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SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 13 November 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 25 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 on 13 November 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Static GK, Current Affairs, Geography, Chemistry, Physics, Biology.

📚 25 questions🗓️ 13 November 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Static GK (5) · Current Affairs (5) · Geography (3) · Chemistry (1) · Physics (1) · Biology (2) · Economics (4) · Polity (2) · Medieval History (1) · Ancient History (1)

Static GK (5)

Awards and Honours · Bharat Ratna

Q1. In which year was A. P. J. Abdul Kalam honoured with the Bharat Ratna?

  1. (a) 1989
  2. (b) 1997
  3. (c) 2005
  4. (d) 2011
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1997

Correct Answer: 1997
Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian honour , in 1997. He served as the 11th President of India from 2002 to 2007 and was widely known as the 'Missile Man of India' for his contributions to India's space and nuclear programmes .
Why other options are wrong:
- 1989: He received the Padma Vibhushan in 1990, not the Bharat Ratna.
- 2005: He was already serving as President of India; Bharat Ratna was awarded in 1997.
- 2011: Incorrect year for the award.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q2. Who is the author of the book 'The Namesake'?

  1. (a) Arundhati Roy
  2. (b) Satyajit Ray
  3. (c) Jhumpa Lahiri
  4. (d) Arun Joshi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Jhumpa Lahiri

Correct Answer: Jhumpa Lahiri
'The Namesake' is a novel by Jhumpa Lahiri, published in 2003. It tells the story of an Indian immigrant family, the Ganguli family, and their experiences in the United States. The novel was later adapted into a 2006 film directed by Mira Nair. Jhumpa Lahiri won the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 2000 for her debut short story collection 'Interpreter of Maladies.'
Why other options are wrong:
- Arundhati Roy: Known for 'The God of Small Things' (1997 Booker Prize winner).
- Satyajit Ray: Renowned filmmaker and author, known for the Feluda detective series.
- Arun Joshi: Known for 'The Foreigner' and 'The Strange Case of Billy Biswas.'
Music and Musical Instruments · Musical instruments and exponents

Q3. ' Bengbung ', a Mizo indigenous instrument, is similar to which instrument?

  1. (a) Flute
  2. (b) Cymbal
  3. (c) Mridangam
  4. (d) Xylophone
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Xylophone

Correct Answer: Xylophone
The Bengbung is a traditional Mizo musical instrument from Mizoram. It is a percussion instrument made of bamboo strips of varying lengths suspended over a frame. When struck, the bamboo strips produce melodic tones, making it similar in function and sound to a Xylophone (which uses wooden bars struck by mallets).
Why other options are wrong:
- Flute: A wind instrument; Bengbung is a percussion instrument.
- Cymbal: A metal percussion instrument; Bengbung uses bamboo, not metal.
- Mridangam: A double-headed drum; Bengbung produces melodic tones, not rhythmic drum sounds.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Puppetry and theatre forms

Q4. Which traditional puppet dance of Tamil Nadu depicts scenes from the Ramayana and the Mahabharata?

  1. (a) Ghotul
  2. (b) Parichakali
  3. (c) Bandiya
  4. (d) Bommalattam
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bommalattam

Correct Answer: Bommalattam
Bommalattam (also spelled Bommalattam or Bommalaatam ) is a traditional string puppet theatre of Tamil Nadu. It is one of the most elaborate puppet theatre forms in India, depicting stories from Hindu epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata. It combines the features of both string puppetry and rod puppetry. The term ' Bommalattam ' means 'puppet dance' in Tamil.
Why other options are wrong:
- Ghotul : A community institution of the Muria tribe in Chhattisgarh; not a puppet dance.
- Parichakali : A martial dance form from Kerala; not a puppet tradition.
- Bandiya : Not a recognised traditional puppet dance form of Tamil Nadu.
Space, Defence and Technology · Launch vehicles and satellites

Q5. Which of the following is an example of artificial satellites?
I. Sputnik-I
II. GSAT-I

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Correct Answer: Both I and II
Both Sputnik-I and GSAT-I are artificial satellites:
- Sputnik-I: Launched by the Soviet Union on 4 October 1957, it was the world's first artificial satellite.
- GSAT-I: India's first experimental geostationary communication satellite, launched by ISRO in 2001 aboard GSLV-D1.
Both are man-made (artificial) satellites placed in orbit around the Earth, as opposed to natural satellites like the Moon.
Why 'Only I' is wrong: GSAT-I is also an artificial satellite.
Why 'Only II' is wrong: Sputnik-I is also an artificial satellite.
Why 'Neither' is wrong: Both are well-known artificial satellites.

