SSC GD 2026 26 May 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: First Schedule — Option (a)
The First Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the names of all the States and Union Territories of India and their territorial descriptions. About the First Schedule: It lists all 28 States and 8 Union Territories of India (as of current count after J&K reorganization in 2019); Each state/UT's territory is described with reference to the areas and regions it comprises; This schedule is important because whenever a new state is created or boundaries are changed, it requires an amendment to the First Schedule; Historical changes: Telangana (29th state at time of creation, now 28th as Goa's reorganization changed count) was added in 2014; J&K was bifurcated into two UTs (J&K and Ladakh) in 2019; About other Schedules of the Indian Constitution: Second Schedule: Salaries, allowances, and pensions of constitutional functionaries (President, Vice President, Chief Justice, Judges of SC/HC, CAG, etc.); Third Schedule: Oaths and affirmations for various constitutional offices; Fourth Schedule: Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to States and UTs; Fifth Schedule: Provisions relating to administration of Scheduled Areas; Sixth Schedule: Provisions for administration of Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram; Seventh Schedule: Division of powers between Centre and States — Union List, State List, and Concurrent List; Eighth Schedule: Languages recognized by the Constitution (currently 22 languages); Ninth Schedule: Laws protected from judicial review (added by 1st Amendment, 1951); Tenth Schedule: Anti-defection law (added by 52nd Amendment, 1985); Eleventh Schedule: Powers of Panchayati Raj institutions (73rd Amendment); Twelfth Schedule: Powers of Urban Local Bodies/Municipalities (74th Amendment).
Option (b) Second Schedule — Incorrect: The Second Schedule deals with the salaries, allowances, and pensions of important constitutional functionaries like the President, Vice President, Governors, Judges, Speaker, etc. — it has no relation to the names of states and UTs.
Option (c) Third Schedule — Incorrect: The Third Schedule contains the forms of Oaths and Affirmations for various constitutional offices (President, Vice President, Union Ministers, MPs, Supreme Court judges, etc.) — NOT the names of states and UTs. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Fourth Schedule — Incorrect: The Fourth Schedule deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) to each State and Union Territory — not the names and territories of states/UTs themselves.

Correct Answer: Part XVII — Option (c)
Part XVII (Articles 343–351) of the Indian Constitution deals with Official Language. About Part XVII — Official Language: Article 343: Official language of the Union — Hindi in Devanagari script; Article 344: Commission and Committee of Parliament on Official Language; Article 345: Official language or languages of a State; Article 346: Official language for communication between one State and another or between a State and the Union; Article 347: Special provision relating to language spoken by a section of population of a State; Article 348: Language to be used in the Supreme Court and in the High Courts and for Acts, Bills, etc.; Article 349: Special procedure for enactment of certain laws relating to language; Article 350: Language to be used in representations for redress of grievances; Article 350A: Facilities for instruction in mother tongue at primary stage; Article 350B: Special Officer for linguistic minorities; Article 351: Directive for development of the Hindi language; Key facts about Official Language: Hindi in Devanagari script was declared the Official Language of the Union under Article 343; English was to be used for 15 years (until 1965) — but the Official Languages Act, 1963 allowed continued use of English; 8th Schedule lists 22 recognized languages; About other Parts: Part XV (Articles 324-329): Elections (Election Commission, Delimitation, etc.); Part XVI (Articles 330-342): Special provisions for SC, ST, Anglo-Indians; Part XVIII (Articles 352-360): Emergency Provisions (National Emergency, President's Rule, Financial Emergency).
Option (a) Part XV — Incorrect: Part XV (Articles 324–329) deals with Elections in India — it covers the Election Commission of India, delimitation of constituencies, and other electoral matters; it has nothing to do with Official Language.
Option (b) Part XVI — Incorrect: Part XVI (Articles 330–342) deals with Special Provisions relating to certain classes — it covers reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Parliament, and provisions for Anglo-Indians; not Official Language.
Option (d) Part XVIII — Incorrect: Part XVIII (Articles 352–360) deals with Emergency Provisions — National Emergency (Article 352), President's Rule/State Emergency (Article 356), and Financial Emergency (Article 360); it has no connection to Official Language which is covered under Part XVII.

