SSC GD 2026 18 May 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: 331 m/s — Option (b)
The speed of sound in air at 0°C (273 K) is approximately 331 m/s. The speed of sound in air depends on temperature according to the formula: v = 331 + 0.6T m/s (where T is temperature in °C). At 0°C: v = 331 + 0.6(0) = 331 m/s. As temperature increases, air molecules move faster and collide more frequently, transmitting sound waves more quickly. At 25°C (room temperature), the speed is approximately 346 m/s. Sound travels faster in denser or more elastic media: faster in liquids than gases, and fastest in solids.
Option (a) 344 m/s — Incorrect: 344 m/s is approximately the speed of sound at around 20°C (room temperature), not at 0°C.
Option (c) 316 m/s — Incorrect: 316 m/s is below the actual speed at 0°C; this value does not correspond to any standard atmospheric temperature condition.
Option (d) 346 m/s — Incorrect: 346 m/s corresponds to the speed of sound at approximately 25°C, not at 0°C.

Correct Answer: Goa, India — Option (a)
The 8th BRICS Summit was held in Goa, India on 15–16 October 2016, under India's chairmanship. The theme was 'Building Responsive, Inclusive and Collective Solutions.' BRICS is an acronym for the association of five major emerging economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. Key outcomes of the Goa Summit included discussions on counter-terrorism, trade, economic cooperation, and a special focus on India-Africa cooperation. India's Prime Minister Narendra Modi hosted the summit, which saw bilateral meetings with leaders of all BRICS nations. The Goa Declaration emphasised stronger cooperation among BRICS nations on various global challenges.
Option (b) Ufa, Russia — Incorrect: The 7th BRICS Summit was held in Ufa, Russia in 2015 (not 2016). The 8th Summit was in Goa, India.
Option (c) Johannesburg, South Africa — Incorrect: Johannesburg hosted the 10th BRICS Summit in 2018; the 8th Summit in 2016 was in Goa, India.
Option (d) Beijing, China — Incorrect: China has hosted BRICS Summits (e.g., 9th in Xiamen, 2017), but the 8th BRICS Summit in 2016 was in Goa, India.

Correct Answer: Access to advanced technology and larger markets — Option (b)
The liberalisation and globalisation of the Indian economy (especially after the 1991 New Economic Policy — LPG reforms) had several positive impacts on Indian industry: Access to advanced foreign technology, machinery, and management practices improved production quality and efficiency; Indian companies gained access to global markets, expanding their customer base far beyond domestic boundaries; Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) brought capital inflows and technology transfer; Indian firms became globally competitive and several became multinational corporations (e.g., Tata, Infosys, Wipro); The IT and services sectors flourished due to global integration; Consumer choice increased with quality international products entering India.
Option (a) Decline in efficiency due to competition — Incorrect: While competition increased, it actually improved efficiency as Indian firms had to upgrade to survive; a decline in efficiency was not a positive impact.
Option (c) Increased monopoly of Indian firms — Incorrect: Liberalisation reduced monopolies (especially those protected under the MRTP Act) rather than increasing them; more players entered the market.
Option (d) Complete withdrawal of the state from infrastructure — Incorrect: The government did not completely withdraw from infrastructure; it continued to invest in infrastructure while opening up to private participation.

Correct Answer: Heavy industry, steel and energy — Option (d)
Between 1950 and 1980, India followed a socialist-inspired planned economy where heavy industries, steel production, and energy sectors were considered the 'Commanding Heights' of the economy. This concept, derived from Lenin's economic idea, refers to key strategic industries that the state must control to direct the overall economy. The Indian government under Nehru's leadership and subsequent regimes gave priority to: Heavy industries (steel, machinery, capital goods — e.g., Bhilai , Rourkela, Durgapur steel plants); Energy (coal, electricity, oil); and Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) in core sectors. The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 (the 'Economic Constitution of India') reserved these critical sectors for the public sector.
Option (a) Textiles — Incorrect: While textiles were an important industry, they were not classified as 'Commanding Heights'; they were largely left to the private sector.
Option (b) Handicrafts — Incorrect: Handicrafts were promoted for employment and exports but were not considered 'Commanding Heights' strategic industries.
Option (c) Agriculture — Incorrect: Agriculture was a priority sector but the 'Commanding Heights' concept specifically referred to heavy industry and energy; agriculture was addressed through land reforms and Green Revolution initiatives.