Current Affairs (5)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q6. In September 2024, who has been appointed as the new director general of the Narcotics Control Bureau?

  1. (a) Prakash Tomar
  2. (b) Nishant Sharma
  3. (c) Anurag Garg
  4. (d) Vikram Chaudhary
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Anurag Garg

Correct Answer: Anurag Garg
Anurag Garg, an IPS officer, was appointed as the Director General of the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) in September 2024. The NCB is the nodal agency for drug law enforcement in India, operating under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Why other options are wrong:
- Prakash Tomar: Not the appointed DG of NCB in September 2024.
- Nishant Sharma: Not the appointed DG of NCB in September 2024.
- Vikram Chaudhary: Not the appointed DG of NCB in September 2024.
Art, Culture and Events - Current · Festivals and cultural events - current

Q7. In June 2025, which foreign brand unveiled footwear inspired by Kolhapuri chappals which sparked accusations of 'cultural misappropriation'?

  1. (a) Prada
  2. (b) Gucci
  3. (c) Chanel
  4. (d) Dior
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Prada

Correct Answer: Prada
In June 2025, Italian luxury fashion brand Prada unveiled a footwear design that closely resembled the traditional Kolhapuri chappal - a handcrafted leather sandal originating from Kolhapur, Maharashtra, and Belgaum, Karnataka. The design sparked widespread controversy and accusations of cultural misappropriation, as it drew heavily from this centuries-old Indian craft tradition without crediting its origins.
Why other options are wrong:
- Gucci: Not associated with the Kolhapuri chappal controversy in June 2025.
- Chanel: Not associated with this incident.
- Dior: Not associated with this incident.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q8. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban 2.0, approved in August 2024 aims to provide housing subsidies to which group?

  1. (a) Urban poor and middle-class families
  2. (b) All women-headed households
  3. (c) MSME workers in urban slums
  4. (d) Airline industry employees
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Urban poor and middle-class families

Correct Answer: Urban poor and middle-class families
Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban 2.0 (PMAY-U 2.0), approved by the Union Cabinet in August 2024, aims to provide housing subsidies and financial assistance to urban poor and middle-class families who do not own a pucca house. The scheme targets the Economically Weaker Section (EWS), Low Income Group (LIG), and Middle Income Group (MIG) categories.
Why other options are wrong:
- All women-headed households: Not the specific target group for PMAY-U 2.0.
- MSME workers in urban slums: Not the defined beneficiary category.
- Airline industry employees: No connection to this housing scheme.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · National indices and rankings

Q9. Which of the Indian state/union territory achieved 1st rank in India Electric Mobility Index 2024?

  1. (a) Delhi
  2. (b) Rajasthan
  3. (c) Lakshadweep
  4. (d) Haryana
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Delhi

Correct Answer: Delhi
Delhi achieved the 1st rank in the India Electric Mobility Index (IEMI) 2024. Delhi has been a frontrunner in EV adoption due to its EV Policy 2020, strong charging infrastructure, high EV registrations, and government incentives. The IEMI ranks Indian states and UTs on their electric vehicle ecosystem.
Why other options are wrong:
- Rajasthan: Ranked lower in the IEMI 2024.
- Lakshadweep: Small UT with limited EV infrastructure.
- Haryana: Not the top-ranked state in IEMI 2024.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Research breakthroughs - current

Q10. In August 2025, which technological breakthrough aims to reduce India's reliance on Chinese specialty fertilisers ?

  1. (a) Green hydrogen blend
  2. (b) Water-soluble fertiliser process
  3. (c) Nano-fertilizer deployment
  4. (d) Fast-charging lithium battery process
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Water-soluble fertiliser process

Correct Answer: Water-soluble fertiliser process
In August 2025, India achieved a technological breakthrough in developing a domestic water-soluble fertiliser process. China has been a dominant supplier of specialty water-soluble fertilisers used in precision agriculture and fertigation. This indigenous process aimed to reduce India's dependency on Chinese imports of specialty fertilisers , which are essential for high-value crop farming.
Why other options are wrong:
- Green hydrogen blend: Relates to clean energy and fuel; not directly linked to fertiliser independence.
- Nano-fertilizer deployment: Nano fertilizers are already being developed in India by IFFCO; this was not the specific August 2025 breakthrough.
- Fast-charging lithium battery: Relates to electric vehicles/energy storage; unrelated to fertilisers .

