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SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 12 November 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 24 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 on 12 November 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Static GK, Economics, Current Affairs, Physics, Geography.

📚 24 questions🗓️ 12 November 2025⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Polity (2) · Static GK (6) · Economics (6) · Current Affairs (3) · Physics (1) · Geography (2) · Medieval History (1) · Modern History (1) · Biology (2)

Polity (2)

DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Important DPSP articles (39A, 40, 44, 45, 48A, 50, 51)

Q1. Which of the following article of the Indian constitution promotes equal justice and free legal aid?

  1. (a) Article 39 A
  2. (b) Article 38
  3. (c) Article 45
  4. (d) Article 42
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 39 A

Correct Answer: Article 39A
Article 39A of the Indian Constitution (added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976) is a Directive Principle of State Policy that directs the state to ensure equal justice and free legal aid to citizens who cannot afford legal representation.
Why other options are wrong:
- Article 38: Directs the state to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people.
- Article 45: Originally provided for free and compulsory education for children; now relates to early childhood care.
- Article 42: Deals with provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
State Government · Governor - appointment and powers

Q2. The Contingency Fund of an Indian State is held by _____.

  1. (a) Chief Minister
  2. (b) Finance Minister
  3. (c) Governor
  4. (d) State Legislature Speaker
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Governor

Correct Answer: Governor
As per Article 267(2) of the Indian Constitution, the State Legislature can establish a Contingency Fund for the state. The Contingency Fund of the State is held by the Governor. This fund is used to meet unforeseen expenditures before Parliament/State Legislature approval. (Similarly, at the Union level, the Contingency Fund of India is held by the President.)
Why other options are wrong:
- Chief Minister: Heads the state cabinet but does not hold the Contingency Fund.
- Finance Minister: Presents the budget and manages finances but does not hold the Contingency Fund.
- State Legislature Speaker: Presides over the legislative assembly; has no role in holding the Contingency Fund.

Static GK (6)

Awards and Honours · Bharat Ratna

Q3. Who among the following was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2024?

  1. (a) Lata Mangeshkar (Posthumous)
  2. (b) Atal Bihar Vajpayee (Posthumous)
  3. (c) Karpoori Thakur (Posthumous)
  4. (d) Sachin Tendulkar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Karpoori Thakur (Posthumous)

Correct Answer: Karpoori Thakur (Posthumous)
Karpoori Thakur, former Chief Minister of Bihar and a prominent socialist leader known as 'Jan Nayak', was awarded the Bharat Ratna posthumously in January 2024. Other 2024 Bharat Ratna awardees included LK Advani, PV Narasimha Rao (Posthumous), MS Swaminathan (Posthumous), and Chaudhary Charan Singh (Posthumous).
Why other options are wrong:
- Lata Mangeshkar (Posthumous): Received Bharat Ratna in 2001.
- Atal Bihar Vajpayee (Posthumous): Received Bharat Ratna in 2015.
- Sachin Tendulkar: Received Bharat Ratna in 2014.
Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q4. Ashwini Bhide Deshpande is a renowned vocalist associated with which Gharana?

  1. (a) Banaras Gharana
  2. (b) Patiala Gharana
  3. (c) Kirana Gharana
  4. (d) Jaipur- Atrauli Gharana
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Jaipur- Atrauli Gharana

Correct Answer: Jaipur- Atrauli Gharana
Ashwini Bhide Deshpande is a renowned Hindustani classical vocalist associated with the Jaipur- Atrauli Gharana. She is a disciple of Kishori Amonkar, who was also a leading exponent of the same gharana. The Jaipur- Atrauli Gharana is known for its emphasis on classical compositions, intricate taan patterns, and a distinct style of khayal singing.
Why other options are wrong:
- Banaras Gharana: Known for thumri and its distinct style of khayal; associated with vocalists like Girija Devi.
- Patiala Gharana: Known for its elaborate taans and gayaki ; associated with Bade Ghulam Ali Khan.
- Kirana Gharana: Known for its meditative and slow-paced approach; associated with Abdul Karim Khan and Bhimsen Joshi.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q5. Who is the author of the book 'In an Antique Land'?

