SSC GD 2026 25 May 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Birsa Munda — Option (a)
Birsa Munda, known as 'Dharti Baba' (Father/God of the Earth), led the Munda revolt against British colonial exploitation and is commemorated in the Indian Parliament Museum. About Birsa Munda: Born: November 15, 1875, in Ulihatu village, Khunti district, Jharkhand (then part of Bengal Presidency); Died: June 9, 1900, in Ranchi Jail (age 25); Community: Munda tribal community; Titles: 'Dharti Baba' (Father/God of the Earth), 'Bhagwan Birsa' (God Birsa) by his followers; The Ulgulan (Great Tumult/Revolt): Birsa Munda led the Munda Ulgulan (1899-1900) against British colonialism and zamindari oppression; He mobilized thousands of tribals under the slogan ' Abua Raja, Abua Raj' (Our King, Our Kingdom) and 'Jai Bhagwan Birsa'; The revolt targeted British officers and missionaries who were occupying tribal lands; Key contributions: Raised awareness against forced labour (Beth Begari ); Fought against deforestation and displacement of tribals; Preached tribal religion revival and self-reliance; His movement led to the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act (1908) which protected tribal land rights; Parliamentary tribute: His portrait was unveiled in the Central Hall of the Indian Parliament in 2021; A museum commemorating him was inaugurated at the Parliament Museum; November 15 (his birth anniversary) is celebrated as Janjatiya Gaurav Divas (Tribal Pride Day) since 2021.
Option (b) Alluri Sitarama Raju — Incorrect: Alluri Sitarama Raju (1897-1923) was a freedom fighter from Andhra Pradesh who led the Rampa Rebellion (Manyam Rebellion) against the British in the Eastern Ghats region — he is not from Jharkhand, was not called 'Dharti Baba', and did not lead the Munda revolt.
Option (c) Komaram Bheem — Incorrect: Komaram Bheem (1901-1940) was a Gond tribal leader who fought against the Nizam of Hyderabad's oppressive rule in the Adilabad region (now Telangana) — he is associated with the Gond community, not the Munda community; he did not lead the Munda revolt in Jharkhand.
Option (d) Peer Ali Khan — Incorrect: Peer Ali Khan was a freedom fighter from Patna (Bihar) who participated in the Revolt of 1857 — he was not a Jharkhand tribal leader, not called 'Dharti Baba', and had no connection to the Munda revolt or Birsa Munda's movement.

Correct Answer: Dayanand Saraswati — Option (b)
Swami Dayanand Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj in 1875. About Dayanand Saraswati and Arya Samaj: Born: February 12, 1824, in Tankara (now Gujarat) as Mool Shankar; Died: October 30, 1883; Founded: Arya Samaj on April 10, 1875, in Bombay (now Mumbai); His main guru: Swami Virajananda (scholar of Sanskrit grammar); Key beliefs and contributions: Advocated for the authority and supremacy of the Vedas (Back to the Vedas); Opposed idol worship, caste discrimination, untouchability, child marriage, and sati; Promoted women's education, widow remarriage, and equality; Introduced the concept of 'Shuddhi' (purification/reconversion); Gave the slogan: 'Back to the Vedas' (Vedas pramanam ); Wrote: 'Satyarth Prakash' (Light of Truth — his major philosophical work); About Arya Samaj: Principles: 10 principles based on Vedic ideals and rationalism; Social reform focus: Education, abolition of untouchability, women's rights; Founded DAV (Dayanand Anglo-Vedic) schools and colleges; Played a significant role in India's independence movement (Lala Lajpat Rai was a prominent Arya Samajist ); Still active today with millions of followers; Dayanand Saraswati's influence on later reformers: Inspired leaders like Lala Lajpat Rai, Bhagat Singh's family, and others.
Option (a) Swami Vivekananda — Incorrect: Swami Vivekananda (1863-1902) founded the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897 (not Arya Samaj); he was the disciple of Sri Ramakrishna Paramahamsa and represented Hinduism at the Parliament of World Religions in Chicago (1893); Arya Samaj was founded by Dayanand Saraswati.
Option (c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy — Incorrect: Raja Ram Mohan Roy (1772-1833) founded the Brahmo Samaj (1828) — NOT the Arya Samaj; he is known as the 'Father of the Indian Renaissance' and campaigned against sati, child marriage, and for women's rights; Arya Samaj was founded by Dayanand Saraswati in 1875.
Option (d) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar — Incorrect: Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (1820-1891) was a Bengali social reformer known for his campaign for widow remarriage and women's education — he did not found Arya Samaj; he founded several educational institutions for women; Arya Samaj was founded by Dayanand Saraswati.