Correct Answer: Structural — Option (d)
Structural unemployment is caused by technological progress and changes in the structure of the economy. When new technologies replace certain types of jobs or render specific skills obsolete, workers who cannot adapt quickly enough become structurally unemployed. Examples include: automation replacing factory assembly-line workers; computers replacing typesetters and bookkeepers; AI replacing routine data-entry jobs. Structural unemployment requires workers to acquire new skills or move to different industries — it cannot be resolved simply by economic growth (unlike cyclical unemployment). It is a long-term form of unemployment associated with industrialisation , automation, and technological change.
Option (a) Cyclical — Incorrect: Cyclical unemployment occurs due to downturns in the business cycle (recessions) when demand for goods and services falls; it is not caused by technological progress.
Option (b) Disguised — Incorrect: Disguised (or hidden) unemployment occurs when more people are employed in a job than actually needed (e.g., in agriculture), where removing some workers would not reduce output; it is unrelated to technology.
Option (c) Frictional — Incorrect: Frictional unemployment occurs when workers are between jobs or searching for better employment; it is short-term and unrelated to technological changes.

Correct Answer: Rs 15,000 crore — Option (b)
In the Union Budget 2025 (presented by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman), the Government of India announced the creation of SWAMIH Fund-2 with a total corpus of Rs 15,000 crore. SWAMIH (Special Window for Affordable and Mid-Income Housing) Fund was originally launched in 2019 to provide last-mile financing for completing stalled affordable and mid-income housing projects across India. SWAMIH Fund-1 successfully helped complete and deliver thousands of stalled housing units. SWAMIH Fund-2, with a larger corpus of Rs 15,000 crore, aims to extend this success and complete more stalled housing projects, providing relief to homebuyers who had paid for homes but not received possession.
Option (a) Rs 10,000 crore — Incorrect: The corpus for SWAMIH Fund-2 announced in the Union Budget 2025 was Rs 15,000 crore, not Rs 10,000 crore.
Option (c) Rs 20,000 crore — Incorrect: The announced corpus for SWAMIH Fund-2 was Rs 15,000 crore, not Rs 20,000 crore.
Option (d) Rs 25,000 crore — Incorrect: The Union Budget 2025 announced Rs 15,000 crore for SWAMIH Fund-2, not Rs 25,000 crore.

Correct Answer: 9 October 2024 — Option (c)
The Union Cabinet, under PMGKAY (Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana), approved the continuation of the supply of fortified rice to beneficiaries until December 2028 on 9 October 2024. Rice fortification involves adding essential micronutrients (iron, folic acid, vitamin B12) to rice to address nutritional deficiencies, particularly anaemia and hidden hunger among vulnerable populations. PMGKAY is the world's largest food security scheme, providing free food grains to about 80 crore (800 million) beneficiaries under the National Food Security Act (NFSA). The fortified rice initiative is part of India's effort to improve nutritional outcomes among food-insecure populations.
Option (a) 15 August 2024 — Incorrect: Independence Day (15 August 2024) was not when the Cabinet approved this extension; the approval came on 9 October 2024.
Option (b) 1 July 2024 — Incorrect: 1 July 2024 was not the date of Cabinet approval for extending fortified rice supply under PMGKAY until December 2028.
Option (d) 1 January 2025 — Incorrect: The Cabinet approval for extending fortified rice supply under PMGKAY was on 9 October 2024, not 1 January 2025.

