SSC GD 2026 19 May 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha — Option (c)
The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Article 64 of the Constitution). In the absence of the Vice President (Chairman), the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides over the sessions. The Deputy Chairman is elected by the Rajya Sabha members from among themselves (Article 89). The Deputy Chairman enjoys the same powers as the Chairman while presiding. Currently, the position of Deputy Chairman is provided under Article 89 of the Indian Constitution. The Deputy Chairman cannot preside while a resolution for their removal from office is under consideration.
Option (a) Speaker of Lok Sabha — Incorrect: The Speaker presides over the Lok Sabha (lower house), not the Rajya Sabha (upper house); these are two separate constitutional offices.
Option (b) President of India — Incorrect: The President does not preside over Parliamentary sessions; under Article 64, the Vice President is Chairman of Rajya Sabha, and in their absence, the Deputy Chairman presides.
Option (d) Prime Minister — Incorrect: The Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers and is a member of either house; presiding over Rajya Sabha is not a function of the Prime Minister.

Correct Answer: V. V. Giri — Option (c)
Varahagiri Venkata Giri (V. V. Giri) was the only President of India elected as an independent candidate. In the 1969 Presidential election, the official Indian National Congress nominee was Neelam Sanjiva Reddy. However, Prime Minister Indira Gandhi broke from the party line and supported V. V. Giri (the then Acting President) as an independent candidate. V. V. Giri resigned as Acting President to contest the election and won a historic victory through the concept of 'conscience vote' — defeating the official Congress candidate. He served as the 4th President of India from 1969 to 1974.
Option (a) Zail Singh — Incorrect: Zail Singh was the 7th President of India (1982–1987), elected as the Congress party's official candidate, not as an independent.
Option (b) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy — Incorrect: Neelam Sanjiva Reddy was the official Congress nominee in 1969 (who lost to V. V. Giri) and later became the 6th President in 1977 as an unopposed candidate, not as an independent.
Option (d) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed — Incorrect: Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed was the 5th President of India (1974–1977), elected as the Congress party's official candidate.

Correct Answer: Heeralal Samariya — Option (b)
Heeralal Samariya was serving as the Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) of India as of May 2025. The Chief Information Commissioner heads the Central Information Commission (CIC), which was established under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005. The CIC is the apex body for adjudicating RTI appeals and complaints at the central government level. The Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a committee headed by the Prime Minister. The CIC plays a crucial role in upholding the fundamental right to information of Indian citizens.
Option (a) Yashvardhan Kumar Sinha — Incorrect: Yashvardhan Kumar Sinha previously served as Chief Information Commissioner before Heeralal Samariya; he was not the CIC as of May 2025.
Option (c) Sudhir Bhargava — Incorrect: Sudhir Bhargava served as Chief Information Commissioner in an earlier tenure; he was not the CIC as of May 2025.
Option (d) Suresh Chandra — Incorrect: Suresh Chandra is not the Chief Information Commissioner of India as of May 2025; that position was held by Heeralal Samariya.

Correct Answer: 30 days — Option (b)
Under Section 290 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023 (which replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure, CrPC 1973), an accused person can apply for plea bargaining within 30 days from the date of framing of charges. Plea bargaining allows an accused to negotiate a mutually agreeable disposition of the case, which may include pleading guilty to a lesser charge or receiving a lighter sentence. BNSS 2023 came into force on July 1, 2024, along with the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), replacing the colonial-era IPC, CrPC, and Evidence Act respectively.
Option (a) 70 days — Incorrect: The period for filing plea bargaining under BNSS 2023 Section 290 is 30 days, not 70 days from the date of framing of charges.
Option (c) 80 days — Incorrect: The correct timeframe for plea bargaining under BNSS 2023 is 30 days from the framing of charges, not 80 days.
Option (d) 100 days — Incorrect: 100 days is not the correct timeframe; plea bargaining under BNSS 2023 Section 290 must be initiated within 30 days of the framing of charges.

Correct Answer: Chapter I — Option (a)
Part V of the Indian Constitution deals with 'The Union' (Articles 52–151). Part V is organised into the following chapters: Chapter I — The Executive (Articles 52–78): Covers the President, Vice-President, Council of Ministers, Attorney General; Chapter II — Parliament (Articles 79–122): Covers Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, legislative procedure; Chapter III — Legislative Powers of the President (Articles 123): Ordinance-making power; Chapter IV — The Union Judiciary (Articles 124–147): Covers the Supreme Court; Chapter V — Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148–151). Therefore, Chapter I of Part V specifically deals with the Executive.
Option (b) Chapter II — Incorrect: Chapter II of Part V deals with Parliament (the legislature), not the Executive.
Option (c) Chapter III — Incorrect: Chapter III of Part V covers the Legislative Powers of the President (Ordinance-making under Article 123), not the Executive structure.
Option (d) Chapter IV — Incorrect: Chapter IV of Part V deals with the Union Judiciary (Supreme Court), not the Executive.

