SSC GD 2026 26 May 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Impeachment ( Mahabhiyog ) — Option (c)
The process of removing a Supreme Court judge is called Impeachment ( महाभियोग ). About Impeachment of Supreme Court Judges (Article 124(4)): Constitutional provision: Article 124(4) of the Indian Constitution; Grounds: Proved misbehaviour or incapacity; Process: An address is presented by each House of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha); Special majority required: Majority of total membership of each House AND 2/3 majority of members present and voting in each House; Both Houses must pass the address in the SAME session; After both Houses pass the address, the President issues the removal order; The Judges Enquiry Act, 1968 regulates the procedure: A motion (impeachment motion) must be signed by at least 100 members of Lok Sabha OR 50 members of Rajya Sabha; The Speaker/Chairman admits or rejects the motion; If admitted, a 3-member inquiry committee is formed (Chief Justice/SC judge + HC Chief Justice + a distinguished jurist); The committee investigates the charges; Historical note: No Supreme Court judge has ever been successfully impeached in India. The only attempt was against Justice V. Ramaswami (1993) — the motion failed as the ruling party abstained; About other processes: Recall ( Pratyahva ): A political mechanism to recall elected representatives — NOT applicable to judges; Judicial Review: The power of courts to review laws/government actions — it's a court power, not a removal process; Presidential dismissal: The President can remove judges only after the Parliament's address — not independently.
Option (a) Recall ( Pratyahva ) — Incorrect: Recall is a process used in some democracies to remove elected representatives before their term ends — it does NOT apply to Supreme Court judges in India; the correct process for removing SC judges is Impeachment. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Judicial Review — Incorrect: Judicial Review is the power of courts (especially the Supreme Court) to examine whether laws passed by Parliament or actions of the executive are constitutional — it is a court power, NOT the process of removing a judge.
Option (d) Dismissal by the President — Incorrect: While the President issues the final removal order, a judge cannot be simply 'dismissed by the President' at will; the removal requires an address passed by both Houses of Parliament with a special majority — the process is called Impeachment, not dismissal.

Correct Answer: Swaran Singh Committee — Option (a)
The Swaran Singh Committee (1976) recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution. About Swaran Singh Committee: Constituted by: The Congress party/Government (during the Emergency period of 1975-77); Named after: Sardar Swaran Singh, a senior Congress leader and veteran politician; Year: 1976; Purpose: To recommend changes/amendments to the Constitution; Key recommendation: The committee recommended the addition of Fundamental Duties for citizens; Result: Based on this recommendation, the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 was passed, which added Part IVA (Article 51A) containing 10 Fundamental Duties; About Fundamental Duties (Article 51A): Originally 10 duties were added in 1976 by the 42nd Amendment; An 11th duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 (duty of parents to provide education to children aged 6-14 years); Fundamental Duties are NOT justiciable (cannot be enforced by courts); They apply to all citizens of India; Source: Inspired by the Constitution of the USSR (Soviet Union); About other committees: Rajmannar Committee (1969): Formed by Tamil Nadu government, recommended greater autonomy to states; Sarkaria Commission (1983): Centre-State relations; Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957): Recommended Panchayati Raj system — three-tier system of rural local self-government.
Option (b) Rajmannar Committee — Incorrect: The Rajmannar Committee (1969) was appointed by the Tamil Nadu state government to examine Centre-State relations and recommended greater autonomy for states — it had nothing to do with Fundamental Duties.
Option (c) Sarkaria Commission — Incorrect: The Sarkaria Commission (1983-1988) was set up to examine Centre-State relations and recommend changes — it had no connection with recommending Fundamental Duties.
Option (d) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee — Incorrect: The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system in India — it was NOT related to Fundamental Duties; the Swaran Singh Committee is correct. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Chief Justice of India — Option (b)
When both the President and Vice President posts are vacant simultaneously, the Chief Justice of India (CJI) acts as the President of India. Constitutional provisions for President's vacancy: Normal vacancy (President absent/ill): Vice President acts as President (Article 65(1)); Both President and Vice President absent/ill: No specific provision — but convention and practice established CJI's role; Both posts vacant: The Chief Justice of India (or the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court) acts as the President under provisions of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act; Historical example: Chief Justice M. Hidayatullah acted as President of India from July 20 to August 24, 1969, when President Varahagiri Venkata Giri resigned to contest elections and Vice President vacant; About the order of succession: President → Vice President (Article 65) → Chief Justice of India (if both unavailable/vacant); The CJI takes oath as President/Acting President administered by the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court; The CJI exercises all powers and functions of the President during this period; About other options: Governor of a state: Governors act as heads of states; they have no role in Presidential succession at the national level; Attorney General: The Attorney General is the highest law officer of India (not a constitutional/executive position in succession); Prime Minister: The PM is the head of government but NOT in the line of Presidential succession; constitutionally, the President's functions pass to the Vice President, then CJI.
Option (a) Governor of any state — Incorrect: State Governors act as constitutional heads of their respective states — they are not in the line of succession for the Presidency of India; when both the President and Vice President are absent/posts vacant, the Chief Justice of India acts as President.
Option (c) Attorney General — Incorrect: The Attorney General of India is the government's chief legal adviser and has the right of audience in all courts in India — this is a legal/advisory role and NOT a constitutional succession position; the CJI acts as President when both Presidential and VP posts are vacant.
Option (d) Prime Minister — Incorrect: The Prime Minister is the head of government (executive power) but is NOT in the constitutional line of Presidential succession; the order is: President → Vice President → Chief Justice of India.

