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SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 22 November 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 25 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 on 22 November 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Static GK, Medieval History, Current Affairs, Economics, Ancient History, Geography.

📚 25 questions🗓️ 22 November 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Static GK (6) · Medieval History (2) · Current Affairs (3) · Economics (4) · Ancient History (3) · Geography (5) · Physics (1) · Biology (1)

Static GK (6)

Q1. Which of the following tribe was very influential in Punjab during the thirteenth and fourteenth century?

  1. (a) The Khokhar
  2. (b) The Gond
  3. (c) The Santhal
  4. (d) The Bhil
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The Khokhar

Correct Answer: The Khokhar (Option 1)
The Khokhar tribe was a powerful and influential tribal group based in the Punjab region (present-day Pakistan and northwestern India) during the 13th and 14th centuries. They frequently came into conflict with the Delhi Sultanate and played a significant role in the politics of the region during the reigns of sultans like Balban and Alauddin Khalji.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 - The Gond: The Gonds are a tribal group predominantly found in central India (Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra), not Punjab.
Option 3 - The Santhal: The Santhals are a tribal community of eastern India (Jharkhand, West Bengal, Odisha), far from Punjab.
Option 4 - The Bhil: The Bhils are found mainly in Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh, not in Punjab.
Cinema and Media · Firsts in cinema

Q2. Who was the First Indian actress to win an international award at the 1963 Moscow International Film Festival?

  1. (a) Nargis Dutt
  2. (b) Suchitra Sen
  3. (c) Zeenat Aman
  4. (d) Jaya Prada
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Suchitra Sen

Correct Answer: Suchitra Sen (Option 2)
Suchitra Sen won the Best Actress Award at the 1963 Moscow International Film Festival for her performance in the Bengali film 'Saat Pake Bandha' (1963). She was the first Indian actress to win an international film award, making her a pioneering figure in Indian cinema.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 - Nargis Dutt: She won the National Film Award for Best Actress (1958) for 'Mother India', not a 1963 Moscow award.
Option 3 - Zeenat Aman: She was born in 1951 and had her debut in 1970, making it impossible for her to have won in 1963.
Option 4 - Jaya Prada: She made her debut in 1975, long after the 1963 Moscow Film Festival.
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q3. Who was the first Indian to be awarded the Nobel Prize?

  1. (a) Amartya Sen
  2. (b) Kailash Satyarthi
  3. (c) Rabindranath Tagore
  4. (d) Subramanian Chandrashekar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rabindranath Tagore

Correct Answer: Rabindranath Tagore (Option 3)
Rabindranath Tagore was the first Indian to receive the Nobel Prize. He was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913 for his collection of poems 'Gitanjali'. He was also the first Asian to win the Nobel Prize in Literature.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 - Amartya Sen: Won the Nobel Prize in Economics in 1998, much later than Tagore.
Option 2 - Kailash Satyarthi: Won the Nobel Peace Prize in 2014.
Option 4 - Subramanian Chandrashekar: Won the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1983 as an American citizen of Indian origin, not as an Indian national.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q4. Who is the author of the book ' Speedpost ', a collection of personal letters to her children?

  1. (a) Kiran Desai
  2. (b) Shobha De
  3. (c) Jhumpa Lahiri
  4. (d) Arundhati Roy
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Shobha De

Correct Answer: Shobha De (Option 2)
Shobha De is the author of ' Speedpost : Letters to My Children'. In this book, she addresses personal letters to her six children, covering topics like love, life, relationships, and her own experiences. Shobha De is a well-known Indian author, columnist, and social commentator known for her candid writing style.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 - Kiran Desai: She is known for 'The Inheritance of Loss' (Booker Prize winner), not ' Speedpost '.
Option 3 - Jhumpa Lahiri: Known for 'Interpreter of Maladies' and 'The Namesake', not ' Speedpost '.
Option 4 - Arundhati Roy: Known for 'The God of Small Things', not ' Speedpost '.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q5. Which of the following is popular dance of the state of Himachal Pradesh?

  1. (a) Fugdi
  2. (b) Sattriya
  3. (c) Jhumar
  4. (d) Shand and Shabu
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Shand and Shabu

Correct Answer: Shand and Shabu (Option 4)
Shand and Shabu is a traditional folk dance of Himachal Pradesh. It is performed during festive occasions in the Spiti and Lahaul valleys of Himachal Pradesh, reflecting the cultural heritage of the region.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 - Fugdi : A traditional folk dance of Goa and Konkan region, not Himachal Pradesh.
Option 2 - Sattriya : A classical dance form originating from Assam, one of the eight classical dances of India.
Option 3 - Jhumar: A folk dance associated with Punjab and Haryana, not Himachal Pradesh.
Indian Railways · Railway projects and technology (Kavach, DFC, high-speed rail)

Q6. In January 2025, which country has developed the World's Most powerful hydrogen train engine?