  1. (a) Amitav Ghosh
  2. (b) Manu Joseph
  3. (c) Neel Mukherjee
  4. (d) Siddharth Dhanvant Shanghvi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Amitav Ghosh

Correct Answer: Amitav Ghosh
'In an Antique Land' is a celebrated non-fiction travelogue-cum-history by Amitav Ghosh, published in 1992. The book weaves together two narratives: Ghosh's own experiences living in an Egyptian village in the 1980s, and his historical research into a 12th-century Jewish merchant's slave mentioned in the Cairo Geniza documents.
Why other options are wrong:
- Manu Joseph: Author of 'The Illicit Happiness of Other People' and 'Serious Men.'
- Neel Mukherjee: Author of 'The Lives of Others' and 'A State of Freedom.'
- Siddharth Dhanvant Shanghvi: Author of 'The Last Song of Dusk' and 'Loss.'
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q6. Who is the author of the book 'Love Is Always Right and Other Musings'?

  1. (a) Ravinder Singh
  2. (b) Vinita Dawra Nangia
  3. (c) Ravi Subramanian
  4. (d) Novoneel Chakraborty
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Vinita Dawra Nangia

Correct Answer: Vinita Dawra Nangia
'Love Is Always Right and Other Musings' is authored by Vinita Dawra Nangia, a senior journalist and author known for her column 'O-zone' in The Times of India. She has written extensively on relationships, lifestyle, and human emotions.
Why other options are wrong:
- Ravinder Singh: Known for romantic novels like 'I Too Had a Love Story.'
- Ravi Subramanian: Known for financial thrillers like 'If God Was a Banker.'
- Novoneel Chakraborty: Known for thriller series like 'Stranger Trilogy.'
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q7. Which of the following folk dance of Chhattisgarh is also known as 'Parrot dance'?

  1. (a) Suwa Dance
  2. (b) Kolatam Dance
  3. (c) Lambadi Dance
  4. (d) Aoling Monyu Dance
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Suwa Dance

Correct Answer: Suwa Dance
Suwa Dance ( Suwa Naach ) is a traditional folk dance of Chhattisgarh performed by women. ' Suwa ' means parrot in the local language, and the dance is also known as the 'Parrot dance.' It is performed during the Diwali season, and a clay or wooden parrot (placed in a basket filled with paddy) is used as a prop during the performance. Women sing and dance around the parrot in a circular formation.
Why other options are wrong:
- Kolatam Dance: A stick dance from Andhra Pradesh, not Chhattisgarh.
- Lambadi Dance: A folk dance of the Lambadi tribe, performed mainly in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
- Aoling Monyu Dance: Associated with the Konyak tribe of Nagaland, performed during the Aoling Monyu festival.
Space, Defence and Technology · ISRO - history and centres

Q8. In the context of space research in India, what does "N" stands for in INCOSPAR?

  1. (a) National
  2. (b) Nano
  3. (c) Neutrino
  4. (d) Nodal
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) National

Correct Answer: National
INCOSPAR stands for Indian National Committee for Space Research. It was established in 1962 under the Department of Atomic Energy, with Dr. Vikram Sarabhai as its chairman. INCOSPAR was the forerunner of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), which was formally established in 1969.
Why other options are wrong:
- Nano: N does not stand for Nano in INCOSPAR.
- Neutrino: N does not stand for Neutrino in INCOSPAR.
- Nodal: N does not stand for Nodal in INCOSPAR.

Economics (6)

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q9. In the Union Budget 2025-26, the government has allocated Rs. 20000 crores for an initiative aiming to develop at least _____ indigenously designed and operational SMRs by 2033.

  1. (a) 2
  2. (b) 5
  3. (c) 10
  4. (d) 8
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 5

Correct Answer: 5
In the Union Budget 2025-26, the Government of India allocated Rs. 20,000 crores for the development of nuclear energy. The target is to develop at least 5 indigenously designed Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) that are fully operational by 2033. SMRs are advanced nuclear reactors with a power output of up to 300 MW(e), smaller and more flexible than conventional reactors.
Why other options are wrong:
- 2: Too few; the budget announcement specifically mentioned 5 SMRs.
- 10: Higher than the announced target.
- 8: Not the figure announced in Union Budget 2025-26.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Revenue and capital receipts and expenditure

Q10. Which of the following is correct regarding Sale of government assets like sale of shares in Public sector unit (PSU)?