Correct Answer: Section 290 — Option (a)
Under Section 290 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS), plea bargaining has been made time-bound. About Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023: The BNSS 2023 replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973; Came into effect on July 1, 2024; Together with Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) — replacing IPC, and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) — replacing Indian Evidence Act, these three new laws replaced India's colonial-era criminal justice laws; About Plea Bargaining: Plea bargaining is a process where the accused pleads guilty (or nolo contendere) in exchange for a lesser sentence or reduced charges; In CrPC (old law): Plea bargaining was introduced via the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005 under Chapter XXIA (Sections 265A to 265L); In BNSS 2023 — Section 290: Plea bargaining is now included under Section 290 of BNSS; It has been made TIME-BOUND, meaning there are specific timeframes within which the plea bargaining process must be completed; This ensures faster disposal of cases and reduces court backlogs; Applicability: Plea bargaining applies to offences not punishable with death penalty or life imprisonment; Victims must also give consent for plea bargaining; Benefits of plea bargaining: Reduces trial time and court burden; Saves judicial resources; Provides faster resolution for the accused; Key feature of BNSS on plea bargaining: Time-bound process to ensure speedy justice delivery.
Option (b) Section 558 — Incorrect: Section 558 of the BNSS is not the section related to plea bargaining; plea bargaining is specifically covered under Section 290 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023.
Option (c) Section 258 — Incorrect: Section 258 of the BNSS does not deal with plea bargaining; the time-bound plea bargaining provision is under Section 290 of the BNSS 2023.
Option (d) Section 330 — Incorrect: Section 330 of the BNSS does not relate to plea bargaining; Section 290 is the correct provision for time-bound plea bargaining under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Himachal Pradesh — Option (b)
Nati ( नाटी ) is the traditional folk dance of Himachal Pradesh. About Nati dance: Origin: Himachal Pradesh, particularly popular in the Kullu , Shimla, and Sirmaur districts; Type: Group folk dance performed by both men and women together in a large circle or line; Occasion: Performed at festivals, fairs, weddings, and cultural gatherings — especially during Kullu Dussehra; Guinness World Record: Nati holds the Guinness World Record for the world's largest folk dance; On November 3, 2016, over 10,000 people performed Nati at Ridge Ground in Shimla; Characteristics: Slow rhythmic movements with hands interlocked; Performers wear traditional Himachali attire — Pattu (woolen shawl), Dhatu/Topi (cap), and traditional silver jewelry; Movements are graceful and involve swaying steps, gentle hand movements, and turns; Accompanied by: Nagara (kettledrum), Shehnai, Karnal (trumpet), and Ranasingha (horn); Significance: Nati is deeply embedded in Himachali culture and social fabric; It is performed across seasons and celebrations; Folk dances of other options: Maharashtra: Lavani, Tamasha, Koli dance, Dandiya, Dindi, Powada ; West Bengal: Baul dance, Chhau , Gaudiya Nritya, Kirtania , Gambhira; Rajasthan: Ghoomar , Kalbelia , Bhavai , Kathputli , Chari, Terah Taali.
Option (a) Maharashtra — Incorrect: Maharashtra's folk dance traditions include Lavani, Tamasha, Koli, and Powada — Nati is NOT a folk dance of Maharashtra; it belongs to Himachal Pradesh.
Option (c) West Bengal — Incorrect: West Bengal's folk dances include Baul, Chhau , Gambhira, and Gaudiya Nritya — Nati is NOT from West Bengal; it is the traditional folk dance of Himachal Pradesh.
Option (d) Rajasthan — Incorrect: Rajasthan has famous folk dances like Ghoomar, Kalbelia , Bhavai , and Chari — Nati is NOT from Rajasthan; it is specifically associated with Himachal Pradesh and holds the Guinness World Record for the world's largest folk dance.