  1. (a) India
  2. (b) Germany
  3. (c) Japan
  4. (d) France
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) India

Correct Answer: India (Option 1)
In January 2025, India (through RDSO - Research Designs and Standards Organisation and Indian Railways) developed the world's most powerful hydrogen train engine. This was a significant achievement for India's clean energy goals and railway modernization program, making it a global leader in hydrogen-powered rail technology.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 - Germany: Germany was the first country to commercially operate hydrogen trains (Alstom Coradia iLint , 2022) but did not develop the most powerful hydrogen engine in January 2025.
Option 3 - Japan: Japan has been working on hydrogen trains but did not claim this milestone in January 2025.
Option 4 - France: France has been developing hydrogen trains but did not achieve this milestone.

Medieval History (2)

Mughal Empire · Akbar - conquests and policies

Q7. Which of the following pairs is correct regarding the campaign years of Akbar at various places?
I. Ranthambore - 1569
II. Gujarat - 1572

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Correct Answer: Both I and II (Option 3)
Both statements are historically accurate:
Statement I - Akbar captured Ranthambore in 1569. This fort was held by the Hada Rajputs . After its capture, it became part of the Mughal Empire.
Statement II - Akbar conquered Gujarat in 1572. He led a successful campaign against the Gujarat Sultanate and absorbed it into the Mughal Empire.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Only I) and Option 2 (Only II) are incorrect because both statements are correct.
Option 4 (Neither I nor II) is incorrect as both facts are verified historical events.
Later Mughals and Regional Powers · Third Battle of Panipat

Q8. Which of the following battles was fought in 1761?

  1. (a) Third Battle of Panipat
  2. (b) First Battle of Panipat
  3. (c) Second Battle of Tarain
  4. (d) First Battle of Tarain
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Third Battle of Panipat

Correct Answer: Third Battle of Panipat (Option 1)
The Third Battle of Panipat was fought on 14 January 1761 between the Maratha Empire and Ahmad Shah Durrani (of the Afghan Durrani Empire). The Marathas suffered a decisive defeat, which halted their northward expansion. This battle is considered one of the largest and most decisive battles of the 18th century in India.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 - First Battle of Panipat: Fought in 1526 between Babur and Ibrahim Lodi; it laid the foundation of the Mughal Empire.
Option 3 - Second Battle of Tarain : Fought in 1192 between Muhammad of Ghor and Prithviraj Chauhan.
Option 4 - First Battle of Tarain : Fought in 1191 between Muhammad of Ghor and Prithviraj Chauhan (Prithviraj won).

Current Affairs (3)

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q9. Swavalambini that was launched in March 2025 is a ______.

  1. (a) Women Entrepreneurship Programme
  2. (b) Financial Literacy Campaign
  3. (c) Digital Inclusion Project
  4. (d) Childcare Support Initiative
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Women Entrepreneurship Programme

Correct Answer: Women Entrepreneurship Programme (Option 1)
Swavalambini is a Women Entrepreneurship Programme launched in March 2025 by NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development). It aims to promote and support women entrepreneurs, especially in rural and semi-urban areas, by providing financial assistance, skill development, and mentoring support.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 - Financial Literacy Campaign: This does not describe the scope or purpose of Swavalambini .
Option 3 - Digital Inclusion Project: Swavalambini focuses on entrepreneurship, not digital access.
Option 4 - Childcare Support Initiative: This is unrelated to the programme's objectives.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q10. In World Press Freedom Index 2025, which of the following countries is worst performer?

  1. (a) Eritrea
  2. (b) Pakistan
  3. (c) Sudan
  4. (d) Nepal
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Eritrea

Correct Answer: Eritrea (Option 1)
In the World Press Freedom Index 2025 published by Reporters Without Borders (RSF), Eritrea ranked last (or among the worst) among all countries. Eritrea has been consistently ranked at the bottom of the Press Freedom Index for years due to its total suppression of independent media and severe restrictions on journalists.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 - Pakistan: Ranked poorly but not the worst on the index.
Option 3 - Sudan: Has a low ranking due to press restrictions but is not the worst performer.
Option 4 - Nepal: Has a relatively better press freedom ranking compared to Eritrea.
Economy, Banking and Business · Budget and economic data - current

Q11. What is India's cumulative solar power capacity (in GW) as of July 2025?