  1. (a) It creates liability for the government
  2. (b) Amount comes from sale of shares are part of capital receipts
  3. (c) Amount comes from sale of shares are part of revenue receipts
  4. (d) It does not reduce the total assets of the government
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Amount comes from sale of shares are part of capital receipts

Correct Answer: Amount comes from sale of shares are part of capital receipts
When the government sells shares of PSUs (disinvestment), the proceeds are classified as Capital Receipts in the government budget. Capital Receipts are funds that either create a liability (borrowings) or reduce an asset (disinvestment). Since disinvestment reduces the government's ownership in a PSU, it is recorded as a capital receipt.
Why other options are wrong:
- It creates liability: Disinvestment does not create liability; it reduces assets. Borrowings create liabilities.
- Part of revenue receipts: Revenue receipts come from taxes, fees, dividends; disinvestment proceeds are capital in nature.
- Does not reduce total assets: Selling PSU shares does reduce government assets (ownership stake in PSU).

Q11. Following the Industrial Policy _____ of India the government has set up a special board known as Foreign Investment Promotion Board.

  1. (a) 1948
  2. (b) 1956
  3. (c) 1977
  4. (d) 1991
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1991

Correct Answer: 1991
The Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB) was set up following the Industrial Policy of 1991, which marked India's economic liberalisation . The 1991 policy opened up the Indian economy to foreign investment and the FIPB was created to facilitate and approve foreign direct investment (FDI) proposals. FIPB was later abolished in 2017 as part of further liberalisation .
Why other options are wrong:
- 1948: The Industrial Policy of 1948 was the first such policy post-Independence; no FIPB was set up then.
- 1956: The Industrial Policy of 1956 focused on classification of industries; FIPB was not formed then.
- 1977: The 1977 policy under Janata government focused on small-scale industries; no FIPB formed.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Indirect taxes and GST

Q12. In 2001-02, excise duty structure was rationalized to a single rate of _____ per cent CENVAT (Central Value Add Tax).

  1. (a) 16
  2. (b) 25
  3. (c) 8
  4. (d) 32
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 16

Correct Answer: 16
In 2001-02, the excise duty structure in India was rationalized to a single rate of 16% under CENVAT (Central Value Added Tax), which replaced the earlier Central Excise and Customs Act provisions. This was a major tax reform step aimed at simplifying the indirect tax structure before the eventual introduction of GST.
Why other options are wrong:
- 25%: Not the rate at which CENVAT was rationalized in 2001-02.
- 8%: This was a reduced rate applicable to certain goods, not the standard CENVAT rate.
- 32%: Too high; not the standard CENVAT rationalized rate.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Planning Commission and NDC

Q13. What was the primary function of Planning Commission of India?

  1. (a) To control the inflation.
  2. (b) To boost the foreign trade.
  3. (c) To formulate and implement five year plans.
  4. (d) To monitor the currency exchange system in India.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To formulate and implement five year plans.

Correct Answer: To formulate and implement five year plans.
The Planning Commission of India, established in 1950, had the primary function of formulating and implementing Five Year Plans for balanced economic development of the country. It assessed resources, set development priorities, and allocated funds. It was dissolved in 2014 and replaced by NITI Aayog in 2015.
Why other options are wrong:
- To control inflation: This is the function of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) through monetary policy.
- To boost foreign trade: This is the function of the Ministry of Commerce and DGFT.
- To monitor currency exchange: This is the function of the RBI.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Youth development schemes

Q14. The National Youth Policy in India launched in February _____.