Correct Answer: Samuel Taylor Coleridge — Option (b)
Samuel Taylor Coleridge was the collaborator of William Wordsworth in publishing 'Lyrical Ballads' (1798). About Lyrical Ballads: Published in: 1798 (first edition); Authors: William Wordsworth and Samuel Taylor Coleridge jointly; Significance: It is considered the landmark publication that launched the Romantic Age in English Literature; The Preface to the 1800 second edition (written by Wordsworth) became the 'manifesto of English Romanticism'; Contributions: Coleridge contributed 'The Rime of the Ancient Mariner' (the longest poem in the collection and the opening poem) and three other poems; Wordsworth wrote the remaining poems including 'Lines Written a Few Miles Above Tintern Abbey'; Key themes: Nature, the supernatural, common people, emotion over reason, imagination; Wordsworth's stated aim: To use 'the real language of men' (ordinary speech) in poetry; About Samuel Taylor Coleridge: Born: October 21, 1772; Works: The Rime of the Ancient Mariner, Kubla Khan, Christabel, Biographia Literaria; A leading Romantic poet; famous for his use of the supernatural in poetry; About William Wordsworth: Born: April 7, 1770; Became Poet Laureate of England in 1843; Famous works: The Prelude, Tintern Abbey, Daffodils (I Wandered Lonely as a Cloud); About other poets: Percy Bysshe Shelley: Second-generation Romantic poet; works: Ode to the West Wind, Prometheus Unbound, Adonais; Lord Byron: Second-generation Romantic; works: Don Juan, Childe Harold's Pilgrimage; Robert Southey: Poet Laureate before Wordsworth; associated with the 'Lake Poets' but NOT a co-author of Lyrical Ballads.
Option (a) Percy Bysshe Shelley — Incorrect: Percy Bysshe Shelley was a second-generation Romantic poet (born 1792) — he was too young to collaborate with Wordsworth on Lyrical Ballads in 1798; Shelley's famous works include Ode to the West Wind and Prometheus Unbound; Samuel Taylor Coleridge was the actual collaborator.
Option (c) Lord Byron — Incorrect: Lord Byron (George Gordon Byron) was another second-generation Romantic poet who was only 10 years old in 1798 when Lyrical Ballads was published — he had no collaboration with Wordsworth on this work; Coleridge co-authored Lyrical Ballads.
Option (d) Robert Southey — Incorrect: Robert Southey was a contemporary of Wordsworth and Coleridge (together called the 'Lake Poets'), and he later became Poet Laureate — but he was NOT a collaborator on Lyrical Ballads; the work was authored jointly by Wordsworth and Samuel Taylor Coleridge.

Correct Answer: 1920 Summer Olympics — Option (a)
The current Olympic flag was first hoisted at the 1920 Summer Olympics held in Antwerp, Belgium. About the Olympic Flag: Design: White background with five interlocking colored rings (blue, yellow, black, green, red from left to right); Designed by: Baron Pierre de Coubertin (founder of the modern Olympic Games) in 1913; Official adoption: The flag was officially adopted at the IOC Congress in Paris in 1914, but its use was delayed by World War I; First hoisting: The Olympic flag was first officially hoisted at the 1920 Summer Olympics in Antwerp, Belgium; Significance of the five rings: The five rings represent the five continents of the world — Africa, the Americas, Asia, Europe, and Oceania; The colors (including the white background) were chosen because at least one of these colors appears in the flag of every nation that participated at the time; About 1920 Antwerp Olympics: Held from April 20 to September 12, 1920; This was also the year the Olympic oath was introduced; The phrase ' Citius , Altius, Fortius' (Faster, Higher, Stronger) was formally adopted as the Olympic motto; About Winter Olympics: The first Winter Olympic Games were held in Chamonix, France in 1924 — NOT in 1920; there were no Winter Olympics in 1920; Historical note: India sent its first official team to the 1920 Antwerp Olympics.
Option (b) 1924 Summer Olympics — Incorrect: The 1924 Summer Olympics were held in Paris, France — while another edition of the Olympic flag was used, the FIRST hoisting of the current Olympic flag was at the 1920 Summer Olympics in Antwerp, Belgium.
Option (c) 1920 Winter Olympics — Incorrect: There were NO Winter Olympic Games in 1920 — the first Winter Olympics were held in Chamonix, France in 1924; the Olympic flag was first hoisted at the 1920 SUMMER Olympics in Antwerp. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) 1924 Winter Olympics — Incorrect: The 1924 Winter Olympics (first ever Winter Games) were held in Chamonix, France — while they used the Olympic flag, the flag had already been first hoisted four years earlier at the 1920 Summer Olympics in Antwerp, Belgium.