  1. (a) 50
  2. (b) 67.75
  3. (c) 119.02
  4. (d) 175
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 119.02

Correct Answer: 119.02 GW (Option 3)
As of July 2025, India's cumulative installed solar power capacity reached approximately 119.02 GW. India has been rapidly expanding its renewable energy sector as part of its target of achieving 500 GW of non-fossil fuel energy capacity by 2030. Solar energy has been the fastest-growing component of India's renewable energy portfolio.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 - 50 GW: India crossed the 50 GW solar milestone earlier (around 2022).
Option 2 - 67.75 GW: This was an earlier milestone, not the July 2025 figure.
Option 4 - 175 GW: This exceeds India's total solar capacity as of July 2025.

Economics (4)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Financial inclusion schemes (PMJDY, PMJJBY, PMSBY, APY)

Q12. In 2025, PM SVANidhi was enhanced with UPI-linked credit cards for street vendors. Which Ministry oversees this?

  1. (a) Ministry of Finance
  2. (b) Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs
  3. (c) Ministry of Commerce & Industry
  4. (d) Ministry of MSME
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs

Correct Answer: Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs (Option 2)
PM SVANidhi (PM Street Vendor's AtmaNirbhar Nidhi) is a scheme launched under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs ( MoHUA ). The scheme provides micro-credit loans to street vendors for their working capital needs. In 2025, it was enhanced with UPI-linked credit cards to promote digital transactions among street vendors.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 - Ministry of Finance: While it handles financial policies, PM SVANidhi is administered by MoHUA .
Option 3 - Ministry of Commerce & Industry: This ministry deals with trade and industry policies, not street vendor welfare.
Option 4 - Ministry of MSME: The MSME Ministry focuses on micro, small and medium enterprises, not specifically street vendors under this scheme.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Revenue and capital receipts and expenditure

Q13. In the context of Budget, the salaries, pensions, defence services comes under _____.

  1. (a) revenue expenditure
  2. (b) revenue receipts
  3. (c) capital receipts
  4. (d) capital expenditure
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) revenue expenditure

Correct Answer: revenue expenditure (Option 1)
Revenue expenditure refers to the government's spending on day-to-day operations that do not create long-term assets. Salaries and wages of government employees, pensions, and expenditure on defence services (operational costs) are all classified as revenue expenditure because they are recurring in nature and do not result in the creation of capital assets.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 - revenue receipts: These are incomes of the government (taxes, non-tax revenues) — not expenditure.
Option 3 - capital receipts: These refer to government income that creates liabilities or reduces assets (borrowings, disinvestment proceeds).
Option 4 - capital expenditure: This involves spending on long-term assets like infrastructure, buildings, and machinery.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q14. The Deepak Parekh committee to look into various aspects of providing affordable housing was set up in which year?

  1. (a) 2008
  2. (b) 2001
  3. (c) 2005
  4. (d) 2011
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 2008

Correct Answer: 2008 (Option 1)
The Deepak Parekh Committee on affordable housing was set up by the Government of India in 2008. The committee was tasked with studying various aspects of providing affordable housing in India, including financing, policy recommendations, and addressing the housing shortage for economically weaker sections and low-income groups.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 - 2001: No such committee on affordable housing was constituted in 2001.
Option 3 - 2005: This year does not correspond to the formation of this particular committee.
Option 4 - 2011: The committee was formed earlier, in 2008.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · FRBM Act and fiscal policy

Q15. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act-2003 mandates the central government to reduce fiscal deficit to not more than _____ of GDP.

  1. (a) 1%
  2. (b) 2%
  3. (c) 3%
  4. (d) 8%
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 3%

Correct Answer: 3% (Option 3)
The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 mandates that the central government reduce and maintain the fiscal deficit to not more than 3% of GDP. This was set as a medium-term fiscal consolidation target. The act was enacted to ensure fiscal discipline, reduce fiscal deficit, and promote macroeconomic stability in India.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 - 1%: This is too strict a target and not what the FRBM Act specifies.
Option 2 - 2%: This is also stricter than the 3% FRBM mandate.
Option 4 - 8%: This is far higher than the prescribed FRBM limit and represents a high deficit level.

Ancient History (3)

Gupta Empire · Gupta art and temples

Q16. Which of the following period is known as the "Golden age" of Indian temple architecture?