  1. (a) 2001
  2. (b) 2014
  3. (c) 2017
  4. (d) 2018
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2014

Correct Answer: 2014
The National Youth Policy (NYP) 2014 was launched by the Government of India in February 2014. It defines youth as persons in the age group of 15–29 years and aims to empower youth to achieve their full potential by guiding and equipping them. The policy focuses on five priority areas including education, employability, entrepreneurship, health, and social values.
Why other options are wrong:
- 2001: The National Youth Policy 2003 was the previous version; 2001 is not correct.
- 2017: No new National Youth Policy was launched in 2017.
- 2018: No new National Youth Policy was launched in 2018.

Current Affairs (3)

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q15. India is ranked _____ in the World Happiness Report published in March 2025.

  1. (a) 95th
  2. (b) 126th
  3. (c) 118th
  4. (d) 111th
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 118th

Correct Answer: 118th
In the World Happiness Report 2025, published by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network in March 2025, India was ranked 118th out of 147 countries. Finland topped the rankings for the eighth consecutive year.
Why other options are wrong:
- 95th: India's ranking in the 2025 report was not 95th.
- 126th: India's ranking in 2023 was 126th; the 2025 rank improved to 118th.
- 111th: Not the correct rank for the 2025 report.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q16. As per the State of the World's Children 2024, by 2050s more than a third of the world's children will live in four countries. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

  1. (a) China
  2. (b) Nigeria
  3. (c) Pakistan
  4. (d) Sudan
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sudan

Correct Answer: Sudan
According to UNICEF's State of the World's Children 2024 report, by the 2050s more than one-third of the world's children will live in just four countries: India, China, Nigeria, and Pakistan. Sudan is NOT among these four countries.
Why other options are wrong:
- China: IS one of the four countries mentioned in the report.
- Nigeria: IS one of the four countries mentioned in the report.
- Pakistan: IS one of the four countries mentioned in the report.
State News · State firsts

Q17. Which of the following became India's first fully solar powered district in May 2025?

  1. (a) Bhopal
  2. (b) Indore
  3. (c) Diu
  4. (d) Nicobar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Diu

Correct Answer: Diu
Diu (Union Territory of Daman, Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli) became India's first fully solar-powered district in May 2025. Diu generates 100% of its electricity from solar energy, meeting its entire daytime power requirement through solar installations. This was made possible through large-scale solar projects and efficient energy management.
Why other options are wrong:
- Bhopal: A major city in Madhya Pradesh; not fully solar powered.
- Indore: Known for cleanliness rankings; not India's first fully solar powered district.
- Nicobar: Part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands; not associated with this achievement.

Physics (1)

Gravitation · Numericals on gravitation

Q18. Weight of an object on earth is 441 N. What is the mass of the object?

  1. (a) 49 kg
  2. (b) 41 kg
  3. (c) 40 kg
  4. (d) 45 kg
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 45 kg

Correct Answer: 45 kg
Weight (W) = mass (m) x acceleration due to gravity (g)
W = mg
441 = m x 9.8
m = 441 / 9.8 = 45 kg
Why other options are wrong:
- 49 kg: 49 x 9.8 = 480.2 N, not 441 N.
- 41 kg: 41 x 9.8 = 401.8 N, not 441 N.
- 40 kg: 40 x 9.8 = 392 N, not 441 N.

Geography (2)

Universe and Solar System · Planets and their features

Q19. According to NASA's research, which planet's rings are disappearing at a worst-case-scenario rate?

  1. (a) Saturn
  2. (b) Uranus
  3. (c) Jupiter
  4. (d) Neptune
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Saturn

Correct Answer: Saturn
According to NASA research, Saturn's iconic rings are disappearing. In a worst-case scenario, Saturn's rings could vanish in as little as 100 million years. The rings are being pulled into Saturn by gravity as a dusty rain of ice particles. NASA's Cassini spacecraft data confirmed that Saturn is losing its rings at the maximum rate feared.
Why other options are wrong:
- Uranus: Has rings, but they are not the ones disappearing at the rates described by NASA.
- Jupiter: Has faint rings, but no significant ring-disappearance research is highlighted.
- Neptune: Also has faint rings; not the focus of NASA ring-disappearance findings.

Q20. Which of the following port is confronted with the problem of silt accumulation in the Hugli River?