Geography (3)

India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Forest types and distribution

Q11. The Kadbanwadi grassland is in _____.

  1. (a) Tamil Nadu
  2. (b) Andhra Pradesh
  3. (c) Odisha
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Maharashtra

Correct Answer: Maharashtra
The Kadbanwadi grassland is located in Maharashtra, India. It is known for its rich biodiversity and is an important habitat for several grassland species. Grasslands in Maharashtra, particularly in the Deccan Plateau region, are ecologically significant and support wildlife including wolves, foxes, and various bird species.
Why other options are wrong:
- Tamil Nadu: Kadbanwadi grassland is not located in Tamil Nadu.
- Andhra Pradesh: This grassland is not in Andhra Pradesh.
- Odisha: Not the state where Kadbanwadi grassland is found.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Extreme points and area facts

Q12. About what percentage of India's land are covered under plateau region?

  1. (a) 5%
  2. (b) 12%
  3. (c) 27%
  4. (d) 59%
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 27%

Correct Answer: 27%
Approximately 27% of India's total land area is covered by the plateau region. The major plateau regions in India include the Deccan Plateau (the largest), Chota Nagpur Plateau, Malwa Plateau, and Meghalaya Plateau. The plateau region is characterised by a relatively flat terrain elevated above the surrounding land.
Why other options are wrong:
- 5%: Too small a percentage for India's vast plateau regions.
- 12%: Below the actual coverage of plateau regions in India.
- 59%: This is approximately the percentage covered by the peninsular plateau region more broadly; 27% is the standard figure for the plateau landform category.
India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q13. In the context of population change, if the birth rate is _____ than death rate, the population will _____.

  1. (a) more, be increase
  2. (b) more, be decrease
  3. (c) less, be increase
  4. (d) less, remain same
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) more, be increase

Correct Answer: more, be increase
Population growth depends on the relationship between birth rate and death rate:
- If birth rate > death rate: Population increases (positive natural growth rate).
- If birth rate < death rate: Population decreases (negative natural growth rate).
- If birth rate = death rate: Population remains stable (zero natural growth rate).
Therefore, if the birth rate is MORE than the death rate, the population will INCREASE.
Why other options are wrong:
- More, be decrease: If births exceed deaths, population grows, not decreases.
- Less, be increase: If births are fewer than deaths, population declines.
- Less, remain same: If births are fewer than deaths, population decreases, not remains stable.

Chemistry (1)

Matter and its States · Interconversion of states (melting, boiling, sublimation, deposition)

Q14. What is the change of state from liquid to solid at atmospheric pressure known as?

  1. (a) Solidification
  2. (b) Deposition
  3. (c) Sublimation
  4. (d) Evaporation
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Solidification

Correct Answer: Solidification
Solidification (also called freezing) is the process by which a substance changes from the liquid state to the solid state when its temperature is lowered to its freezing point at atmospheric pressure. Example: Water freezing to form ice at 0 degrees C.
Why other options are wrong:
- Deposition: Change of state directly from gas to solid (e.g., frost formation), skipping the liquid phase.
- Sublimation: Change of state directly from solid to gas (e.g., dry ice/camphor), skipping the liquid phase.
- Evaporation: Change of state from liquid to gas at the surface of a liquid.

Physics (1)

Work, Energy and Power · Conservation and transformation of energy

Q15. Which of the following is correct regarding law of conservation of energy?
I. Energy can only be converted from one form to another.
II. Energy can be easily destroyed.

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only I

Correct Answer: Only I
Statement I is correct: According to the Law of Conservation of Energy, energy can neither be created nor destroyed; it can only be converted from one form to another. For example, electrical energy is converted to light and heat in a bulb.
Statement II is incorrect: Energy cannot be destroyed. This directly contradicts the Law of Conservation of Energy. The total energy of an isolated system remains constant.
Why 'Only II' is wrong: Statement II is false.
Why 'Both I and II' is wrong: Statement II is incorrect.
Why 'Neither' is wrong: Statement I correctly describes the law.