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Both statements are correct: Statement I — Synthetic fibre is indeed an example of a chemical-based industry. Synthetic fibres such as nylon, polyester, acrylic, and rayon are manufactured through chemical processes ( polymerisation ) using petrochemicals and other raw materials. The synthetic fibre industry is a major segment of the chemical industry; Statement II — Salt, sulphur and potash industries also use natural minerals as their primary raw materials. Salt (sodium chloride) is obtained from sea water or rock salt deposits; sulphur is mined from natural deposits or recovered from petroleum refining; potash is extracted from mineral deposits. These industries process naturally occurring minerals using chemical processes, making them part of the chemical-based industry sector.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Both Statement I (synthetic fibre ) and Statement II (salt, sulphur , potash) are correct; 'Only I' is an incomplete answer.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Both statements are correct; 'Only II' is incomplete as Statement I about synthetic fibre is also accurate.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Both statements are factually correct about chemical-based industries.

Correct Answer: Alvar — Option (b)
In Tamil Bhakti literature, the Vaishnavite saint-poets were called Alvars (also spelled Azhvars , meaning 'those immersed in God'). There were 12 Alvars who composed devotional hymns in Tamil praising Lord Vishnu between the 6th and 9th centuries CE. Their compositions are collectively called the Nalayira Divya Prabandham (4,000 Divine Compositions). The Alvars' devotional poetry contributed to the development of the Bhakti movement in South India. Their works, especially those of Nammalvar and Andal (the only female Alvar), remain important texts in Sri Vaishnavism. Key Alvars include Nammalvar , Tirumangai Alvar, Periyalvar , and Andal.
Option (a) Yogi — Incorrect: 'Yogi' is a general term for a practitioner of yoga in Hindu/Buddhist traditions; it is not specifically applied to the Tamil Vaishnavite saint-poets.
Option (c) Nayanar — Incorrect: Nayanars (or Nayanmars ) were the Tamil Shaivite saint-poets (devotees of Lord Shiva), not Vaishnavite saints. There were 63 Nayanars, including Thirugnana Sambandar and Sundarar .
Option (d) Tirthankara — Incorrect: Tirthankaras are the 24 enlightened beings/spiritual teachers in Jainism; they have no connection to Tamil Bhakti Vaishnavite poetry.

Correct Answer: Sikkim — Option (a)
The Lepcha folk dance is associated with Sikkim. The Lepchas (also known as Rong people) are one of the indigenous communities of Sikkim and are considered the original inhabitants of the region. Their traditional dance forms are an integral part of Sikkimese culture and are performed during festivals, religious ceremonies, and cultural events. Lepcha dances often depict scenes from nature, mythology, and daily life, and are performed in traditional Lepcha attire. The Lepcha community is primarily found in Sikkim, Darjeeling (West Bengal), and Kalimpong , but the dance is most closely identified with Sikkim's cultural heritage.
Option (b) West Bengal — Incorrect: While some Lepchas live in the Darjeeling hills of West Bengal, the Lepcha folk dance is primarily associated with Sikkim, where Lepchas are an officially recognised indigenous community.
Option (c) Telangana — Incorrect: Telangana has its own folk dance traditions (like Perini Sivatandavam, Gussadi ); the Lepcha dance belongs to the Lepcha community of the northeastern Himalayan region, not Telangana.
Option (d) Tripura — Incorrect: Tripura has various tribal dance forms (like Hojagiri , Garia); the Lepcha dance is specifically associated with the Lepcha people of Sikkim.

Correct Answer: Eid-ul-Fitr — Option (b)
Eid-ul-Fitr (also spelled Eid al-Fitr, meaning 'Festival of Breaking the Fast') is celebrated on the first day of Shawwal (the month after Ramadan in the Islamic calendar), marking the end of the holy month of Ramadan. Muslims observe a month-long fast (Roza/Sawm) during Ramadan from dawn to sunset. Eid-ul-Fitr celebrations include: special congregational prayers (Salat al-Eid) in the morning; giving Zakat al-Fitr (obligatory charity) before prayers; wearing new clothes; exchanging greetings; feasting with family and friends; and giving gifts (Eidi) to children. It is one of the two most important festivals in Islam.
Option (a) Bakrid — Incorrect: Bakrid (Eid al-Adha, 'Festival of Sacrifice') is celebrated approximately 70 days after Eid-ul-Fitr, commemorating Ibrahim's (Abraham's) willingness to sacrifice his son; it involves animal sacrifice and is not the festival marking the end of Ramadan.
Option (c) Muharram — Incorrect: Muharram is the first month of the Islamic calendar. Ashura (10th of Muharram) is observed as a day of mourning (especially by Shia Muslims) commemorating the martyrdom of Imam Husain; it is not the festival ending Ramadan.
Option (d) Shab-e-Barat — Incorrect: Shab-e-Barat ('Night of Fortune') is observed on the 15th of Sha'ban (the month before Ramadan); it is a night of prayer and forgiveness, not the festival marking the end of Ramadan.