Correct Answer: Alok Ranjan — Option (b)
Alok Ranjan was appointed as the head (Director General) of the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) in September 2024. About NCRB (National Crime Records Bureau): Established: 1986; Headquarters: New Delhi; Parent Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA); Functions: Compiles crime statistics across India; Publishes annual 'Crime in India' report — the most comprehensive data on crimes across India; Also maintains national databases: CCTNS (Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems), Prison Statistics India, Accidental Deaths & Suicides in India (ADSI); The NCRB is headed by an IPS officer of DGP rank; About Alok Ranjan: A senior IPS officer; Appointed as Director General of NCRB in September 2024; Oversees crime data collection, analysis, and publication across all states and UTs; About other appointees: Gyanesh Kumar: Former IAS officer, was appointed as the Chief Election Commissioner of India; Rajneet Kohli: Associated with the broadcasting/media sector (was President & CEO of Star India); Ambuj Chandna: Not associated with NCRB leadership.
Option (a) Rajneet Kohli — Incorrect: Rajneet Kohli is primarily known as a media industry executive — he was not appointed as the NCRB head; Alok Ranjan is the correct answer. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Ambuj Chandna — Incorrect: Ambuj Chandna was not appointed as the head of NCRB in September 2024; the correct appointee is Alok Ranjan.
Option (d) Gyanesh Kumar — Incorrect: Gyanesh Kumar is a senior IAS officer who became the Chief Election Commissioner of India in 2025 — not the head of NCRB; Alok Ranjan was appointed as NCRB head in September 2024.

Correct Answer: Dr. M.R. Srinivasan — Option (c)
Dr. M.R. Srinivasan (Mysore Ramachandran Srinivasan), a prominent Indian nuclear scientist, passed away in May 2025. About Dr. M.R. Srinivasan: Full name: Mysore Ramachandran Srinivasan; Born: January 5, 1930, in Mysore (now Mysuru), Karnataka; Died: May 2025 (at age 95); He was a towering figure in India's nuclear power program; Key positions held: Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) of India (1987-1990); Secretary, Department of Atomic Energy (1987-1990); First Chairman of the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL); Member of the Planning Commission of India; Contributions: Supervised the construction and commissioning of India's first nuclear power plants; Played a crucial role in the Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS) at Kalpakkam ; Contributed significantly to the development of Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) in India; Under his leadership, India's nuclear power capacity was significantly expanded; Awards: Padma Vibhushan (India's second highest civilian award) for his contributions to nuclear energy; About other options: Dr. Homi Bhabha: 'Father of Indian Nuclear Programme ' — passed away on January 24, 1966, in an Air India crash on Mont Blanc; Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam: 'Missile Man of India', 11th President of India — passed away on July 27, 2015; Dr. Raja Ramanna: Supervised India's first nuclear test 'Smiling Buddha' in 1974 — passed away on September 24, 2004.
Option (a) Dr. Homi Bhabha — Incorrect: Dr. Homi Jehangir Bhabha, the 'Father of India's Nuclear Programme ', passed away in 1966 (not in May 2025); he died in an Air India plane crash near Mont Blanc.
Option (b) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam — Incorrect: Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, the 'Missile Man of India' and 11th President of India, passed away on July 27, 2015 — not in May 2025; he died while delivering a lecture at IIM Shillong.
Option (d) Dr. Raja Ramanna — Incorrect: Dr. Raja Ramanna, who supervised India's first nuclear test in 1974, passed away on September 24, 2004 — not in May 2025; Dr. M.R. Srinivasan is the nuclear scientist who passed away in May 2025.

Correct Answer: A system with AI-enabled cameras — Option (a)
TrailGuard AI established in Similipal Tiger Reserve is a system with AI-enabled cameras for wildlife protection, particularly against poaching. About TrailGuard AI: TrailGuard AI is an AI-powered wildlife monitoring and anti-poaching system; Developed by: RESOLVE (a conservation organization) in partnership with Intel and National Geographic Society; How it works: Trail cameras installed at strategic locations in the forest; The cameras capture images of movement (triggered by motion sensors); AI algorithms analyze the images in real-time; If a human is detected (potential poacher), the system automatically sends alerts to forest guards via mobile networks within minutes; The AI distinguishes between humans and animals, reducing false alarms; Advantages over traditional camera traps: Traditional camera traps: Images are collected manually and analyzed later (often after days or weeks); TrailGuard AI: Sends real-time alerts, enabling immediate response; Deployment at Similipal Tiger Reserve: Similipal Tiger Reserve is located in Mayurbhanj district, Odisha; It is one of the largest tiger reserves in India and a biodiversity hotspot; TrailGuard AI was deployed in Similipal in February 2025 to combat poaching; The system has been used in African reserves (Uganda, Kenya) and was expanding to Indian reserves; Significance: Similipal is home to tigers, elephants, gaur, leopards, and unique black tigers (melanistic tigers); AI-driven monitoring helps protect these endangered species more effectively.
Option (b) An early warning system for flood-like situations — Incorrect: TrailGuard AI is a wildlife protection/anti-poaching system using AI cameras — it is NOT related to flood warning; flood early warning systems are different technologies; TrailGuard AI monitors for human intruders (poachers) in wildlife reserves.
Option (c) A UPI-enabled payment application — Incorrect: TrailGuard AI has absolutely no connection to UPI (Unified Payments Interface) or payment systems; it is a wildlife conservation technology using AI-enabled trail cameras for anti-poaching surveillance.
Option (d) An AI-enabled application for environmental clearance for mega infrastructure projects — Incorrect: TrailGuard AI is not related to environmental clearances for infrastructure projects; it is specifically an AI-powered camera surveillance system for wildlife protection against poaching in tiger reserves.