Correct Answer: Pt. Lochan — Option (c)
Pt. Lochan (Lochana Kavi) is the author of the treatise 'Raga Tarangini.' About Raga Tarangini: Author: Pt. Lochan (also called Lochana Kavi); 'Raga Tarangini' is an important classical treatise on Indian (Hindustani) music; It deals with ragas, their characteristics, and performance rules; Written in the medieval period; It is an important reference text for understanding the historical development of Hindustani classical music; About Pt. Lochan: Lochana Kavi was a medieval scholar of music theory; He compiled the Raga Tarangini describing the characteristics of various ragas; About other classical music treatises: Sangit Ratnakara (by Pt. Sharngadeva, 13th century): One of the most comprehensive and authoritative texts on Indian classical music; covers both Hindustani and Carnatic traditions; deals with nada, sruti , svara , grama, murchhana , tana, alankar , raga, and instruments; Pt. Sharngadeva lived in the court of King Singhana of the Yadava dynasty in Devgiri ; Sangit Parijata (by Pt. Ahobala, 17th century): Treatise on North Indian classical music; Kramik Pustak Malika (by Pt. Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande, early 20th century): Systematized Hindustani classical music into 10 thaats ; Bhatkhande also wrote 'Hindustani Sangeet Paddhati '; Swara Mela Kalanidhi: South Indian music treatise by Ramamatya (16th century).
Option (a) Pt. Ahobala — Incorrect: Pt. Ahobala (17th century) wrote 'Sangit Parijata' — NOT Raga Tarangini; his work is an important treatise on Hindustani classical music of the 17th century.
Option (b) Pt. Sharngadeva — Incorrect: Pt. Sharngadeva (13th century) wrote 'Sangit Ratnakara' — one of the most important and comprehensive texts on Indian classical music; he did NOT write Raga Tarangini. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Pt. Bhatkhande — Incorrect: Pt. Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande (1860-1936) wrote ' Kramik Pustak Malika' and 'Hindustani Sangeet Paddhati ' — he systematized Hindustani classical music into 10 thaats ; he did NOT write Raga Tarangini, which was authored by Pt. Lochan.

Correct Answer: China — Option (b)
China became the first country to land a rover on the far side of the Moon. About China's Moon Far Side Landing: Mission: Chang'e-4 ( 嫦娥四号 ); Landing date: January 3, 2019; Landing site: Von Kármán crater in the South Pole-Aitken Basin (one of the largest and oldest impact craters in the solar system); Rover: Yutu-2 (Jade Rabbit-2); Yutu-2 has set the record for the longest operational period of any rover on the lunar surface; Communication challenge: The far side of the Moon never faces Earth, so direct communication is impossible; China solved this by deploying a relay satellite — Queqiao-1 (in a halo orbit around the Earth-Moon L2 Lagrange point) to relay signals between the rover and Earth; Why far side exploration is significant: The far side is geologically different from the near side — it has a thicker crust and more ancient terrain; It is protected from Earth's radio interference — ideal for radio astronomy; Scientists hope to study the universe's 'Dark Ages' (before stars formed) from the far side; About subsequent far-side missions: Chang'e-6 (2024): China retrieved the first samples from the far side of the Moon from the Apollo crater; About India's Moon missions: Chandrayaan-1 (2008): Orbiter — confirmed water on Moon; Chandrayaan-2 (2019): Orbiter (success) + Vikram lander (crash-landed); Chandrayaan-3 (2023): Successfully landed Pragyan rover near the South Pole.
Option (a) USA — Incorrect: The USA's NASA Apollo missions (1969-1972) successfully landed humans on the Moon's NEAR side — the USA has NOT landed a rover on the FAR side of the Moon; China was the first to achieve this with Chang'e-4 in January 2019. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) India — Incorrect: India's Chandrayaan-3 mission (August 23, 2023) successfully landed the Pragyan rover near the lunar South Pole — but this was on the near side of the Moon, not the far side; China was the first country to land on the far side of the Moon.
Option (d) Russia — Incorrect: Russia (formerly Soviet Union) was the first to land spacecraft on the Moon (Luna 9, 1966) and deploy a rover (Lunokhod 1, 1970) — but all Soviet/Russian lunar missions landed on the near side; China is the only country to have landed on the far side of the Moon.