Correct Answer: 2014 — Option (c)
The four-quarter format was introduced in international field hockey in 2014. About the Four-Quarter Format in Hockey: Previous format: International hockey was traditionally played in two halves of 35 minutes each (total 70 minutes); New format (from 2014): Four quarters of 15 minutes each (total 60 minutes), with 2-minute breaks between quarters and a 15-minute half-time break at half-time; First use: The format was first used at the 2014 Hockey World League and the 2014 Men's Hockey World Cup held in The Hague, Netherlands (May-June 2014); Introduced by: International Hockey Federation (FIH — Fédération Internationale de Hockey); Reasons for change: More exciting and dynamic game for spectators and television audiences; Allows for tactical timeouts within quarters; Provides more rest time for players; Aligns more with other popular team sports (basketball, American football); Provides more natural commercial breaks for broadcast; Key features: Each team is allowed to take one tactical timeout per game of 1 minute; Penalty corners are re-taken after a whistle blows before completion; Time is stopped for video referrals and cards; The format is now standard in all FIH-sanctioned international tournaments and the Olympics.
Option (a) 2012 — Incorrect: The four-quarter format was NOT introduced in 2012; field hockey still used the two-half format at the 2012 London Olympics; the four-quarter format was introduced in 2014 by the FIH.
Option (b) 2013 — Incorrect: The four-quarter format was NOT introduced in 2013; it was officially introduced and first used in the 2014 Hockey World Cup in The Hague, Netherlands. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) 2015 — Incorrect: The four-quarter format was already in use in international hockey by 2015 — it was introduced and first implemented in 2014 at the FIH Hockey World Cup in The Hague; 2015 was NOT the year of introduction.

Correct Answer: Swim, Cycle, Run — Option (a)
The correct order of events in a Triathlon is: Swimming → Cycling → Running. About Triathlon: Definition: A multi-sport endurance event consisting of three disciplines performed consecutively — Swimming, Cycling, and Running; Order: ALWAYS Swimming → Cycling → Running (this order is standard for all triathlon events worldwide); Reason for this order: Swimming first (when athletes are freshest — swimming requires the most technique and is most dangerous when fatigued); Cycling second (moderate exertion, keeps the momentum going); Running last (requires the least specialized technique, can be done even when fatigued); Transition zones: T1: Transition from Swimming to Cycling (athlete changes gear — removes wetsuit, puts on helmet and cycling shoes); T2: Transition from Cycling to Running (removes helmet and cycling shoes, puts on running shoes); Olympic Triathlon distances: Swimming: 1.5 km; Cycling: 40 km; Running: 10 km; Total: 51.5 km; Ironman Triathlon distances: Swimming: 3.86 km; Cycling: 180.25 km; Running: 42.20 km (marathon); Total: 226.31 km; Olympic history: Triathlon was introduced as an Olympic event at the Sydney Olympics 2000; Other triathlon formats: Sprint, Olympic, Half-Ironman (70.3), and Ironman; About other governing body: World Triathlon (formerly ITU — International Triathlon Union) governs the sport.
Option (b) Run, Swim, Cycle — Incorrect: The correct triathlon order is Swim, Cycle, Run — NOT Run, Swim, Cycle; running first would be illogical as the swim portion requires the most technique and is most dangerous if done when fatigued. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Cycle, Swim, Run — Incorrect: The correct order is Swim, Cycle, Run — starting with cycling before swimming is not the standard triathlon format; in all official triathlon competitions globally, swimming is always the first discipline.
Option (d) Swim, Run, Cycle — Incorrect: While this sequence starts correctly with swimming, the order of the remaining two events is wrong — the correct sequence after swimming is cycling then running (Swim → Cycle → Run); running before cycling is not the standard triathlon format.