Correct Answer: 2012 — Option (b)
Sachin Tendulkar scored his historic 100th international century (across Tests and ODIs) on 16 March 2012 against Bangladesh in the Asia Cup at Mirpur, Bangladesh. He reached the milestone off 138 balls, scoring 114 runs in India's innings. The 100th century was a moment of immense significance, having been eagerly awaited for months after he had been stuck on 99 centuries. Sachin Tendulkar holds the record for the most international centuries (100) and most international runs in cricket history. He retired from all forms of cricket in November 2013 and was awarded the Bharat Ratna in the same year.
Option (a) 2009 — Incorrect: In 2009, Sachin was scoring centuries but had not yet reached his 100th international century; that milestone came in March 2012.
Option (c) 2014 — Incorrect: Sachin Tendulkar retired from all cricket in November 2013; he could not have scored his 100th century in 2014.
Option (d) 2011 — Incorrect: In 2011, Sachin was on 99 international centuries for much of the year; he crossed the landmark in March 2012, not 2011.

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Sushil Kumar, the Indian wrestler, won Olympic medals in both 2008 and 2012: In 2008 — Sushil Kumar won a Bronze Medal at the Beijing Olympics in the 66 kg freestyle wrestling category, becoming only the third Indian to win an individual Olympic medal at the time; In 2012 — Sushil Kumar won a Silver Medal at the London Olympics in the 66 kg freestyle wrestling category, becoming the first Indian to win individual medals at two consecutive Olympic Games. Sushil Kumar also won a Gold Medal at the 2010 Commonwealth Games and multiple World Championship medals, establishing himself as India's most decorated wrestler.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Sushil Kumar won medals in both 2008 (Bronze, Beijing) and 2012 (Silver, London); 'Only I' is an incomplete answer.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Sushil Kumar also won a medal in 2008 (Bronze at Beijing Olympics), in addition to his 2012 Silver; 'Only II' is incorrect.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Sushil Kumar won an Olympic Bronze in 2008 and an Olympic Silver in 2012; both years saw him win Olympic medals.

Correct Answer: Gymnastics — Option (a)
Roman rings (gymnastic rings or still rings) and the balance beam are both apparatus used in Artistic Gymnastics. Still Rings (Roman Rings) is a men's artistic gymnastics apparatus — two rings suspended from a high bar on which gymnasts perform holds, swings, and strength elements while keeping the rings still (without swinging). It requires exceptional upper body and core strength. Balance Beam is a women's artistic gymnastics apparatus — a narrow (10 cm wide) elevated beam on which gymnasts perform acrobatic elements, jumps, turns, and dance movements. Other gymnastics apparatus include the floor exercise, vault, pommel horse, parallel bars, horizontal bar (men) and uneven bars (women).
Option (b) Hockey — Incorrect: Hockey terms include stick, puck, penalty corner, drag flick, etc. Roman rings and balance beam have no connection to hockey.
Option (c) Long Jump — Incorrect: Long jump is a track and field event where athletes run and jump into a sandpit for maximum distance; it does not involve Roman rings or a balance beam.
Option (d) Pole Vault — Incorrect: Pole vault is a track and field event using a flexible pole to clear a horizontal bar; Roman rings and balance beam are gymnastics apparatus, not pole vault equipment.