Correct Answer: Abhinav Bindra — Option (b)
Abhinav Bindra is India's first individual Olympic gold medal winner. About Abhinav Bindra: Born: September 28, 1982, in Dehradun (Uttarakhand); Event: 10m Air Rifle shooting; Olympic Gold: Beijing Olympics 2008 (August 11, 2008); He won India's FIRST EVER individual Olympic gold medal in the 10m Air Rifle event at the 2008 Beijing Olympics with a score of 700.5 (finalists' total); Before Abhinav Bindra's gold, India's only Olympic gold medals came in team events — Field Hockey (8 gold medals: 1928, 1932, 1936, 1948, 1952, 1956, 1960, 1964, 1980); Career highlights: World Champion in 10m Air Rifle (2006) — won gold at the 2006 ISSF World Championship; Commonwealth Games gold medals; Asian Games gold medals; Wrote autobiography: 'A Shot at History: My Obsessive Journey to Olympic Gold'; Awards: Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna (2001), Padma Bhushan (2009), Padma Vibhushan (2016); India's Olympic medal history before 2008: 1900: Norman Pritchard — 2 individual silver medals (athletics) — but he competed under Great Britain; 1952: K.D. Jadhav — Bronze (Wrestling); 1996: Leander Paes — Bronze (Tennis); 2000: Karnam Malleswari — Bronze (Weightlifting); 2004: Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore — Silver (Shooting); 2008: Abhinav Bindra — GOLD (Shooting) ← First Individual Gold!
Option (a) Milkha Singh — Incorrect: Milkha Singh (the 'Flying Sikh') was a legendary Indian sprinter — he famously finished 4th in the 400m race at the Rome Olympics 1960 (missing a bronze medal by a fraction of a second); he never won an Olympic medal; Abhinav Bindra is India's first individual Olympic gold medal winner.
Option (c) Leander Paes — Incorrect: Leander Paes won a Bronze medal in men's singles tennis at the 1996 Atlanta Olympics — while historic as India's first individual Olympic medal in decades, it was a bronze medal, NOT gold; Abhinav Bindra won India's first individual Olympic GOLD in 2008.
Option (d) Sushil Kumar — Incorrect: Sushil Kumar won a Bronze medal in wrestling (66 kg freestyle) at the 2008 Beijing Olympics and a Silver medal at the 2012 London Olympics — he is a two-time Olympic medal winner, but his medals are bronze and silver, NOT gold; Abhinav Bindra is the first individual Olympic gold medalist from India.

Correct Answer: 5 — Option (b)
In T20 cricket, 5 fielders are allowed outside the 30-yard circle after the powerplay overs. About fielding restrictions in T20 cricket: Powerplay (Overs 1-6): Mandatory powerplay for first 6 overs; Maximum 2 fielders allowed OUTSIDE the 30-yard circle; Minimum 2 fielders must be in the inner circle (within 30 yards); After Powerplay (Overs 7-20): Maximum 5 fielders allowed OUTSIDE the 30-yard circle; Minimum 4 fielders must be within the 30-yard circle (inner circle); At all times: At least 2 fielders must be in catching positions (within 15 yards of the batsman) during the first 6 overs; About the fielding restrictions in different formats: ODI cricket (50 overs): Powerplay 1 (Overs 1-10): Max 2 outside 30-yard circle; Powerplay 2 (Overs 11-40): Max 4 outside; Final 10 overs (41-50): Max 5 outside; T20I: Powerplay (Overs 1-6): Max 2 outside; Overs 7-20: Max 5 outside; Test cricket: No fielding restrictions; About the 30-yard circle: A circle with a radius of 30 yards (27.4 meters) from the center of the pitch; The fielding team uses this to position fielders strategically; During powerplays, fewer fielders are outside, allowing batsmen to score more freely in gaps; About T20 cricket: T20 is the shortest format of cricket; Each team bats for 20 overs; Governed by ICC (International Cricket Council) Playing Conditions.
Option (a) 4 — Incorrect: After the powerplay in T20 cricket, 5 fielders (not 4) are allowed outside the 30-yard circle; 4 fielders outside is NOT a valid number for post-powerplay restrictions in T20.
Option (c) 3 — Incorrect: After the powerplay in T20 cricket, 5 fielders are allowed outside the 30-yard circle — not 3; having only 3 fielders outside the 30-yard circle is more restrictive than the ICC rules allow in post-powerplay overs.
Option (d) 6 — Incorrect: A maximum of 5 fielders are allowed outside the 30-yard circle after the powerplay in T20; having 6 outside would mean only 5 fielders inside (including wicketkeeper and bowler), which is not the ICC rule; the correct number is 5.