Correct Answer: Mass — Option (b)
Mass remains the same on both Earth and Moon (and everywhere else in the universe). About Mass: Definition: Mass is the amount of matter contained in an object; it is an intrinsic property of matter; SI Unit: Kilogram (kg); Mass is a scalar quantity; Mass does NOT depend on gravity — it remains constant everywhere (Earth, Moon, space, or any planet); An object with mass 60 kg on Earth will have the same 60 kg mass on the Moon; About Weight vs Mass: Weight = Mass × Gravitational acceleration (W = mg); Weight CHANGES with location because gravitational acceleration (g) varies; Earth's g ≈ 9.8 m/s²; Moon's g ≈ 1.67 m/s² (about 1/6th of Earth's); So an object weighing 60 N on Earth weighs only 10 N on the Moon; But its MASS remains 60/9.8 ≈ 6.12 kg on both Earth and Moon; About other options: Weight: Weight = mg; since Moon's g is 1/6th of Earth's, weight on Moon is 1/6th of weight on Earth — NOT the same; Gravitational acceleration (g): g = GM/R²; Since Moon has different mass and radius than Earth, g on Moon ≈ 1.67 m/s² vs g on Earth ≈ 9.8 m/s² — NOT the same; Pressure: Atmospheric pressure is vastly different — Earth has 1 atm atmospheric pressure while Moon has virtually no atmosphere (near vacuum) — NOT the same; Therefore, MASS is the only property that remains the same on Earth and Moon.
Option (a) Weight — Incorrect: Weight (W = mg) depends on gravitational acceleration; since Moon's gravity is approximately 1/6th of Earth's, an object weighs about 1/6th as much on the Moon compared to Earth — weight is NOT the same on Earth and Moon.
Option (c) Gravitational acceleration — Incorrect: Gravitational acceleration (g) is different on Earth (9.8 m/s²) and Moon (1.67 m/s²) because it depends on the mass and radius of the celestial body (g = GM/R²); g is NOT the same on Earth and Moon.
Option (d) Pressure — Incorrect: Earth has a substantial atmosphere with 1 atm (101,325 Pa) atmospheric pressure at sea level, while the Moon has virtually no atmosphere and near-zero atmospheric pressure; pressure is NOT the same on Earth and Moon.

Correct Answer: The eclipse will last longer — Option (a)
If Earth were twice its current size, the lunar eclipse would last longer. About Lunar Eclipse and Earth's Size: A lunar eclipse occurs when Earth comes between the Sun and the Moon, blocking sunlight from reaching the Moon; Earth's shadow has two parts: Umbra (complete shadow) — the region where Earth completely blocks sunlight; Penumbra (partial shadow) — the region where Earth partially blocks sunlight; During a total lunar eclipse, the Moon passes through Earth's umbra; The duration of the eclipse depends on: The size of Earth's shadow (umbra) — larger Earth = larger shadow; The distance of the Moon from Earth; The speed of the Moon's orbital motion; Effect of doubling Earth's size: If Earth were twice its current size, its shadow (umbra) would be significantly larger; A larger shadow means the Moon would take MORE TIME to pass through Earth's shadow; Therefore, the lunar eclipse would last LONGER; This is a direct consequence of geometry — larger blocking object = larger shadow = longer time for the Moon to traverse the shadow; Key insight: The duration of the eclipse is proportional to the size of Earth's shadow — NOT to the frequency of eclipses (which depends on orbital alignment); Therefore, doubling Earth's size would increase the duration of each lunar eclipse without necessarily changing the frequency of eclipses.
Option (b) The eclipse will become shorter — Incorrect: If Earth were twice its current size, its shadow would be larger (not smaller), which means the Moon would take LONGER to pass through Earth's shadow — the eclipse would last LONGER, not shorter.
Option (c) There will be no change in the eclipse duration — Incorrect: The size of Earth directly determines the size of its shadow; a larger Earth casts a larger umbra; therefore, a Moon-sized object would take longer to cross this larger shadow — the eclipse duration would definitely change (increase). The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) The frequency of eclipses will decrease — Incorrect: The frequency (how often) lunar eclipses occur depends on the orbital alignment of Sun, Earth, and Moon — it is governed by the Moon's orbital period and the tilt of its orbit relative to Earth's orbit; doubling Earth's size would not significantly affect orbital mechanics or frequency of eclipses; the primary effect would be on the DURATION of each eclipse (it would last longer).