  1. (a) Gupta period
  2. (b) Maurya Period
  3. (c) Delhi Sultanate Period
  4. (d) Mughal Period
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Gupta period

Correct Answer: Gupta period (Option 1)
The Gupta period (4th to 6th century AD) is widely regarded as the 'Golden Age' of Indian temple architecture. This era saw the development of the Nagara (North Indian) style of temple architecture. Famous examples include the Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh, the Vishnu Temple at Tigawa , and the Bhitargaon Temple. The Guptas also made significant contributions to sculpture, literature, science, and mathematics.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 - Maurya Period: Known for rock-cut architecture and the Ashoka pillars, not Hindu temple architecture.
Option 3 - Delhi Sultanate Period: Marked by Indo-Islamic architecture, not the flowering of Hindu temple styles.
Option 4 - Mughal Period: Renowned for Mughal architecture (Taj Mahal, Red Fort), not classical Hindu temples.

Q17. Under the policy of matrimonial alliances, Bimbisara married the sister of which king of Kosala?

  1. (a) Chetak
  2. (b) Ajatashatru
  3. (c) Prasenjit
  4. (d) Brahmadatta
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Prasenjit

Correct Answer: Prasenjit (Option 3)
Bimbisara , the king of Magadha ( Haryanka dynasty), followed a policy of matrimonial alliances to strengthen his kingdom politically. He married Koshadevi (also called Mahakosala ), the sister of King Prasenjit of Kosala. This alliance strengthened the political bond between the kingdoms of Magadha and Kosala and also brought a dowry (the Kashi village) to Magadha.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 - Chetak: Chetak was the king of Vaishali ( Lichchhavi clan); Bimbisara married his daughter Chellana, not Chetak's sister.
Option 2 - Ajatashatru: Ajatashatru was the son of Bimbisara (who later overthrew him), not a Kosala king.
Option 4 - Brahmadatta: This name is associated with a king of Kashi/Varanasi in ancient texts, not related to Bimbisara's matrimonial alliances with Kosala.
Post-Mauryan Period · Satavahanas

Q18. Gautamiputra Satakarni, who ruled in the first century AD, is regarded as the greatest among which dynasty's rulers?

  1. (a) Gupta rulers
  2. (b) Maurya rulers
  3. (c) Chola rulers
  4. (d) Satavahana rulers
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Satavahana rulers

Correct Answer: Satavahana rulers (Option 4)
Gautamiputra Satakarni (ruled c. 78–102 AD) is regarded as the greatest ruler of the Satavahana dynasty. He is often called the 'restorer' of Satavahana power as he defeated the Kshaharatas (Western Kshatrapas ) and expanded the Satavahana Empire across the Deccan region. His achievements are recorded in the Nasik Prashasti inscription composed by his mother Gautami Balashri.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 - Gupta rulers: The Gupta dynasty flourished in the 4th–6th centuries AD; Chandragupta II is considered their greatest ruler.
Option 2 - Maurya rulers: The Maurya dynasty (4th–2nd century BC) is associated with Chandragupta Maurya and Ashoka, not Gautamiputra Satakarni.
Option 3 - Chola rulers: The Chola dynasty's greatest period was the 9th–13th centuries AD, associated with Rajaraja Chola I and Rajendra Chola I.

Geography (5)

Universe and Solar System · Universe, galaxies and Big Bang

Q19. Within _____ years from the Big Bang, temperature dropped to 4500K (Kelvin) and gave rise to atomic matter. The universe became transparent.

  1. (a) 300000
  2. (b) 3000
  3. (c) 30000
  4. (d) 300
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 300000

Correct Answer: 300000 years (Option 1)
Approximately 300,000 years after the Big Bang, the universe cooled to around 4500K (Kelvin). At this temperature, electrons combined with protons to form neutral hydrogen atoms — a process known as 'recombination'. Before this, the universe was filled with a hot, opaque plasma that scattered light. After recombination, photons could travel freely, making the universe transparent. This epoch also produced the Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB) radiation, which is still detectable today.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 - 3000 years: Too early; the universe was still too hot and opaque.
Option 3 - 30000 years: Still too early for recombination to occur.
Option 4 - 300 years: Far too early; the universe was extremely hot at this stage.
India - Drainage System · Dams and river valley projects

Q20. The Hirakud Dam project is a multipurpose scheme intended for flood control, irrigation and power generation. It is built across _____ river.

  1. (a) Periyar
  2. (b) Krishna
  3. (c) Mahanadi
  4. (d) Indus
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mahanadi

Correct Answer: Mahanadi (Option 3)
The Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi river near Sambalpur in Odisha. It was one of the first major multipurpose river valley projects undertaken after India's independence. Completed in 1957, it is one of the longest dams in the world. The dam serves the purposes of flood control in the Mahanadi delta, irrigation, and hydroelectric power generation.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 - Periyar: The Periyar Dam/Idukki Dam is built on the Periyar river in Kerala.
Option 2 - Krishna: The Nagarjuna Sagar and Srisailam dams are built on the Krishna river .
Option 4 - Indus: The Indus river flows through Jammu & Kashmir and Pakistan; Hirakud is in Odisha.

