals, India was second; venue was National Stadium, Delhi.

  1. (a) Only A is correct
  2. (b) Only B is correct
  3. (c) Both A and B are correct
  4. (d) Neither A nor B are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only B is correct

The first Asian Games (1951) were held at the National Stadium, Delhi (now Major Dhyan Chand National Stadium) with 11 nations — Statement A is incorrect.
Japan topped the medal tally and India finished second — Statement B is correct.
Hence, only B is correct.
Dances · Tribal dances

Q16. The dance form Ka Shad Suk Mynsiem is a thanksgiving dance of which community?

  1. (a) Khasi
  2. (b) Ao
  3. (c) Apatani
  4. (d) Adi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Khasi

Ka Shad Suk Mynsiem is a traditional spring/thanksgiving dance of the Khasi community of Meghalaya, performed in gratitude for a good harvest.
Ao (Nagaland), Apatani (Arunachal Pradesh) and Adi (Arunachal Pradesh) have different dance traditions.
Hence, Khasi is correct.
Space, Defence and Technology · Science and technology missions and schemes

Q17. Consider the following statements on the PRITHvi Vigyan Mission:
1. It aims to unify ocean, weather, and geoscience observations.
2. It supports India's early warning systems for tsunamis and cyclones.
3. It was launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct

Statements 1 and 2 are correct — PRITHVI integrates atmosphere, ocean, hydrosphere and cryosphere research; it supports India's tsunami/cyclone early-warning systems.
Statement 3 is incorrect — it was launched by the Ministry of Earth Sciences, not Health.
Hence, only 1 and 2 are correct.

Ancient History (2)

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Sculpture and metal casting (bronzes, terracotta)

Q18. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct option:
Assertion(A): The sculptures of the Nalanda School are three-dimensional and delicately ornamented.
Reason(R): The Nalanda sculptural tradition was influenced by Sarnath, local Bihar styles, and central Indian art.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Nalanda School sculptures are indeed three-dimensional with delicate ornamentation.The Nalanda style was influenced by Sarnath traditions, local Bihar styles and central Indian art, which led to the unique three-dimensional and ornamented character.
Thus,R correctly explains A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation.
Buddhism, Jainism and Other Sects · Buddhist teachings and texts

Q19. In Buddhist teachings, what does the term 'metta' primarily refer to?

  1. (a) Mindful meditation
  2. (b) Ritual purity
  3. (c) Fellow feeling
  4. (d) Celibacy and renunciation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Fellow feeling

'Metta' in Buddhism (Pali) means loving-kindness or fellow feeling — wishing the well-being of all beings. Mindful meditation = sati, ritual purity, and celibacy/renunciation are different concepts.
Hence, Fellow feeling is correct.

Modern History (1)

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q20. Fill in the blank:
The Federal Court of India, as provided under the Government of India Act 1935, was established in the year ____.

  1. (a) 1936
  2. (b) 1937
  3. (c) 1939
  4. (d) 1942
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1937

The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for the establishment of the Federal Court of India. The Federal Court was inaugurated on 1 October 1937 in Delhi.
Hence, the year is1937.

Medieval History (1)

Vijayanagara and Bahmani Kingdoms · Vijayanagara administration and architecture

Q21. Which one of the following statements accurately describes a feature of the Vijayanagara Empire?

  1. (a) The Hazara Rama temple was a public temple for commoners.
  2. (b) The Lotus Mahal shows clear Persian (Indo-Islamic) architectural influence.
  3. (c) The Mahanavami Dibba is topped by a stone super-structure.
  4. (d) The city's sacred centre lay north of the Tungabhadra.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Lotus Mahal shows clear Persian (Indo-Islamic) architectural influence.

The Lotus Mahal at Hampi is a famous example of Indo-Islamic architecture in the Vijayanagara empire, showing clear Persian influence.
The Hazara Rama temple was the royal chapel (not public).
The Mahanavami Dibba is a stepped platform without a stone super-structure.
The sacred centre lay south of the Tungabhadra.
Hence, Option 2 is correct.

Current Affairs (2)

Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q22. Which of the following best reflects the evolved focus of the India–US Exercise Tiger Triumph2025compared to its2019debut?

  1. (a) From HADR to space combat
  2. (b) Cyber ops over amphibious drills
  3. (c) HADR + logistics via LEMOA
  4. (d) Dropped tri-service format
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) HADR + logistics via LEMOA

Tiger Triumph is the India–US tri-service joint exercise focused on Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR). The 2025 edition evolved to integrate HADR with logistics cooperation under the LEMOA framework, retaining the tri-service amphibious nature.
Hence, Option 3 is correct.
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q23. Which Union Minister officially announced that the Khelo India University Games 2025 will be held in Rajasthan this November?

  1. (a) Mansukh Mandaviya
  2. (b) Kiren Rijiju
  3. (c) Anurag Thakur
  4. (d) Nitin Gadkari
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mansukh Mandaviya

Mansukh Mandaviya, the Union Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports, officially announced that Khelo India University Games 2025 will be hosted in Rajasthan in November.
Kiren Rijiju, Anurag Thakur and Nitin Gadkari hold/held other portfolios.

Computer (1)

Emerging Technologies and E-Governance · Artificial Intelligence and machine learning

Q24. Why is generative-design software used in launch vehicle (LV) structural engineering?

  1. (a) To increase the mass of structural components
  2. (b) To reduce structural weight while maintaining performance
  3. (c) To simplify 2D CAD drafting in mission drawings
  4. (d) To boost overall mission cost through advanced algorithms
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To reduce structural weight while maintaining performance

Generative-design software produces optimised structural forms that minimise weight while meeting performance/strength requirements — crucial for launch vehicles where every kilogram matters. The other options describe goals opposite to the purpose of generative design.
Hence, Option 2 is correct.

Physics (1)

Force and Laws of Motion · Newton's third law and its applications

Q25. Why is it more difficult to walk on sand than on a concrete pavement?

  1. (a) Sand has a higher coefficient of static friction than concrete.
  2. (b) Sand is less dense than concrete, causing less gravitational pull.
  3. (c) Sand displaces, reducing pushback.
  4. (d) Sand particles are magnetic, creating an opposing force.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sand displaces, reducing pushback.

When you push against sand, its loose particles displace under your foot, so the ground gives way and provides less normal reaction (less push-back), making walking harder.
Density differences and magnetism are irrelevant; sand actually has a lower effective friction for walking due to displacement.
Hence, Option 3 is correct.
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