Correct Answer: Jammu & Kashmir — Option (a)
The Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir initiated tree geo-tagging as part of its efforts to protect and conserve its rich natural heritage. The J&K administration launched geo-tagging of trees — including the iconic Chinar trees (Platanus orientalis ), which are a symbol of Kashmir's natural and cultural heritage — to create a digital database for monitoring, conservation, and protection. Geo-tagging involves attaching GPS coordinates and other data to each tree, enabling authorities to track individual trees, prevent illegal felling, and monitor the health of tree populations. This initiative aligns with India's broader environmental conservation goals and the protection of J&K's unique biodiversity.
Option (b) Delhi — Incorrect: While Delhi has conducted tree surveys and census activities, the specific initiative of tree geo-tagging for natural heritage protection was launched by Jammu & Kashmir.
Option (c) Puducherry — Incorrect: Puducherry (Pondicherry) has not been specifically known for launching tree geo-tagging for natural heritage conservation; this initiative was by Jammu & Kashmir.
Option (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands — Incorrect: While the Andaman & Nicobar Islands have rich forest biodiversity, the tree geo-tagging for natural heritage protection initiative was specifically associated with Jammu & Kashmir.

Correct Answer: 27.3 — Option (a)
India's score in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2024 was 27.3, which placed it in the 'Serious' hunger category. The GHI is published annually by Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe and measures hunger and undernutrition across countries on a 100-point scale where: 0 = no hunger; <10 = low; 10–19.9 = moderate; 20–34.9 = serious; 35–49.9 = alarming; 50+ = extremely alarming. India ranked 105th out of 127 countries in GHI 2024. The four indicators used to calculate the GHI are: Undernourishment, Child Wasting (low weight for height), Child Stunting (low height for age), and Child Mortality.
Option (b) 31.1 — Incorrect: 31.1 is not India's GHI 2024 score; India's score was 27.3 in 2024.
Option (c) 21.8 — Incorrect: 21.8 does not correspond to India's GHI 2024 score, which was 27.3.
Option (d) 11.1 — Incorrect: A score of 11.1 would fall in the 'Moderate' hunger category; India's actual GHI 2024 score of 27.3 falls in the 'Serious' category.

Correct Answer: 183 — Option (d)
According to India's Census classification, a 'Main Worker' is a person who has worked for at least 183 days (approximately 6 months) in the reference year. Workers are classified into two categories: Main Workers — those who worked for 183 or more days in a year; Marginal Workers — those who worked for fewer than 183 days in a year. Non-workers are those who did not work at all. This classification is used in the Census of India to categorise the working population and analyse employment patterns. Workers are further categorised as: Cultivators, Agricultural Labourers , Workers in household industry, and Other Workers.
Option (a) 83 — Incorrect: 83 days is far less than the 183-day threshold required to be classified as a main worker in India's Census.
Option (b) 90 — Incorrect: 90 days (approximately 3 months) is the threshold used in some employment guarantee schemes, but NOT for the Census definition of a main worker (which requires 183 days).
Option (c) 100 — Incorrect: 100 days is the guaranteed employment under MGNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act), but the Census definition of a main worker requires 183 days.

Correct Answer: Chota Nagpur — Option (d)
Birsa Munda (1875–1900) was born into a poor Munda tribal family in the Chota Nagpur plateau region (now Jharkhand). The Munda tribe is one of the major indigenous communities of the Chota Nagpur plateau, which covers parts of Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, and Chhattisgarh. Birsa Munda became a revered leader who fought against British colonial rule and the exploitation of tribal people through the Ulgulan (Great Tumult) revolt of 1899–1900. He organised the Mundas against the dikus (outsiders — British and non-tribal landlords) who had taken tribal lands through the jagirdari and zamindari systems. Birsa Munda is venerated as 'Dharti Aaba ' (Father of the Earth) and his birth anniversary (15 November) is celebrated as Janjatiya Gaurav Divas.
Option (a) Dhar — Incorrect: Dhar is a district in Madhya Pradesh associated with Bhil and other tribal communities; it is not the homeland of Birsa Munda and the Munda tribe.
Option (b) Jadua — Incorrect: Jadua is not the region associated with Birsa Munda or the Munda tribal community; the Mundas primarily inhabit the Chota Nagpur plateau.
Option (c) Bhils region — Incorrect: The Bhil tribe is a different indigenous community primarily found in Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra; the Munda tribe and Birsa Munda are associated with the Chota Nagpur plateau.