Correct Answer: Jammu and Kashmir — Option (a)
Jammu and Kashmir won the maximum medals among the given options in the National Games 2025. About National Games 2025: The 38th National Games were held in Uttarakhand from January 28 to February 14, 2025; Tagline: 'Uttarakhand: Land of Gods and Games'; Host city: Multiple venues across Uttarakhand (Dehradun, Haridwar, etc.); Mascot: Molu (a Monal — state bird of Uttarakhand); Overall winner: Services (Indian Armed Forces) traditionally top the medal tally; Among states/UTs: Jammu and Kashmir had a strong performance in the National Games 2025, winning more medals than Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Chandigarh, and Puducherry; J&K athletes performed well in multiple disciplines including shooting, wrestling, boxing, and combat sports; About National Games: Organized by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA); India's premier multi-sport event at national level; Held every 2-4 years; Modeled on the Olympic Games; Earlier editions: 36th National Games in Goa (2023), 37th National Games in Jharkhand (2024).
Option (b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands — Incorrect: Andaman and Nicobar Islands is a small Union Territory with limited athletes — it won fewer medals than Jammu and Kashmir in the National Games 2025.
Option (c) Chandigarh — Incorrect: Chandigarh, while having good sports infrastructure, won fewer medals than Jammu and Kashmir among the options listed for the National Games 2025. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Puducherry — Incorrect: Puducherry is a small Union Territory that won fewer medals compared to Jammu and Kashmir at the National Games 2025; J&K had the maximum medal count among the four options given.

Correct Answer: Vomiting — Option (d)
Vomiting ( वमन ) is an example of an involuntary action in humans. About Voluntary vs Involuntary Actions: Voluntary actions: Actions that are performed consciously and under the control of the will (cerebrum); Controlled by the somatic nervous system; Examples: Writing, walking, talking, rocking a chair, eating, etc.; Involuntary actions: Actions that occur WITHOUT conscious control; Controlled by the autonomic nervous system (ANS) and mediated by brain centers other than the cerebrum; Examples: Heartbeat, breathing, digestion, blinking, sneezing, coughing, vomiting, sweating, etc.; About Vomiting as an Involuntary Action: Vomiting is controlled by the vomiting center located in the medulla oblongata of the brainstem; It is a reflex action — the brain triggers the vomiting reflex in response to stimuli (nauseating substances, inner ear disturbances, motion sickness); It cannot be completely controlled by conscious will; The diaphragm and abdominal muscles contract involuntarily during vomiting; Reflex actions (another category of involuntary actions): Knee-jerk reflex, withdrawal reflex (pulling hand from hot object), pupillary reflex; These are controlled by the spinal cord without involving the brain; Autonomic functions (involuntary): Heartbeat (cardiac muscle contractions), peristalsis (digestive movements), hormone secretion.
Option (a) Writing — Incorrect: Writing is a highly coordinated VOLUNTARY action — it requires conscious thought, fine motor control, and deliberate movement; it is controlled by the motor cortex (cerebrum) and is entirely under conscious will; it is NOT an involuntary action.
Option (b) Rocking a chair — Incorrect: Rocking a chair is a VOLUNTARY action — it requires conscious decision and deliberate muscle movements to initiate and maintain; it is under full conscious control and cannot be classified as involuntary.
Option (c) Talking — Incorrect: Talking (speech) is a VOLUNTARY action — it involves conscious coordination of the speech areas (Broca's area) and respiratory muscles; while breathing is involuntary, the act of forming words and speaking is a deliberate voluntary action under conscious control.