Correct Answer: Traditional folk songs sung during the dance — Option (b)
In the context of Giddha (a popular Punjabi folk dance performed by women), ' Boliyan ' (singular: Boli) are the short, witty, and rhythmic folk couplets or verses sung during the dance performance. Boliyan are an essential element of Giddha — women sing these folk songs, often in a call-and-response pattern, while dancing in a circle. The Boliyan cover a wide range of themes including love, nature, social issues, humour , and celebrations. They are typically sung in the Punjabi language and reflect the cultural and social life of Punjab. Giddha is traditionally performed during festivals, weddings, and harvests, with Boliyan being the defining feature of this dance form.
Option (a) Types of costumes worn by the dancers — Incorrect: Boliyan refer to the folk songs/verses sung during Giddha , not the costumes. Giddha dancers typically wear salwar kameez or phulkari dupatta.
Option (c) Specific dance steps — Incorrect: Boliyan are the vocal component (songs/verses) of Giddha , not specific dance steps or movements.
Option (d) Musical instruments played during the performance — Incorrect: Musical instruments used in Giddha include the dholki and chimta ; Boliyan specifically refers to the traditional folk couplets/songs, not instruments.

Correct Answer: 12 metres × 8 metres — Option (b)
The standard Kabaddi court size for women is 12 metres × 8 metres . The court is divided into two equal halves by the mid-line, and each team defends one half. Kabaddi court dimensions differ by category: Women/Junior Boys: 12m × 8m; Men/Senior: 13m × 10m. The court is rectangular with a mid-line dividing it into two halves of 6m × 8m (women) or 6.5m × 10m (men) each. Kabaddi is a contact team sport of Indian origin, declared India's national sport. It features a raider who tries to tag opponents and return without being tackled, while chanting 'kabaddi kabaddi ' in a single breath.
Option (a) 10 metres × 8 metres — Incorrect: This is not the standard court size for women's Kabaddi; the correct dimensions are 12m × 8m.
Option (c) 11 metres × 8 metres — Incorrect: The women's Kabaddi court measures 12m × 8m, not 11m × 8m.
Option (d) 13 metres × 11 metres — Incorrect: The senior men's Kabaddi court is 13m × 10m (not 11m); the women's court is 12m × 8m.

Correct Answer: 1969 — Option (b)
ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation ) was formally established on August 15, 1969, when INCOSPAR (Indian National Committee for Space Research) was reorganised and expanded into ISRO. INCOSPAR was established in 1962 under the Department of Atomic Energy, with Dr. Vikram Sarabhai as its chairman, following India's first rocket launch from Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS) in Kerala. ISRO was placed under the newly created Department of Space in 1972, and Dr. Vikram Sarabhai is recognised as the father of India's space programme . Today, ISRO is one of the world's leading space agencies, with achievements including Chandrayaan missions, Mangalyaan, Aditya-L1, and the PSLV launch vehicle.
Option (a) 1962 — Incorrect: 1962 was the year INCOSPAR was established (not when it became ISRO). ISRO came into existence in 1969.
Option (c) 1972 — Incorrect: 1972 was the year ISRO was placed under the newly created Department of Space; ISRO itself was established in 1969.
Option (d) 1974 — Incorrect: 1974 is not related to the establishment of ISRO. India's first nuclear test (Smiling Buddha) was conducted in 1974, but ISRO was established in 1969.

Correct Answer: Dhaka — Option (a)
Sachin Tendulkar scored his historic 100th international century at the Shere Bangla National Stadium in Mirpur, Dhaka, Bangladesh on March 16, 2012, during the Asia Cup match against Bangladesh. He scored 114 runs off 147 balls in India's innings. The milestone was eagerly awaited after Sachin had been stuck on 99 international centuries for nearly a year. India won the match. Sachin Tendulkar holds the world record for the most international centuries (100 centuries — 51 in Tests and 49 in ODIs) and the most international runs. He received the Bharat Ratna (India's highest civilian honour ) in 2014.
Option (b) Mumbai — Incorrect: Sachin's 100th international century was not scored in Mumbai; it was scored at Mirpur, Dhaka, Bangladesh on March 16, 2012.
Option (c) Chennai — Incorrect: Chennai (MA Chidambaram Stadium) has been the venue for some of Sachin's memorable innings, but not his 100th century — that was in Dhaka.
Option (d) Perth — Incorrect: Perth (WACA Ground) in Australia has been a Test venue; Sachin's 100th international century was scored in Dhaka, Bangladesh, not Perth.