Correct Answer: ISRO - Indian Space Research Organisation — Option (c)
ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation ) is responsible for managing satellite remote sensing for environmental study in India. About ISRO and Remote Sensing: ISRO manages and operates India's earth observation satellites for remote sensing; Key remote sensing initiative: National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) — a unit of ISRO based in Hyderabad; NRSC provides satellite data and remote sensing services for: Environmental monitoring, Forest cover assessment, Land use/land cover mapping, Water resource mapping, Disaster management, Agricultural monitoring, Urban sprawl monitoring; ISRO's Earth Observation Satellites: RESOURCESAT series: Land resources monitoring (vegetation, crops, forests); CARTOSAT series: High-resolution cartographic applications; OCEANSAT series: Ocean color, wind vectors, sea surface temperature; RISAT series: Radar imaging for all-weather monitoring; INSAT/KALPANA: Meteorological observation; How remote sensing helps environment: Monitoring deforestation, desertification, glacier retreat, wetland changes, coastal erosion, air quality (using satellite sensors), and biodiversity changes; About other agencies: FSI (Forest Survey of India): Uses ISRO's satellite data to assess forest cover — but FSI is a USER of remote sensing data, not the manager of satellites; CPCB (Central Pollution Control Board): Monitors water and air pollution — doesn't manage satellites; MoEFCC : Policy body for environment — doesn't manage satellites.
Option (a) FSI - Forest Survey of India — Incorrect: The Forest Survey of India (FSI) is an organization under MoEFCC that assesses forest cover using satellite remote sensing DATA — but it does NOT manage the satellites; ISRO provides the satellite data that FSI uses for its biennial State of Forest Report.
Option (b) CPCB - Central Pollution Control Board — Incorrect: The CPCB monitors air and water pollution through ground-based monitoring stations (CAAQMS — Continuous Ambient Air Quality Monitoring Stations) — it does NOT manage satellite remote sensing systems; ISRO is the correct answer. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) MoEFCC - Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change — Incorrect: MoEFCC is the nodal ministry for environmental policy and regulation — it uses data from various sources including ISRO's satellites, but it does NOT manage satellite remote sensing systems; ISRO is responsible for managing satellite remote sensing.

Correct Answer: Karnataka — Option (c)
' Bayalata ' is a folk dance and theatre tradition associated with Karnataka. About Bayalata : Name origin: ' Bayalu ' in Kannada means 'open field/open air' + ' ata ' means 'play/dance'; So Bayalata literally means 'open-air play' or 'open-field performance'; Type: Folk drama/theatre — performed in open spaces (village squares, temple courtyards) without elaborate stage setups; Region: Karnataka, South India; Bayalata forms include: Yakshagana : The most famous form of Bayalata ; elaborate performances with mythology-based themes, elaborate costumes and make-up, music, and dance; Doddaata : Large-scale folk drama; Sannata : Shorter folk drama; Dasaraata : Based on Ramayana themes; Performances: Usually all-night long performances on festival occasions; Themes: Episodes from Ramayana, Mahabharata, Puranas, and local legends; Instruments used: Chande (drum), Maddale (double-headed drum), Harmonium, Cymbal; Significance: Bayalata has been a vital part of Karnataka's cultural life for centuries; It serves as both entertainment and religious expression; Yakshagana (a form of Bayalata ) is recognized as an important intangible cultural heritage; Karnataka's other folk arts: Dollu Kunitha (drum dance), Veeragase (devotional warrior dance), Puja Kunitha (devotional dance), Kolata (stick dance).
Option (a) Bihar — Incorrect: Bihar's folk dance traditions include Jata -Jatin, Bidesia , Kajari — ' Bayalata ' is not a Bihar folk form; Bayalata is specifically associated with Karnataka.
Option (b) Chhattisgarh — Incorrect: Chhattisgarh's folk dance traditions include Panthi, Raut Nacha, Karma, Suwa — ' Bayalata ' is not from Chhattisgarh; it is a Karnataka folk drama tradition. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Haryana — Incorrect: Haryana's folk traditions include Phag dance, Dhamal , Jhumar, Saang (folk theatre) — ' Bayalata ' is not from Haryana; it is the open-air folk theatre tradition of Karnataka.