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Both Viruses (I) and Bacteria (II) can cause various types of diseases in chickens (poultry). Diseases caused by Viruses in chickens (Statement I — CORRECT): Newcastle Disease: Caused by Avian Paramyxovirus (Newcastle Disease Virus); affects respiratory, nervous, and digestive systems; highly contagious; Avian Influenza (Bird Flu): Caused by Influenza A virus (H5N1, H7N9 subtypes); extremely dangerous, can be fatal; also a zoonotic disease (can spread to humans); Marek's Disease: Caused by Marek's Disease Virus (a herpesvirus); causes paralysis and tumors; Infectious Bronchitis: Caused by Infectious Bronchitis Virus (coronavirus family); affects respiratory tract; Infectious Bursal Disease ( Gumboro ): Caused by a birnavirus ; affects the bursa of Fabricius (immune organ); Fowl Pox: Caused by Avipoxvirus ; ✓ ; Diseases caused by Bacteria in chickens (Statement II — CORRECT): Fowl Cholera: Caused by Pasteurella multocida ; affects multiple organ systems; Salmonellosis: Caused by Salmonella species; pullorum disease, typhoid; Mycoplasmosis (CRD): Caused by Mycoplasma gallisepticum ; Colibacillosis: Caused by Escherichia coli (E. coli); Botulism: Caused by Clostridium botulinum; Both statements are correct ✓ .
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Not only viruses, but bacteria ALSO cause various diseases in chickens; bacterial infections like Fowl Cholera, Salmonellosis, and Mycoplasmosis are well-documented poultry diseases; 'Only I' is an incomplete answer.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Not only bacteria, but viruses ALSO cause many serious diseases in chickens such as Newcastle Disease, Avian Influenza (Bird Flu), and Marek's Disease; 'Only II' is an incomplete answer.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Both viruses and bacteria are well-established causes of poultry diseases; 'Neither I nor II' is completely incorrect and contradicts basic veterinary and poultry science knowledge.

Correct Answer: Orangutan — Option (a)
The word 'Orangutan' in the Malay language means 'man of the forest' or 'wild man.' About Orangutan and the word etymology: 'Orang' in Malay/Indonesian = 'person' or 'man'; ' Utan /Hutan' in Malay/Indonesian = 'forest' or 'wild'; Together: 'Orang Hutan' = 'person of the forest' or 'man of the forest'; About Orangutans: Scientific classification: Great apes (family Hominidae); Species: Bornean Orangutan (Pongo pygmaeus), Sumatran Orangutan (Pongo abelii ), Tapanuli Orangutan (Pongo tapanuliensis ); Habitat: Rainforests of Borneo (Indonesia/Malaysia) and Sumatra (Indonesia); They are the only great apes found in Asia (other great apes — gorillas, chimpanzees, bonobos — are in Africa); Conservation status: All three species are Critically Endangered (IUCN Red List); Threats: Habitat destruction (palm oil plantations, deforestation), illegal wildlife trade, hunting; Characteristics: Highly intelligent; can use tools; spend most of their lives in trees (arboreal); have distinctive reddish-brown fur; have a very long childhood (dependency on mothers up to 8-9 years — longest of any animal other than humans); Share approximately 96.9% of DNA with humans; Orangutans are considered Asia's 'gardeners' as they disperse seeds through forests.
Option (b) Sumatran Tiger — Incorrect: 'Sumatran Tiger' refers to the tiger subspecies from Sumatra island (Indonesia) — its name does not mean 'man of the forest' in Malay; 'Orangutan' is the word that means 'man of the forest' in Malay.
Option (c) Komodo Dragon — Incorrect: The Komodo Dragon (Varanus komodoensis ) is the world's largest living lizard found on Komodo Island, Indonesia — its name relates to Komodo Island, not to 'man of the forest'; the correct answer is Orangutan.
Option (d) Irrawaddy Dolphin — Incorrect: The Irrawaddy Dolphin ( Orcaella brevirostris) is named after the Irrawaddy River in Myanmar (also spelled Ayeyarwady) — its name does not mean 'man of the forest' in Malay; Orangutan is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: Apis florea — Option (c)
Apis florea is commonly known as the 'dwarf honeybee' or 'little bee.' About Apis florea (Dwarf Honeybee): Scientific name: Apis florea; Common name: Dwarf honeybee or Red dwarf honeybee or Little bee; It is the SMALLEST of all honeybee species; Distribution: Found across South and Southeast Asia — India, Sri Lanka, Pakistan, China (Yunnan), Thailand, Malaysia, Iran, Oman; Nest: Builds single-comb, exposed nests on twigs of trees and shrubs; Honey production: Produces very small quantities of honey (typically less than 1 kg per colony per year) — much less than other commercial species; Not used for commercial beekeeping due to small honey yield and tendency to abscond (leave suddenly); Special features: Has a unique 'dorsal dance' (different from the waggle dance of other bees) to communicate food sources; The dorsal dance occurs on the flattened top surface of the single comb; Comparison of Honeybee species in India: Apis dorsata (Rock/Giant bee): Largest bee; builds single large exposed comb on cliffs/tall trees; aggressive; Apis cerana indica (Indian bee): Medium-sized; builds multiple combs in cavities; used for commercial honey production (Indian hives); Apis florea (Dwarf bee): Smallest; single small exposed comb; minimal honey yield; Apis mellifera (European/Italian bee): Introduced species; large colonies; high honey production; used in commercial beekeeping.
Option (a) Apis cerana indica — Incorrect: Apis cerana indica is the Indian honey bee — it is a medium-sized bee, NOT the 'little bee'; it is commonly used in traditional beekeeping in India and produces moderate amounts of honey; the 'little bee' or 'dwarf bee' is Apis florea.
Option (b) Apis dorsata — Incorrect: Apis dorsata is the Rock bee or Giant bee — it is the LARGEST honeybee species (opposite of 'little bee'); it builds large, single-comb nests on cliffs and tall trees; 'little bee' refers to Apis florea.
Option (d) Apis mellifera — Incorrect: Apis mellifera is the Western/European/Italian honeybee — it is a medium-to-large sized bee introduced to India for commercial beekeeping; it is NOT the 'little bee'; the dwarf honeybee is Apis florea.