Biology (2)

Human Body - General Facts · Skeletal system and bones

Q16. The 'ossification test' is used to determine the _____ of a person.

  1. (a) Age
  2. (b) Height
  3. (c) Weight
  4. (d) Blood group
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Age

Correct Answer: Age
The ossification test (also known as bone ossification or skeletal maturity test) is a forensic and medical test used to estimate the age of a person by examining the degree of bone development and fusion (ossification) of bone epiphyses (growth plates). As a person ages, bones gradually harden and growth plates fuse. This test is widely used in medico-legal cases to determine the age of individuals when birth records are unavailable.
Why other options are wrong:
- Height: Height is measured directly; ossification test does not determine height.
- Weight: Weight is measured directly; unrelated to bone ossification.
- Blood group: Determined by blood typing (ABO test), not bone examination.
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Blood vessels, circulation and blood pressure

Q17. In humans, what is the value of normal systolic and diastolic blood pressure respectively?

  1. (a) 75 mm Hg and 60 mm Hg respectively
  2. (b) 80 mm Hg and 70 mm Hg respectively
  3. (c) 100 mm Hg and 95 mm Hg respectively
  4. (d) 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg respectively
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg respectively

Correct Answer: 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg respectively
The normal blood pressure in healthy adults is 120/80 mm Hg:
- Systolic pressure (120 mm Hg): The pressure in arteries when the heart beats and pumps blood out.
- Diastolic pressure (80 mm Hg): The pressure in arteries when the heart is at rest between beats.
This is commonly expressed as '120 over 80.' Blood pressure above 130/80 mm Hg is classified as hypertension (high blood pressure).
Why other options are wrong:
- 75/60 mm Hg: Too low; this would indicate hypotension (low blood pressure).
- 80/70 mm Hg: Below normal range.
- 100/95 mm Hg: The diastolic value (95) is too high and abnormal.

Economics (4)

Q18. In progressive income taxation _____.

  1. (a) higher income leads to a higher tax rate
  2. (b) everyone pays the same tax rate
  3. (c) lower income leads to a higher tax rate
  4. (d) higher income leads to a lower tax rate
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) higher income leads to a higher tax rate

Correct Answer: higher income leads to a higher tax rate
Progressive taxation is a tax system in which the tax rate increases as the taxable income increases. Those who earn more pay a higher percentage of their income as tax. India's income tax slabs follow a progressive structure - individuals earning higher incomes fall in higher tax brackets.
Why other options are wrong:
- Everyone pays the same tax rate: This describes a flat/proportional tax system, not progressive.
- Lower income leads to a higher tax rate: This describes a regressive tax system.
- Higher income leads to a lower tax rate: This is the opposite of progressive taxation.
Financial Markets and Institutions · SEBI and stock exchanges

Q19. In which year the SEBI formulated the 'Insider Trading Regulations'?

  1. (a) 1996
  2. (b) 1990
  3. (c) 1992
  4. (d) 1994
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1992

Correct Answer: 1992
SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) formulated the SEBI (Insider Trading) Regulations in 1992. These regulations prohibited insider trading - the practice of buying or selling securities based on material, non-public information by persons connected with the company. SEBI was itself established as a statutory body in 1992 under the SEBI Act, 1992.
Why other options are wrong:
- 1996: SEBI issued revised/updated regulations in 1992 initially; 1996 is not the year of original formulation.
- 1990: SEBI was a non-statutory body before 1992; formal regulations were not in place.
- 1994: Not the year of the original Insider Trading Regulations.

Q20. Land reforms introduced after the independence were successful in which of the following Indian state?
I. Kerala
II. West Bengal

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Correct Answer: Both I and II
Land reforms were notably successful in both Kerala and West Bengal after Indian independence:
- Kerala: The Kerala Land Reforms Act (1963, amended 1969) effectively redistributed land to tenant farmers and abolished the feudal landlord system ( Jenmis ). It is considered one of the most successful land reform programmes in Asia.
- West Bengal: Under the Left Front government (Operation Barga, 1978), land reforms gave share-croppers ( bargadars ) legal protection and ensured they received 75% of crop produce. Patta distribution to landless poor was also implemented.
Both states are cited as success stories of post-independence land reform in India.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q21. What was the share of industry in India's GDP in 1950-1951?