Correct Answer: Ghumura — Option (a)
Ghumura is the most popular traditional folk dance of the tribes of Kalahandi district in Odisha. About Ghumura Dance: Origin: Kalahandi district, Odisha; Type: Traditional tribal war dance (originally performed before battles to boost warrior morale); Performers: Traditionally performed by men of the tribal communities of Kalahandi; Ghumura Drum: The dance gets its name from the ' Ghumura ' — a large, round earthen drum with a narrow neck and animal skin on both ends; The drum is tied around the performer's neck; Performers dance while simultaneously playing the Ghumura drum; Characteristics: Energetic and rhythmic; Performed in groups; Involves vigorous footwork and body movements; Accompanied by the Nishan (another large drum), Muhuri (horn), and Tasa; Costumes: Performers wear traditional tribal attire with peacock feathers and decorative accessories; Cultural significance: Ghumura is considered Kalahandi's most iconic cultural export; Performed at: Tribal festivals, cultural events, Republic Day parade (national level); Recognition: Ghumura has been performed at national and international festivals, bringing recognition to Kalahandi's tribal culture; About other options: Kikli : A folk game/dance of Punjab — young girls hold hands and spin; not from Odisha; Ludi: A folk dance/game from Rajasthan/North India; Sindhi Cham: A masked dance of Buddhist tradition from Sikkim/northeast India (also performed in monasteries).
Option (b) Kikli — Incorrect: Kikli is a popular folk game and dance from Punjab — young girls (and sometimes boys) hold each other's hands and spin rapidly; it has no connection with the tribal communities of Kalahandi district in Odisha; Ghumura is Kalahandi's tribal dance. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Ludi — Incorrect: Ludi is a folk dance associated with Rajasthan/North India — it is not the tribal dance of Kalahandi, Odisha; the most popular tribal dance of Kalahandi is Ghumura .
Option (d) Sindhi Cham — Incorrect: Sindhi Cham is a masked dance performed in Buddhist monasteries — primarily in Sikkim, Ladakh, and other Buddhist-dominated regions of India; it has no connection with the tribal communities of Kalahandi district in Odisha.

Correct Answer: 1958 — Option (c)
Milkha Singh won gold medals at the Asian Games in 1958 (held in Tokyo, Japan). About Milkha Singh's Asian Games achievements: 1958 Asian Games (Tokyo, Japan): Milkha Singh won TWO gold medals — in the 200m and 400m sprinting events; This made him one of India's most celebrated track and field athletes; 1962 Asian Games (Jakarta, Indonesia): Milkha Singh won another gold medal in the 400m event; About Milkha Singh: Full name: Milkha Singh; Born: November 20, 1929 (disputed), in Lyallpur (now Faisalabad, Pakistan); Died: June 18, 2021; Nickname: 'Flying Sikh' (given by Pakistani President Ayub Khan after he defeated Pakistani athlete Abdul Khaliq in a race in 1960); Notable performances: 1958 Asian Games (Tokyo): Gold in 200m and 400m; 1958 British Empire and Commonwealth Games: Gold in 440 yards — this made him the first Indian to win a Commonwealth Games gold in track and field; 1960 Rome Olympics: Finished 4th in 400m (0.1 seconds outside bronze) — his most heartbreaking performance; 1962 Asian Games (Jakarta): Gold in 400m; Awards: Padma Shri (1959); Arjuna Award (was offered but refused, as he felt it came too late); His life was depicted in the Bollywood film ' Bhaag Milkha Bhaag' (2013) starring Farhan Akhtar.
Option (a) 1951 — Incorrect: The 1951 Asian Games were held in New Delhi, India (the inaugural edition) — Milkha Singh did NOT win gold at the 1951 Asian Games; he was relatively young then; his Asian Games gold medal victory came in 1958 at Tokyo.
Option (b) 1954 — Incorrect: The 1954 Asian Games were held in Manila, Philippines — Milkha Singh did NOT win Asian Games gold in 1954; his first Asian Games gold medals were at the 1958 Asian Games in Tokyo.
Option (d) 1970 — Incorrect: The 1970 Asian Games were held in Bangkok, Thailand — Milkha Singh had already retired from competitive athletics well before 1970; his Asian Games gold medals were in 1958 (Tokyo) and 1962 (Jakarta).

Correct Answer: Tides due to Moon and Sun — Option (b)
Tides due to the Moon and Sun are explained by Newton's Universal Law of Gravitation. About Newton's Universal Law of Gravitation: Every object in the universe attracts every other object with a force proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them; Formula: F = G × (m1 × m2) / r²; G = Universal Gravitational Constant (6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ N⋅m²/kg²); About Tides and Gravitation: Tides are caused by the differential gravitational pull of the Moon (primarily) and the Sun on Earth's oceans; The Moon's gravitational pull creates a bulge of ocean water on the side facing the Moon (high tide) and on the opposite side (due to inertia); As Earth rotates, different areas experience high and low tides; This is directly explained by Newton's Universal Law of Gravitation ✓ ; Other phenomena explained by Universal Gravitation: Planetary orbits around the Sun; Motion of Moon around Earth; Weight of objects; Falling of objects to the Earth; Phenomena NOT explained by gravitational law: Nuclear fusion in the Sun: Explained by nuclear force (strong force) — a fundamental force at subatomic level; Magnetic attraction between poles: Explained by electromagnetic force (Maxwell's equations); Motion of electrons around the nucleus: Explained by electromagnetic force and quantum mechanics (NOT gravitational force — gravity at atomic scale is negligible).
Option (a) Nuclear fusion in the Sun — Incorrect: Nuclear fusion in the Sun is explained by the strong nuclear force — it involves hydrogen nuclei fusing to form helium at extremely high temperatures and pressures; this is a nuclear physics phenomenon, NOT explained by Newton's gravitational law.
Option (c) Magnetic attraction between poles — Incorrect: Magnetic attraction between poles is explained by electromagnetic force (one of the four fundamental forces) — this is governed by Maxwell's equations and the Biot -Savart law, NOT by the Universal Law of Gravitation.
Option (d) Motion of electrons around the nucleus — Incorrect: The motion of electrons around the nucleus is explained by electromagnetic force (attraction between negatively charged electrons and positively charged protons) and quantum mechanics (wave-particle duality) — gravitational force at atomic level is negligibly small compared to electromagnetic force.