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Nitrogen is a component of both Protein (I) and Chlorophyll (II) in living organisms. Statement I Analysis — Nitrogen in Protein (CORRECT): Proteins are made of amino acids; Each amino acid contains: a carbon atom, a hydrogen atom, a carboxyl group (-COOH), an amino group (-NH2 — contains NITROGEN), and a side chain (R group); The amino group (-NH2) in every amino acid contains nitrogen; Therefore, ALL proteins contain nitrogen ✓ ; Proteins make up about 16% nitrogen by weight; Other nitrogen-containing biomolecules: Nucleic acids (DNA, RNA) — in nitrogenous bases; ATP (adenosine triphosphate); Vitamins (B1, B3, B12) — contain nitrogen; Chlorophyll ✓ ; Statement II Analysis — Nitrogen in Chlorophyll (CORRECT): Chlorophyll is the green pigment in plants responsible for photosynthesis; Chemical formula of Chlorophyll a: C55H72O5N4Mg; The porphyrin ring structure of chlorophyll contains 4 nitrogen atoms; These 4 nitrogen atoms form the pyrrole rings that coordinate with the central magnesium (Mg) atom; Therefore, chlorophyll CONTAINS nitrogen ✓ ; This is why adequate nitrogen supply (from fertilizers) is crucial for plant growth — nitrogen is needed for both proteins AND chlorophyll production.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Nitrogen is a component of BOTH protein AND chlorophyll; chlorophyll (C55H72O5N4Mg) contains 4 nitrogen atoms in its porphyrin ring structure; 'Only I' is an incomplete answer.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Nitrogen is a component of BOTH chlorophyll AND protein; all amino acids (building blocks of proteins) contain the amino group (-NH2) which contains nitrogen; 'Only II' is an incomplete answer. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Nitrogen is DEFINITELY a component of both proteins (amino group -NH2 in amino acids) and chlorophyll (porphyrin ring with 4 nitrogen atoms); 'Neither I nor II' is completely incorrect.

Correct Answer: Venus — Option (d)
Venus is NOT made of gases and liquids — it is a terrestrial (rocky) planet. Classification of planets in the Solar System: Terrestrial (Rocky) planets — made of rock, metal, and silicates: Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars; These planets have solid surfaces; Gas Giants — primarily made of hydrogen and helium gases: Jupiter, Saturn; These planets have no definite solid surface — they have gaseous outer layers and liquid/metallic hydrogen interiors; Ice Giants — primarily made of water ice, ammonia ice, and methane ice along with gases: Uranus, Neptune; These have a thick mantle of ices over a rocky core; About Venus: Venus is a terrestrial planet (like Earth); Composition: Rocky/silicate mantle and a metallic (iron-nickel) core; Has a solid surface (though extremely hot ~465°C due to extreme greenhouse effect); Venus has a dense CO2 atmosphere (96.5% CO2), but the planet ITSELF is made of rock and metal — not gases and liquids; It is sometimes called Earth's 'twin' due to similar size and composition; About Saturn, Uranus, Jupiter (the incorrect options): Saturn: Gas giant — primarily hydrogen and helium; famous for its ring system; Uranus: Ice giant — made of water, ammonia, methane ices and gases; also has a ring system; Jupiter: Gas giant — largest planet; primarily hydrogen and helium; both are made of gases and liquids (no solid surface).
Option (a) Saturn — Incorrect: Saturn IS a gas giant made of gases (primarily hydrogen and helium) and liquids; it has no solid surface and is specifically categorized as a planet made of gases and liquids; Saturn is NOT the answer to 'NOT made of gases and liquids.'
Option (b) Uranus — Incorrect: Uranus IS an ice giant made of water, ammonia, methane ices and gases — it IS composed of gases and icy liquids; it has no solid surface to stand on; Uranus is not the correct answer.
Option (c) Jupiter — Incorrect: Jupiter IS a gas giant — the largest planet, made primarily of hydrogen and helium in gaseous and liquid states; it has no solid surface; Jupiter is definitely made of gases and liquids.