  1. (a) 5%
  2. (b) 7%
  3. (c) 13%
  4. (d) 27%
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 13%

Correct Answer: 13%
At the time of independence and during 1950-51, the share of industry in India's GDP was approximately 13%. India's economy at that time was predominantly agrarian, with agriculture contributing around 55-56% of GDP. Industry (including manufacturing, mining, and construction) contributed about 13-15%, while the services sector made up the rest.
Why other options are wrong:
- 5%: Too low; even at independence, industry had a visible share.
- 7%: Below the actual figure for 1950-51.
- 27%: Much higher than the actual industrial share at that time.

Polity (2)

Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q22. The code on social security extends social security to _____.

  1. (a) only central government employee
  2. (b) only state government employee
  3. (c) only private sector employee
  4. (d) organised or unorganised sector employee
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) organised or unorganised sector employee

Correct Answer: organised or unorganised sector employee
The Code on Social Security, 2020 (one of the four Labour Codes) consolidates nine central labour laws related to social security. It extends social security benefits to workers in both the organised sector (formal employment) and the unorganised sector (informal employment), including gig workers, platform workers, and construction workers. This was a landmark expansion from the earlier laws that primarily covered only organised sector employees.
Why other options are wrong:
- Only central government employees: Too restrictive; the code covers both organised and unorganised sectors.
- Only state government employees: Too restrictive.
- Only private sector employees: Too restrictive; includes government workers too.
Union Executive · Vice-President

Q23. The Vice President of India can be removed from office by _____.

  1. (a) Impeachment by the President
  2. (b) Resolution passed by the Council of States and agreed to by the House of the People
  3. (c) Resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament with one-thirds majority
  4. (d) The President on the advice of the Prime Minister
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Resolution passed by the Council of States and agreed to by the House of the People

Correct Answer: Resolution passed by the Council of States and agreed to by the House of the People
As per Article 67(b) of the Indian Constitution, the Vice President can be removed from office by a resolution passed by the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) with a majority of all the then members and agreed to by the House of the People (Lok Sabha). Unlike the President's removal, no special majority is needed in the Lok Sabha - only a simple majority.
Why other options are wrong:
- Impeachment by the President: The President is removed by impeachment by Parliament; the Vice President has a different removal process.
- Both Houses with one-thirds majority: This is not the constitutional provision for VP removal.
- President on PM's advice: The President does not remove the VP on PM's advice; it requires a Parliamentary resolution.

Medieval History (1)

Marathas · Shivaji - life and conquests

Q24. Shivaji's exploits against which forces made him a legendary figure?
I. Mughal
II. Bijapur

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Correct Answer: Both I and II
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj became a legendary figure through his military exploits against both the Mughal Empire and the Bijapur Sultanate:
- Against Bijapur: Shivaji carved out his early kingdom by capturing forts from the Bijapur Sultanate. His assassination of Afzal Khan (Bijapur general) in 1659 was a legendary act of bravery.
- Against Mughals: Shivaji defied the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb, escaped from Mughal captivity in Agra (1666), and successfully fought Mughal forces across the Deccan.
Both struggles together established Shivaji as a symbol of resistance, courage, and Hindu pride.

Ancient History (1)

Mahajanapadas and Rise of Magadha · Sixteen Mahajanapadas and their capitals

Q25. In ancient India, the Mahajanapada of 'Anga' had its capital at which city in Bihar?

  1. (a) Vaishali
  2. (b) Champa
  3. (c) Kausambi
  4. (d) Gaya
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Champa

Correct Answer: Champa
The ancient Mahajanapada of Anga had its capital at Champa (also known as Champapuri or Champa), located in present-day Bhagalpur district in Bihar. Anga was one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas (great kingdoms) of ancient India. The city of Champa was an important centre of trade and commerce, especially for sea trade.
Why other options are wrong:
- Vaishali: Was the capital of the Vajji ( Licchavi ) Mahajanapada , not Anga.
- Kausambi : Was the capital of the Vatsa Mahajanapada , located in present-day Uttar Pradesh.
- Gaya: Was associated with the Magadha Mahajanapada ; not the capital of Anga.
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