Correct Answer: Its inertia — Option (b)
The mass of an object is a measure of its inertia — the resistance of an object to changes in its state of motion. About Mass and Inertia: Mass: A fundamental property of matter; it measures the quantity of matter in an object; SI unit: kilogram (kg); Mass is a scalar quantity; Mass remains constant everywhere (on Earth, Moon, or space); Inertia: The tendency of an object to resist changes in its state of rest or motion; Newton's First Law of Motion (Law of Inertia) states that an object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in motion unless acted upon by an external force; Mass is the measure of inertia: Greater the mass → Greater the inertia → More force needed to change its state; A heavier truck has more inertia than a bicycle — it is harder to start or stop; Newton's Second Law: F = ma; Here 'm' is the measure of inertia (resistance to acceleration); Important distinctions: Mass vs Weight: Mass = amount of matter (kg); Weight = gravitational force on mass (W = mg); Weight varies with gravity but mass remains constant; Mass vs Volume: Volume is the amount of space occupied; mass is the amount of matter; Mass vs Density: Density = mass/volume; density is mass per unit volume, not what mass measures; Examples: A cricket ball and a tennis ball of same size have different masses — the heavier cricket ball has more inertia and requires more force to accelerate.
Option (a) Its weight — Incorrect: Weight is the gravitational force acting on an object (W = mg) — weight depends on gravity and varies with location; mass is NOT a measure of weight; mass measures inertia, while weight is the gravitational force on mass.
Option (c) Its volume — Incorrect: Volume is the amount of three-dimensional space occupied by an object — it is a completely different physical quantity from mass; mass does NOT measure volume; it measures the quantity of matter and inertia.
Option (d) Its density — Incorrect: Density is mass per unit volume (ρ = m/V) — it is a derived quantity combining both mass and volume; mass does NOT measure density; mass measures inertia (resistance to change in motion). The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Summer Solstice (North Solstice) — Option (d)
The longest day in the Northern Hemisphere occurs on the Summer Solstice ( उत्तर अयनांत ), which falls around June 21 each year. About the Summer Solstice: Summer Solstice (June Solstice): Occurs around June 20-21 each year; The Sun reaches its northernmost position — directly overhead the Tropic of Cancer (23.5°N); The Northern Hemisphere is tilted maximally TOWARD the Sun; This gives the maximum number of daylight hours in the Northern Hemisphere — the LONGEST DAY; The Arctic Circle experiences 24 hours of daylight (Midnight Sun); The Antarctic Circle experiences 24 hours of darkness; About the four key astronomical events: Spring Equinox (March 20-21): Day and night are equal (approximately 12 hours each) in both hemispheres; Sun is directly overhead the Equator; Autumnal Equinox (September 22-23): Again, day and night are approximately equal; Sun again directly over the Equator; Winter Solstice/South Solstice (December 21-22): The Sun is at its southernmost position (overhead Tropic of Capricorn); Northern Hemisphere has the SHORTEST day; Southern Hemisphere has the LONGEST day; Summer Solstice/North Solstice (June 20-21): The Sun is at its northernmost position (overhead Tropic of Cancer); Northern Hemisphere has the LONGEST day ← CORRECT ANSWER; Southern Hemisphere has the shortest day.
Option (a) Spring Equinox — Incorrect: At the Spring Equinox (around March 21), day and night are approximately equal (12 hours each) in both hemispheres — this is NOT the longest day; the longest day in the Northern Hemisphere is the Summer Solstice (June 21). The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Autumnal Equinox — Incorrect: At the Autumnal Equinox (around September 23), day and night are again approximately equal — this is NOT the longest day in the Northern Hemisphere; the longest day is the Summer Solstice.
Option (c) Winter Solstice (South Solstice) — Incorrect: The Winter Solstice (around December 22) gives the SHORTEST day in the Northern Hemisphere (and the longest night) — it is the OPPOSITE of the longest day; the longest day in the Northern Hemisphere is the Summer Solstice (June 21).