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Both statements about the effect of deforestation on soil are correct. Statement I Analysis — 'Physical properties of soil are affected by plantation and vegetation' (CORRECT): Tree roots bind soil particles together, affecting soil structure; Vegetation cover affects: Soil texture (particle binding), Porosity (air and water movement through soil), Permeability (rate of water infiltration), Moisture retention (humus from decomposed vegetation retains water), Soil temperature (vegetation acts as insulation); Deforestation removes vegetation, leading to: Compaction of soil (reduced porosity), Reduced water retention, Increased soil erosion (soil particles become loose); Thus, plantation/vegetation directly influences the physical properties of soil ✓ ; Statement II Analysis — 'Removal of the top layer of soil exposes the hard and rocky layers beneath' (CORRECT): Topsoil (humus-rich layer) is the most fertile and loosely bound layer; Deforestation causes: Loss of vegetation cover → exposure to rain impact (raindrop splash erosion) and wind; Erosion of the soft topsoil (O horizon and A horizon) by water and wind; Once topsoil is removed, the hard, rocky subsoil layers (B horizon and C horizon, parent rock) are exposed; These exposed subsoil and rock layers are infertile and harder; This process leads to land degradation and desertification ✓ .
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Both statements are correct; Statement II is also accurate — deforestation causes removal of topsoil through erosion, exposing the harder, rocky layers beneath; 'Only I' is an incomplete answer.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Both statements are correct; Statement I is also accurate — vegetation does affect the physical properties of soil through root binding, humus formation, and moisture retention; 'Only II' is an incomplete answer.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Both statements are factually correct about the effects of deforestation on soil; 'Neither I nor II' is completely incorrect.

Correct Answer: Uttarakhand — Option (d)
The ' Khudad ' ( खुदेड़ ) folk songs are traditionally associated with Uttarakhand. About Khudad Folk Songs: Khudad ( खुदेड़ ) are traditional folk songs of Uttarakhand, particularly associated with the Kumaoni culture/region; These songs are typically sung during religious festivals, seasonal celebrations, and community gatherings; They are an important part of Uttarakhand's rich intangible cultural heritage; Linguistic roots: In Kumaoni , ' khudad ' or ' khudaad ' relates to a style of community folk singing; Performed by: Women and men in communal settings; Traditional folk music of Uttarakhand includes various genres: Jhora, Chanchari, Baira, Hurkiya Bol, Choliya songs, Mangal songs, Khudad , and Jagar (shamanic singing); About Uttarakhand's cultural heritage: Uttarakhand (formed November 9, 2000) is known as ' Devbhoomi ' (Land of Gods); Capital: Dehradun (temporary), Gairsain (summer/official); Famous folk dances: Choliya , Langvir Nritya, Jhora, Chanchari; Famous folk instruments: Dhol , Damau, Turri, Ransingha , Hurka; Classical Uttarakhand singing forms: Jagar (worship songs), Nyoli (songs of separation), Bairagi songs.
Option (a) Rajasthan — Incorrect: Rajasthan has its own rich folk music traditions ( Maand , Padharo Mhare Des, Gorbandh , Kesariya Balam) — ' Khudad ' folk songs are not from Rajasthan; they are associated with Uttarakhand's Kumaoni culture.
Option (b) Assam — Incorrect: Assam has its own folk music traditions (Bihu songs, Goalparia lokgeeti , Bhortal Nritya) — ' Khudad ' folk songs are not from Assam; they belong to the Uttarakhand folk music tradition.
Option (c) Karnataka — Incorrect: Karnataka has folk music traditions like Janapada Geete, Veeragase , Dollu Kunitha — ' Khudad ' folk songs are not associated with Karnataka; they are traditional folk songs of Uttarakhand.