Correct Answer: Jammu and Kashmir — Option (d)
Chakri is a traditional folk music genre of Jammu and Kashmir, particularly popular among the Gujjar, Bakerwal , and Pahari communities of the region. Chakri music is characterized by melodic folk songs accompanied by traditional instruments such as the rubab , sarangi, tumbaknari (earthen drum), and harmonium. The songs typically revolve around themes of love, nature, separation, devotion, and the landscape of Kashmir. Chakri is performed at cultural gatherings, weddings, and festivals. It is part of the rich musical heritage of Jammu & Kashmir and has been recognized as an important intangible cultural heritage of the region.
Option (a) Karnataka — Incorrect: Karnataka is known for classical Carnatic music traditions, Yakshagana (folk theatre), and Dollu Kunitha (drum dance); Chakri music is not associated with Karnataka.
Option (b) Telangana — Incorrect: Telangana has its own folk music traditions including Perini, Oggu Katha, and Lambadi folk songs; Chakri is the folk music of Jammu and Kashmir.
Option (c) Madhya Pradesh — Incorrect: Madhya Pradesh is associated with folk music forms like Rai, Karma, and Pandwani ; the Chakri tradition belongs to Jammu and Kashmir.

Correct Answer: Lonar Lake — Option (c)
Lonar Lake (also called Lonar Crater Lake) in Buldhana district, Maharashtra, is a saline soda lake formed by a meteorite impact approximately 50,000 years ago, making it the only known hyper-velocity meteoric impact crater in basaltic rock in the world (often described in textbooks as volcanic origin due to the basaltic surroundings). It is located in the Deccan Plateau (trap basalt) region. The lake has both saline and alkaline properties and is designated as a National Geo-heritage Monument. It is also a Ramsar Wetland site. Lonar Lake supports unique microbial communities that are being studied for their potential applications in biotechnology and space science.
Option (a) Sambhar Lake — Incorrect: Sambhar Lake (Rajasthan) is India's largest inland saltwater lake, formed through tectonic activity and evaporation; it is not of volcanic or meteoric origin.
Option (b) Loktak Lake — Incorrect: Loktak Lake (Manipur) is the largest freshwater lake in northeast India, famous for its phumdis (floating islands); it has a natural origin but not volcanic or meteoric.
Option (d) Chilika Lake — Incorrect: Chilika Lake (Odisha) is Asia's largest coastal lagoon, formed through a combination of sedimentation and sea changes; it is not of volcanic or meteoric origin.

Correct Answer: Tomb of Itmad- ud -Daula — Option (a)
The Tomb of Itmad- ud -Daula (Mirza Ghiyas Beg), located in Agra, is popularly called the 'Baby Taj' because it is considered a prototype or precursor of the Taj Mahal. Built between 1622–1628 CE by Nur Jahan (wife of Emperor Jahangir) for her father Mirza Ghiyas Beg ( Itmad - ud -Daula), it was the first Mughal structure to be built entirely of white marble (instead of red sandstone), representing a revolutionary shift in Mughal architectural aesthetics. It also pioneered the use of pietra dura (intricate inlay work with semi-precious stones), which became a hallmark of the Taj Mahal. The structure is located on the banks of the Yamuna river .
Option (b) Bibi Ka Maqbara — Incorrect: Bibi Ka Maqbara in Aurangabad is called the 'Taj of the Deccan' (not 'Baby Taj'); it was built by Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb's son Azam Shah in memory of his mother Dilras Banu Begum.
Option (c) Moti Masjid — Incorrect: Moti Masjid (Pearl Mosque) exists in multiple locations (Agra Fort, Delhi Fort, Lahore); none is called 'Baby Taj' — Moti Masjid is a mosque, not a tomb.
Option (d) Humayun's Tomb — Incorrect: Humayun's Tomb (Delhi, 1572 CE) is built in red sandstone with white marble accents; it is a UNESCO World Heritage Site but is not called 'Baby Taj' — that title belongs to Itmad- ud -Daula's Tomb.