Correct Answer: Tides (Jowar- Bhata ) — Option (c)
The given description perfectly defines Tides ( ज्वार - भाटा /Jowar- Bhata ). About Tides: Definition: The periodic rise and fall of sea water level caused by the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and Sun and the rotation of the Earth; Frequency: Semidiurnal tides = rise and fall TWICE a day (approximately every 12 hours 25 minutes); Cause: Gravitational pull of the Moon (primary cause — stronger effect despite greater distance) and the Sun (secondary cause) on Earth's oceans; The Moon's gravitational pull creates a water bulge on the side of Earth facing the Moon (high tide) and on the opposite side (due to centrifugal effect); As Earth rotates, different areas pass through these bulges, causing two high tides and two low tides daily; Types of tides: Spring tides: When Sun, Moon, and Earth are aligned (new moon or full moon) — very high tides; Neap tides: When Sun and Moon are at right angles to Earth — moderate tides; Diurnal tides: One high tide and one low tide per day; Semidiurnal tides: Two high tides and two low tides per day (most common — as described in the question); Significance of tides: Navigation and shipping; Tidal energy (renewable energy); Fishing activities; The description in the question matches Tides exactly: 'Rise and fall twice a day' = semidiurnal tides ✓ ; 'Gravitational force of Sun and Moon' = cause of tides ✓ .
Option (a) Tsunami — Incorrect: A Tsunami is a series of ocean waves caused by underwater earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or landslides — NOT by gravitational pull of Sun and Moon; tsunamis are NOT a regular daily occurrence (they are sudden catastrophic events); the description does NOT match tsunami. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Cyclone — Incorrect: A Cyclone is a large-scale weather system characterized by low atmospheric pressure and strong rotating winds — it is caused by atmospheric pressure differences and the Coriolis effect, NOT by gravitational pull of the Sun and Moon; cyclones are not regular twice-daily events.
Option (d) Western Disturbance — Incorrect: Western Disturbance is a weather phenomenon (extra-tropical cyclone) that brings non-monsoonal winter rainfall to northwestern India — it is caused by moisture-laden winds from the Mediterranean Sea; it has no connection to the regular twice-daily rise and fall of ocean water due to gravitational forces.

Correct Answer: Heavy industry — Option (c)
Heavy industry faced heavy regulation through licensing, quotas, and price controls in India before the 1991 liberalization reforms. About India's industrial regulation before 1991 (License Raj): The 'License Raj' system governed Indian industry from 1947 to 1991; Key legislation: Industries (Development and Regulation) Act (IDRA), 1951; Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956; Under the License Raj: Large and heavy industries were required to obtain government licenses to establish, expand, or change production; Government set production quotas and price controls; Heavy industries such as steel, cement, sugar, petroleum, and capital goods industries were under strict regulation; Many heavy industries were reserved for the public sector; Foreign investment and technology import were tightly controlled; The Industries (Development and Regulation) Act allowed government to: Issue licenses (industrial licenses), Fix production capacities, Control prices, Regulate distribution; Small-scale industries: Ironically, small-scale industries were actually PROTECTED — hundreds of products were reserved exclusively for small-scale sector to protect them from large-scale competition; The 1991 economic reforms under PM Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Manmohan Singh dismantled the License Raj: Industrial licensing abolished for most industries; Foreign investment liberalized; Public sector monopolies reduced; Price controls removed in most sectors.
Option (a) Agriculture — Incorrect: Agriculture was NOT heavily regulated through industrial licensing, quotas, and price controls in the same way as heavy industry; agricultural sector was governed by different policies; the License Raj primarily affected industrial production, not farming.
Option (b) Consumer and small-scale industries — Incorrect: Small-scale industries were actually PROTECTED (not just regulated) before 1991 — hundreds of items were reserved exclusively for small-scale production; the heavy licensing burden fell primarily on large/heavy industries; the candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Only banking — Incorrect: While the banking sector was nationalized (14 major banks in 1969, 6 more in 1980) and regulated, the description of 'licensing, quotas, and price controls' specifically refers to the industrial licensing system that primarily affected heavy industry; banking regulation is different from industrial quotas.

Correct Answer: 1953 — Option (d)
Deccan Airways was nationalized in 1953, when the Indian government nationalized all private airlines. About nationalization of Indian aviation (1953): The Air Corporations Act, 1953 was enacted by the Indian Parliament; Under this act, all private airlines operating in India were nationalized; Two public sector corporations were created: Indian Airlines Corporation: For domestic routes; Air India International: For international routes; Private airlines merged into Indian Airlines included: Deccan Airways, Air Services of India, Himalayan Aviation, Bharat Airways, Airways India, Orient Airways, Indian National Airways, Air India (Tata Sons' airline — J.R.D. Tata's), Kalinga Airlines; Why nationalization was done: To consolidate the fragmented aviation sector; To provide better coordination and safety standards; To ensure air connectivity for the newly independent nation; Historical background of Deccan Airways: Deccan Airways was founded in 1945 in Hyderabad (then Hyderabad State); It was one of India's early commercial airlines; After nationalization in 1953, it was merged into Indian Airlines Corporation; Key dates in Indian aviation: 1932: First commercial airline in India — Tata Airlines (J.R.D. Tata flew the first flight); 1946: Tata Airlines renamed Air India; 1953: All private airlines nationalized; 2007: Air India and Indian Airlines merged into Air India.
Option (a) 1949 — Incorrect: 1949 was not the year of aviation nationalization in India; the nationalization of all private airlines including Deccan Airways happened in 1953 under the Air Corporations Act, 1953.
Option (b) 1951 — Incorrect: 1951 was not the year Deccan Airways was nationalized; the Air Corporations Act that nationalized all private airlines was passed in 1953.
Option (c) 1955 — Incorrect: The nationalization of Indian private airlines, including Deccan Airways, took place in 1953 — not 1955; the Air Corporations Act, 1953 brought all private airlines under government control.