Correct Answer: Mizoram — Option (b)
Lemlaawi is a traditional jaw harp instrument associated with Mizoram. About Lemlaawi : Also known as: Lemlawi , Lam-Laawi; Type: Jaw harp (Jew's harp) — a mouth-resonated plucked instrument; Region: Mizoram, Northeast India; Played by: The Mizo people of Mizoram; How it's played: The instrument is held between the teeth or lips; a metal or bamboo tongue is plucked to produce sound; the player's oral cavity acts as a resonance chamber; Changing the mouth shape and breathing modulates the pitch; About Jaw Harps in India: The jaw harp is one of the most ancient instruments found across many cultures; Different names in India: Gogona (Assam), Morsing/ Morchang (Rajasthan/South India), Lemlaawi (Mizoram), Chang (Manipur/Northeast); About Mizoram's traditional music: Mizoram has a rich tradition of folk music; Traditional instruments: Khuang (drum), Dar (gong), Rawchher (flute), Tumphit (bamboo flute), Lemlaawi (jaw harp); Mizo music is characterized by choral singing and ensemble performances; Dance and music are integral to Mizo cultural celebrations like Chapchar Kut (spring festival), Mim Kut, and Pawl Kut.
Option (a) Telangana — Incorrect: Telangana's traditional instruments include Dappu (drum), Kinnera (string instrument), and Pambai (wind instrument) — Lemlaawi is not associated with Telangana; it is a traditional jaw harp of Mizoram.
Option (c) Gujarat — Incorrect: Gujarat's traditional folk instruments include Ravanahatha , Ektaro , Jhanjh , Nagara — the Lemlaawi jaw harp is not a Gujarati instrument; it belongs to the folk music tradition of Mizoram in Northeast India.
Option (d) Karnataka — Incorrect: Karnataka's traditional instruments include the Yakshagana percussion set (Chande, Maddale ), Kambi Thamburi, Dotara — Lemlaawi is not a Karnataka instrument; it is specifically a traditional jaw harp of Mizoram.

Correct Answer: South Africa — Option (d)
South Africa was ranked below India in the medal tally of the Commonwealth Games 2022. About Commonwealth Games 2022: Held in Birmingham, England (UK) from July 28 to August 8, 2022; 72 nations and territories participated; Medal Tally (top positions): 1st — Australia: 67G, 57S, 54B = 178 total; 2nd — England: 57G, 66S, 53B = 176 total; 3rd — Canada: 26G, 32S, 34B = 92 total; 4th — India: 22G, 16S, 23B = 61 total medals; India finished 4th overall in the Commonwealth Games 2022; Countries ranked BELOW India (5th and below): New Zealand, Scotland, Nigeria, Cameroon, South Africa, etc.; South Africa: South Africa finished below India in the medal standings at CWG 2022; India's notable performances at CWG 2022: Gold medals in: Weightlifting (Achinta Sheuli , Jeremy Lalrinnunga, Mirabai Chanu), Wrestling, Badminton (PV Sindhu, Lakshya Sen, Chirag-Satwik), Table Tennis, Athletics (Eldhose Paul - triple jump).
Option (a) Canada — Incorrect: Canada finished 3rd in the Commonwealth Games 2022 medal tally (with 26 gold medals and 92 total) — Canada ranked ABOVE India (which finished 4th); therefore Canada did NOT rank below India. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) England — Incorrect: England finished 2nd in the Commonwealth Games 2022 medal tally (with 57 gold medals and 176 total) — England ranked ABOVE India (which was 4th); England definitely did not rank below India.
Option (c) Australia — Incorrect: Australia topped the medal tally at CWG 2022 with 67 gold medals and 178 total medals — Australia finished 1st, far ABOVE India's 4th place; Australia did not rank below India.

Correct Answer: They were excellent engineers — Option (b)
Archaeological evidence from the Indus Valley Civilization clearly reveals that the people were excellent engineers with advanced urban planning skills. Evidence showing IVC people were excellent engineers: City planning and grid layout: Cities like Mohenjo-daro and Harappa had well-planned street grids with roads intersecting at right angles; Drainage system: One of the world's first underground covered drainage systems — sewage was channeled through brick-lined drains with manholes for maintenance; Multi-storied buildings: Evidence of 2-3 storied houses with well-designed rooms, courtyards, and bathroom facilities; Great Bath at Mohenjo-daro: A large, sophisticated public bathing structure with brick-lined pool, water-tight with bitumen, changing rooms — demonstrates extraordinary engineering; Granaries: Large granaries with air ducts and loading bays for efficient storage; Dockyards at Lothal: A sophisticated dockyard with lock-gate system for ships — earliest known dock in the world; Standardized weights and measures: Uniform brick sizes and measurement systems used across the civilization (spanning 1 million sq km); Water management: Reservoirs and wells in Dholavira ; About IVC: Also called Harappan Civilization; flourished ~3300-1300 BCE; Geographic extent: Parts of present-day Pakistan, northwest India, Afghanistan; Major sites: Harappa, Mohenjo-daro, Dholavira , Lothal, Rakhigarhi .
Option (a) They were extensively nomadic — Incorrect: The IVC people were SEDENTARY, not nomadic — they built permanent, well-planned cities with sophisticated infrastructure; nomadic peoples do not build cities with advanced drainage systems and granaries.
Option (c) They lacked urban planning skills — Incorrect: This is completely OPPOSITE to the evidence — the IVC demonstrates one of the most sophisticated urban planning systems of the ancient world, with grid-pattern streets, advanced drainage, and standardized construction; they were EXCELLENT urban planners. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) They were solely dependent on rainwater — Incorrect: IVC people had sophisticated water management systems including wells (over 700 in Mohenjo-daro alone), reservoirs ( Dholavira ), and drainage systems — they were definitely NOT solely dependent on rainwater; they had advanced hydraulic engineering.