Correct Answer: They provided fertile soil and moisture for crops — Option (a)
During the Chola period (9th–13th centuries CE), the Kaveri river and its extensive network of canals and irrigation channels played a pivotal role in agriculture. The Cholas were renowned for their sophisticated water management and irrigation systems: The river's annual floods deposited rich alluvial silt (fertile soil) on agricultural lands; The canal network ensured year-round water supply for rice cultivation in the delta region; The Kaveri delta became one of the most productive agricultural regions in India ('the rice bowl of South India'); Grand Anicut ( Kallanai ) — one of the oldest water diversion structures in the world — was built across the Kaveri to regulate water flow for irrigation. This agricultural surplus supported the Chola empire's prosperity, trade, and grand temple-building activities.
Option (b) They provided protection from invasions — Incorrect: While rivers can serve as natural barriers, the primary role of Kaveri canals in the Chola period was agricultural irrigation, not military defence .
Option (c) They transported goods for trade — Incorrect: While the Kaveri river facilitated some trade navigation, the canals' primary function was irrigation for agriculture rather than commercial goods transport.
Option (d) They were used for fishing and boat transport — Incorrect: Although the Kaveri supported fishing activities, the canal system's primary agricultural purpose was soil enrichment and irrigation for crop cultivation.

Correct Answer: Policy think tank and promoting cooperative federalism — Option (b)
NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was established on January 1, 2015, replacing the Planning Commission. Its main functions include: serving as a policy think tank providing strategic and technical advice to the government; promoting cooperative federalism by fostering structured cooperative involvement between Central and State governments; developing a shared vision for national development; providing a platform for cross-sectoral issues; monitoring and evaluating the implementation of programmes ; and acting as a knowledge hub. Unlike the Planning Commission, NITI Aayog does NOT allocate planning funds to states — that role was with the Finance Commission and Union Ministries.
Option (a) Allocation of planning funds to states — Incorrect: Fund allocation to states was a function of the erstwhile Planning Commission; NITI Aayog does NOT allocate funds. Resource allocation is done by the Finance Commission and Union Budget.
Option (c) Controlling monetary policy — Incorrect: Monetary policy (interest rates, money supply) is the domain of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) through its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC); NITI Aayog has no role in monetary policy.
Option (d) Conducting elections — Incorrect: Elections are conducted by the Election Commission of India (ECI), an independent constitutional body; NITI Aayog has no electoral functions.

Correct Answer: 4 — Option (a)
The Network Readiness Index (NRI) 2024 evaluated the network readiness of 133 economies based on 4 major pillars: Technology (digital infrastructure, access, and content); People (individuals, businesses, and governments using technology); Governance (trust, regulation, and inclusion); Impact (economy, quality of life, and SDGs). The NRI is published by the Portulans Institute and measures how countries are leveraging information and communication technology (ICT) for economic and social development. India has been improving its NRI rankings, reflecting growth in digital infrastructure, internet penetration, and digital public goods like UPI, Aadhaar, and DigiLocker .
Option (b) 6 — Incorrect: The NRI 2024 is structured around 4 major pillars (Technology, People, Governance, Impact), not 6.
Option (c) 8 — Incorrect: The Network Readiness Index 2024 uses 4 pillars for evaluation, not 8.
Option (d) 10 — Incorrect: The NRI 2024 framework is based on 4 major pillars with sub-pillars and variables; the total number of pillars is 4, not 10.

Correct Answer: Ashok Khemka — Option (b)
Ashok Khemka, a 1991-batch IAS officer of the Haryana cadre, is famous for holding the record for the most frequent transfers of any IAS officer in India — having been transferred over 55–60 times in approximately 30 years of service. He is known for his integrity and anti-corruption stance, including the cancellation of land mutation orders related to the Robert Vadra-DLF land deal in 2012, which brought him national attention. Despite facing repeated transfers as an apparent reprisal, he continued his work with integrity. Ashok Khemka retired from the IAS in April 2025.
Option (a) Sujata Saunik — Incorrect: Sujata Saunik is a 1987-batch IAS officer (Maharashtra cadre) who served as Chief Secretary of Maharashtra; she is not particularly known for frequent transfers.
Option (c) Rajiv Topno — Incorrect: Rajiv Topno is not the IAS officer particularly known for record-breaking frequent transfers; that distinction belongs to Ashok Khemka.
Option (d) Durga Shakti Nagpal — Incorrect: Durga Shakti Nagpal (UP cadre) was known for anti-sand mafia action in 2013 and her subsequent suspension; she is not the officer who retired in April 2025 with the most transfers.