  1. (a) Kolkata port
  2. (b) Kochchi port
  3. (c) Tuticorin port
  4. (d) Chennai port
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kolkata port

Correct Answer: Kolkata port
Kolkata Port (Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port) is located on the banks of the Hugli River (a distributary of the Ganga). It faces a chronic problem of silt accumulation in the Hugli River, which makes navigation difficult and requires constant dredging to maintain the required depth for ships.
Why other options are wrong:
- Kochchi port: Located on the Kerala coast (Arabian Sea); no Hugli River issue.
- Tuticorin port: Located in Tamil Nadu on the Gulf of Mannar; no river silt problem.
- Chennai port: Located on the Coromandel Coast (Bay of Bengal); not on the Hugli River.

Medieval History (1)

Q21. Around 1713, Sawai Raja Jai Singh of Amer was appointed governor of which region?

  1. (a) Bengal
  2. (b) Lahore
  3. (c) Agra
  4. (d) Malwa
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Malwa

Correct Answer: Malwa
Sawai Raja Jai Singh II of Amer (later founder of Jaipur) was appointed Governor of Malwa around 1713 by the Mughal Emperor Farrukhsiyar. Jai Singh II was a distinguished astronomer, mathematician, and statesman who later founded the city of Jaipur in 1727 and built the famous Jantar Mantar observatories.
Why other options are wrong:
- Bengal: Was governed by different Mughal nobles; Jai Singh was not appointed governor of Bengal.
- Lahore: Was a separate Mughal province governed by others.
- Agra: Was not the region assigned to Jai Singh around 1713.

Modern History (1)

Revolt of 1857 · Centres and leaders

Q22. Rani Lakshmibai was defeated and killed in _____.

  1. (a) June 1858
  2. (b) September 1860
  3. (c) January 1861
  4. (d) March 1863
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) June 1858

Correct Answer: June 1858
Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi was defeated and killed in June 1858 during the Battle of Gwalior. She fought against the British forces led by General Hugh Rose. She died on 18 June 1858 while fighting on horseback. She remains one of the most celebrated heroines of the 1857 Revolt (First War of Indian Independence).
Why other options are wrong:
- September 1860: Incorrect year and month; the battle was in 1858.
- January 1861: Incorrect; Rani Lakshmibai died in June 1858.
- March 1863: Incorrect; she died five years before this date.

Biology (2)

Nutrition and Digestion · Digestive enzymes and juices

Q23. Which organ of digestive system secretes the enzyme lipase for digesting emulsified fats in humans?

  1. (a) Gall bladder
  2. (b) Liver
  3. (c) Pancreas
  4. (d) Small intestine
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pancreas

Correct Answer: Pancreas
The Pancreas secretes pancreatic lipase (also known as steapsin), which digests emulsified fats (triglycerides) in the small intestine, breaking them down into fatty acids and glycerol. The pancreas is both an exocrine gland (secreting digestive enzymes) and an endocrine gland (secreting insulin and glucagon).
Why other options are wrong:
- Gall bladder: Stores and releases bile (produced by liver), which emulsifies fats but does not produce lipase.
- Liver: Produces bile for emulsification of fats; does not secrete lipase.
- Small intestine: Produces intestinal lipase, but the primary enzyme for fat digestion comes from the pancreas.

Q24. Which of the following statement is correct regarding haemoglobin in humans?
I. In humans it is the respiratory pigment
II. It has very low affinity for oxygen

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only I

Correct Answer: Only I
Statement I is correct: Haemoglobin is the respiratory pigment in humans. It is a red- coloured , iron-containing protein found in red blood cells (RBCs) that carries oxygen from the lungs to the body tissues.
Statement II is incorrect: Haemoglobin has HIGH affinity for oxygen (not low). This high affinity allows it to pick up oxygen efficiently in the lungs. However, it releases oxygen at the tissue level due to lower partial pressure of oxygen. (Carbon monoxide has even higher affinity for haemoglobin , which is why CO poisoning is dangerous.)
Why 'Only II' is wrong: Statement II is false; haemoglobin has high, not low, affinity for oxygen.
Why 'Both I and II' is wrong: Statement II is incorrect.
Why 'Neither' is wrong: Statement I is correct.
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