Correct Answer: Oxfam India — Option (a)
The India Discrimination Report was published by Oxfam India. About India Discrimination Report: Published by: Oxfam India (Indian arm of the global development organization Oxfam); The report analyzes discrimination in India's labor market based on religion and gender; Key findings: Documented systematic discrimination against Muslim workers and women in the formal labor market in India; Shows disparity in wages, employment opportunities, and economic participation based on religious identity and gender; The report uses NSSO (National Sample Survey Office) data and employment surveys to highlight discrimination patterns; Significance: Highlights economic inequality arising from discrimination; Important for policy-making regarding equal opportunity employment; Sparked national debate on workplace discrimination in India; About Oxfam India: Part of Oxfam International (global confederation of 21 NGOs); Established in India to fight poverty, inequality, and discrimination; Publishes various reports on inequality: Survival of the Richest report, India Inequality Report; About other options: Centre for Equity Studies: Works on equity and social justice but did not publish this particular report; Tata Trusts: Philanthropic foundation of the Tata Group — focuses on health, education, livelihoods; Praja Foundation: Works on urban governance and citizen participation — publishes urban governance reports, not discrimination reports.
Option (b) Centre for Equity Studies — Incorrect: The Centre for Equity Studies (CES) is an organization working on equity and social justice — it did NOT publish the India Discrimination Report; that was published by Oxfam India. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Tata Trusts — Incorrect: Tata Trusts is the philanthropic arm of the Tata Group focused on health, education, rural development, and natural resources — it did not publish the India Discrimination Report; Oxfam India is the correct publisher.
Option (d) Praja Foundation — Incorrect: Praja Foundation is known for its annual reports on urban governance (Delhi Annual Report, Crime Against Women) — it did not publish the India Discrimination Report; that was published by Oxfam India.

Correct Answer: World Trade Organization (WTO) — Option (c)
The Global Trade Outlook and Statistics 2025 was published by the World Trade Organization (WTO). About Global Trade Outlook and Statistics: Published by: World Trade Organization (WTO); This is an annual flagship publication of the WTO; Content: Comprehensive analysis of global merchandise and commercial services trade; Includes: Current trade statistics and trends; Projections for global trade growth; Regional trade performance analysis; Sectoral trade breakdowns (agriculture, manufacturing, mining, services); Impact of economic conditions, geopolitical events on trade; The 2025 edition analyzed trade flows in the context of global economic recovery, inflation, supply chain disruptions, and geopolitical tensions; About WTO (World Trade Organization): Established: January 1, 1995 (replaced GATT); Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland; Director General: Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala (since March 2021); Members: 164 member countries (as of 2024); Functions: Sets rules for international trade, resolves trade disputes, provides forum for trade negotiations; India is a founding member of WTO; Key WTO publications: World Trade Report, Global Trade Outlook and Statistics, Aid for Trade at a Glance; About other organizations: UNESCO: United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization — publishes education and culture reports, NOT trade statistics; IMF: Publishes World Economic Outlook, Global Financial Stability Report; World Bank: Publishes World Development Report, Doing Business Report.
Option (a) UNESCO — Incorrect: UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization) publishes reports on education, science, culture, and communication — it does NOT publish Global Trade Outlook and Statistics; that is a WTO publication.
Option (b) International Monetary Fund — Incorrect: The IMF publishes World Economic Outlook, Global Financial Stability Report, and Fiscal Monitor — it does NOT publish the Global Trade Outlook and Statistics; that report is published by the WTO.
Option (d) World Bank — Incorrect: The World Bank publishes World Development Report, Doing Business Report, Global Economic Prospects — it does NOT publish Global Trade Outlook and Statistics; the WTO is the correct publisher of this trade-focused report.