Q21. Which of the following state is rich in sandstone, granite and marble?

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Andhra Pradesh
  3. (c) Odisha
  4. (d) Rajasthan
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Rajasthan

Correct Answer: Rajasthan (Option 4)
Rajasthan is the leading state in India for production of sandstone, granite, and marble. The state has abundant mineral resources — Rajasthan accounts for over 90% of India's marble production (mainly from Makrana and Nagaur districts), significant granite deposits, and sandstone quarries (notably the red sandstone of Dholpur used in historical monuments like the Red Fort and Fatehpur Sikri).
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 - Kerala: Known for its backwaters, spices, and laterite soil, not particularly for sandstone, granite, or marble.
Option 2 - Andhra Pradesh: Has some granite reserves but is not the primary producer of all three minerals.
Option 3 - Odisha: Rich in iron ore, coal, and bauxite, not primarily known for sandstone, granite, and marble.

Q22. What was the literacy rate of India as per census 1951?

  1. (a) 18.33%
  2. (b) 28.33%
  3. (c) 10.33%
  4. (d) 9.33%
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 18.33%

Correct Answer: 18.33% (Option 1)
According to the Census of India 1951 (the first census after independence), the literacy rate of India was 18.33%. At that time, only about 18 out of every 100 Indians could read and write. Since then, India's literacy rate has improved significantly — reaching 74.04% in the 2011 Census. The low literacy in 1951 was a result of colonial-era neglect of mass education.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 - 28.33%: This figure is higher than the actual 1951 literacy rate.
Option 3 - 10.33%: This is lower than the actual 1951 literacy rate.
Option 4 - 9.33%: This is significantly lower than the recorded literacy rate of 1951.
Geography Miscellaneous · Geographical terms and instruments

Q23. Which of the following is a sub-field of social geography?
I. Gender Geography
II. Cultural Geography

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Correct Answer: Both I and II (Option 3)
Social geography is a broad sub-discipline of human geography that studies the relationship between society and space. Both Gender Geography and Cultural Geography are recognized sub-fields within it:
Statement I - Gender Geography: Studies how gender relations, identities, and inequalities are spatially produced and reproduced — a key sub-field of social geography.
Statement II - Cultural Geography: Examines how culture, values, and practices shape and are shaped by geographic space — also a well-established sub-field of social geography.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Only I) and Option 2 (Only II) are incorrect because both are valid sub-fields.
Option 4 (Neither I nor II) is incorrect as both statements are factually accurate.

Physics (1)

Motion · Speed and velocity

Q24. The object covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in _____ motion.

  1. (a) uniform
  2. (b) linear
  3. (c) non-uniform
  4. (d) circular
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) non-uniform

Correct Answer: non-uniform (Option 3)
When an object covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in non-uniform motion (also called accelerated or decelerated motion). This means the speed of the object is changing — it is either speeding up or slowing down. Examples include a car braking, a ball rolling down a slope, or a ball thrown upward.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 - uniform motion: In uniform motion, an object covers EQUAL distances in equal intervals of time (constant speed).
Option 2 - linear motion: Linear motion refers to movement in a straight line and does not specify whether the speed is constant or changing.
Option 4 - circular motion: Circular motion refers to movement along a circular path, not to the equality of distances covered.

Biology (1)

Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Respiration and excretion in other organisms

Q25. What role do cellular vacuoles play in plant waste management?

  1. (a) They facilitate nutrient absorption
  2. (b) They store waste products
  3. (c) They assist in photosynthesis
  4. (d) They help in water transportation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) They store waste products

Correct Answer: They store waste products (Option 2)
In plant cells, vacuoles are large, membrane-bound organelles that play a crucial role in waste management. They store metabolic waste products, toxic substances, and by-products that the plant cannot use or needs to isolate from the cytoplasm. This prevents harmful substances from disrupting cellular functions. Plant vacuoles are significantly larger than animal cell vacuoles and can occupy up to 90% of the cell's volume.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 - Facilitate nutrient absorption: This is primarily the role of the cell membrane and transport proteins, not vacuoles.
Option 3 - Assist in photosynthesis: Photosynthesis occurs in chloroplasts, not vacuoles.
Option 4 - Help in water transportation: Water transport in plants occurs through xylem vessels, not vacuoles (though vacuoles do maintain cell turgidity).
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