Correct Answer: IISR Surya — Option (c)
IISR Surya is a new light-coloured turmeric (Curcuma longa) variety developed by the ICAR-Indian Institute of Spices Research (IISR), Kozhikode, Kerala for the spice industry. This variety has a lighter (pale yellow) colour compared to traditional deep-yellow turmeric varieties, making it particularly suitable for industries that require light-coloured turmeric for product applications such as cosmetics, food colouring where deep yellow is undesirable, and certain pharmaceutical applications. IISR, Kozhikode is India's premier research institute for spices and has developed numerous improved varieties of spice crops including pepper, cardamom, ginger, and turmeric.
Option (a) IISR Jyoti — Incorrect: IISR Jyoti is a variety name used for a different spice crop variety by IISR; it is not the light-coloured turmeric variety developed for industry.
Option (b) IISR Varna — Incorrect: IISR Varna is not the correct name for the light-coloured turmeric variety; the correct name is IISR Surya.
Option (d) IISR Shakti — Incorrect: IISR Shakti is not the light-coloured turmeric variety developed by IISR Kozhikode; the correct answer is IISR Surya.

Correct Answer: Washington D.C. — Option (c)
The World Bank Land Conference 2025 was held in Washington D.C., USA. The World Bank Land Conference is an annual global forum that brings together government officials, land professionals, civil society representatives, academia, and the private sector to discuss land governance, land administration, and land policy issues. Washington D.C. is the headquarters of the World Bank Group, which is why the annual Land Conference is typically held there. The conference focuses on topics such as land rights, land registration, land use planning, and land-related sustainable development goals — particularly in the context of climate change and food security.
Option (a) New York — Incorrect: The World Bank Land Conference 2025 was held in Washington D.C., not New York. New York hosts UN General Assembly and related events.
Option (b) Brasilia — Incorrect: Brasilia is the capital of Brazil; the World Bank Land Conference 2025 was held at the World Bank's headquarters in Washington D.C.
Option (d) Shanghai — Incorrect: Shanghai is a major financial center in China, but the World Bank Land Conference 2025 was organized in Washington D.C., where the World Bank is headquartered.

Correct Answer: Child Rights and You (CRY) — Option (a)
The 'Status Report on Child Rights in India: An Overview of the Past Decade' was initiated by CRY (Child Rights and You) as a desk review study. CRY is a non-profit organisation founded in 1979 that works to protect and promote the rights of underprivileged children in India. CRY focuses on child rights including the right to education, protection from child labour , child marriage, trafficking, and the right to health and nutrition. Their research and advocacy reports highlight the status of child rights implementation across India and provide evidence-based recommendations for policy reforms. CRY works with local partner organisations in over 19 states across India.
Option (b) Oxfam India — Incorrect: Oxfam India works on poverty, inequality, and humanitarian issues; it did not initiate this particular Status Report on Child Rights in India.
Option (c) Pratham — Incorrect: Pratham is an NGO focused on education quality and learning outcomes (known for the Annual Status of Education Report — ASER); it did not produce this child rights status report.
Option (d) SaveLife Foundation — Incorrect: SaveLife Foundation focuses on road safety and trauma care in India; it is not associated with child rights reporting.

Correct Answer: Vultures — Option (a)
Vultures are often called 'nature's scavengers' or 'nature's sanitation workers' because they feed exclusively on dead animals (carrion). Their ecological role is crucial: They rapidly consume carcasses, preventing the spread of diseases like anthrax, rabies, and botulism that could affect other animals and humans; They have highly acidic stomachs that can destroy dangerous pathogens including anthrax spores; They reduce the number of feral dogs and rats that feed on carcasses and can spread rabies; They recycle nutrients back into the ecosystem. In India, the dramatic decline in vulture populations (due to the veterinary drug diclofenac) in the 1990s–2000s led to serious public health concerns, highlighting the vultures' critical role.
Option (b) Elephants — Incorrect: Elephants are herbivores (plant eaters) and are known as 'ecosystem engineers' or 'gardeners of the forest' because they create water holes and pathways; they do not scavenge on dead animals.
Option (c) Lions — Incorrect: While lions occasionally scavenge, they are primarily apex predators; they are not specifically known as 'nature's scavengers' — that role belongs to vultures.
Option (d) Tigers — Incorrect: Tigers are solitary apex predators that hunt live prey; they are not scavengers and are not referred to as nature's sanitation workers.