Correct Answer: Ravi — Option (b)
Kartarpur is situated on the banks of the Ravi river . About Kartarpur: Location: Kartarpur Sahib is located in Narowal district, Punjab province, Pakistan; It is situated on the right bank of the Ravi river (Ravee River); Significance: Kartarpur is where Guru Nanak Dev Ji (the founder of Sikhism) settled and spent the last 18 years of his life (1521-1539); He established a community here called 'Kartarpur Sahib' (meaning 'City of God' or 'God's city'); Guru Nanak Dev Ji passed away at Kartarpur in 1539; Gurdwara Darbar Sahib Kartarpur: The main Sikh shrine at Kartarpur; Located in Pakistan, about 4 km from the India-Pakistan border; About Kartarpur Corridor: The Kartarpur Corridor is a visa-free border crossing inaugurated in November 2019; It connects Dera Baba Nanak shrine (in Gurdaspur district, Punjab, India) to Gurdwara Darbar Sahib Kartarpur (in Pakistan); Allows Indian Sikh pilgrims to visit Kartarpur Sahib without a visa; Distance: Approximately 4.7 km long corridor; About the Ravi River: One of the five rivers of Punjab (Panj-ab = five waters); Originates in the Himalayas ( Kullu district, Himachal Pradesh, India); Flows through Jammu & Kashmir and Punjab (India) before entering Pakistan; Total length: ~720 km; A tributary of the Chenab River (which flows into the Indus).
Option (a) Ganga — Incorrect: Kartarpur is NOT near the Ganga river — the Ganga flows through Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal, far from Kartarpur in Pakistan's Punjab; Kartarpur is situated on the banks of the Ravi river .
Option (c) Yamuna — Incorrect: The Yamuna river flows through Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Delhi, and Uttar Pradesh — it does not flow near Kartarpur in Pakistan's Punjab province; Kartarpur is on the Ravi river .
Option (d) Sutlej — Incorrect: While the Sutlej is one of the five rivers of Punjab (like the Ravi), Kartarpur is specifically situated on the banks of the RAVI river — not the Sutlej; the candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Rangin Machli — Option (c)
The ' Rangin Machli' app was developed by ICAR-Central Institute of Freshwater Aquaculture (CIFA) in December 2024. About Rangin Machli App: Developed by: ICAR-CIFA (Indian Council of Agricultural Research — Central Institute of Freshwater Aquaculture); Development date: December 2024; Headquarters of ICAR-CIFA: Bhubaneswar, Odisha; Purpose: The ' Rangin Machli' (meaning ' Colourful Fish') app is designed to support ornamental fisheries/aquaculture; It helps fish farmers, hobbyists, and aquaculture enthusiasts: Identify ornamental ( colourful ) fish species; Get information on breeding and cultivation of ornamental fish; Access market information for ornamental fish; Support the growing ornamental fish trade in India; About ornamental fisheries in India: India has a growing ornamental fish industry; Over 400 species of freshwater ornamental fish are available in India; Major production states: West Bengal, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka; Ornamental fish are popular in aquariums and water decorations; About ICAR-CIFA: Established: 1987; Location: Bhubaneswar, Odisha; Focus: Research on freshwater aquaculture — fish breeding, disease management, nutrition, genetics; Develops technologies for fish farming to improve production and livelihoods of fish farmers.
Option (a) Matsya Mitra — Incorrect: 'Matsya Mitra' is a different initiative/app in the fisheries sector — it was NOT the app developed by ICAR-CIFA in December 2024; the Rangin Machli app is the correct answer for ICAR-CIFA's December 2024 development. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Jal Samvardhan — Incorrect: 'Jal Samvardhan' (Water Conservation) is not the app developed by ICAR-CIFA in December 2024 for ornamental fisheries; the correct app is ' Rangin Machli' ( Colourful Fish).
Option (d) Aqua Suraksha — Incorrect: 'Aqua Suraksha' was not the app developed by ICAR-CIFA in December 2024; the institute developed ' Rangin Machli' — an app specifically for ornamental ( colourful ) fish identification and aquaculture.