Correct Answer: Strong growth in foreign exchange reserves over time — Option (c)
The strong growth in foreign exchange (forex) reserves over time is the best indicator that the 1991 reforms improved the stability of India's external sector. About India's 1991 Economic Crisis and Reforms: Pre-reform crisis (1991): India's forex reserves fell to just about $1.2 billion in January 1991 — barely enough for 3 weeks of imports; India had to mortgage 67 tonnes of gold with the Bank of England and Bank of Japan to secure emergency loans; The country was on the verge of defaulting on its international debt; Reforms initiated: Finance Minister Manmohan Singh (under PM Narasimha Rao) introduced landmark liberalization, privatization, and globalization (LPG) reforms; Key measures: Devaluation of the rupee (made exports competitive), Industrial licensing abolished, FDI liberalized, Import restrictions reduced, Current account convertibility introduced; Impact on external sector: Foreign exchange reserves grew steadily after 1991; By 2004, India's forex reserves crossed $100 billion; Today (as of 2026), India's forex reserves exceed $600 billion; FDI and FII inflows increased significantly after reforms; Export growth accelerated; Current account became more stable; The strong and steady increase in forex reserves directly shows improved external sector stability — from near-bankruptcy to one of the world's largest forex reserve holders.
Option (a) Continuous decline in foreign exchange reserves after 1991 — Incorrect: This is the OPPOSITE of what happened — forex reserves INCREASED significantly after the 1991 reforms; the pre-reform period saw a decline, not the post-reform period. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Foreign debt doubled in the 1990s — Incorrect: While India did have external debt challenges, a doubling of foreign debt would indicate WORSENING external stability, not improvement; the indicator of improvement is the strong growth in forex reserves and increased foreign investment inflows.
Option (d) Decline in foreign investment flow — Incorrect: The 1991 reforms specifically aimed at attracting MORE foreign investment by liberalizing FDI rules and opening up the Indian economy; foreign investment actually INCREASED after 1991 — a decline would indicate failure, not success, of the reforms.

Correct Answer: 1982 — Option (c)
NABARD was established on July 12, 1982. About NABARD: Full form: National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development; Established: July 12, 1982, under the NABARD Act, 1981; Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra; Type: Apex Development Bank (not a commercial bank); Basis of establishment: Based on the recommendations of the B. Sivaraman Committee (Committee to Review Arrangements for Institutional Credit for Agriculture and Rural Development), which submitted its report in 1981; Historical context: Before NABARD, agricultural credit was handled by: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) — through its Agricultural Credit Department; Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC); NABARD was created by merging the Agricultural Credit Department of RBI and the ARDC; NABARD's functions: Provides refinance to rural financial institutions (Regional Rural Banks, Cooperative Banks, Commercial Banks); Formulates credit policies for the rural economy; Supervises and inspects Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Cooperative Banks; Implements rural development programs; Manages Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF); Supports Self-Help Group (SHG) — Bank Linkage Programme ; NABARD's capital: Initially, RBI and Government of India contributed equally (50:50); Government of India's share is now 99.6%; About related institutions: RBI — India's central bank, established in 1935; State Bank of India (SBI) — established in 1955; National Housing Bank (NHB) — established in 1988; SIDBI — established in 1990.
Option (a) 1969 — Incorrect: 1969 was a landmark year in Indian banking history — 14 major private banks were nationalized in 1969 under PM Indira Gandhi; but NABARD was NOT established in 1969; NABARD was established much later in 1982.
Option (b) 1972 — Incorrect: NABARD was not established in 1972; 1972 saw the nationalization of 6 more banks (making it 20 nationalized banks total); NABARD was established in 1982 based on the B. Sivaraman Committee recommendations.
Option (d) 1990 — Incorrect: NABARD was established in 1982, not 1990; 1990 saw the establishment of SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India); NABARD was set up eight years earlier in 1982.

Correct Answer: Issuing digital life certificate for pensioners — Option (d)
'Jeevan Pramaan ' is a government initiative for issuing digital life certificates for pensioners. About Jeevan Pramaan : Full name: Jeevan Pramaan (Jeevan Pramaan Patra = Life Certificate); Launched by: Prime Minister Narendra Modi; Launch date: November 10, 2014; Type: Biometric-enabled Digital Life Certificate service; Purpose: To simplify the process of submitting Annual Life Certificates for pensioners of Central Government; Background: Previously, pensioners had to physically visit their pension disbursing offices/banks every November to submit their Life Certificate ( जीवन प्रमाण पत्र ) to prove they are alive and continue receiving pension; This was a major inconvenience, especially for elderly and differently-abled pensioners; How Jeevan Pramaan works: Uses Aadhaar-based biometric authentication; Pensioner authenticates using fingerprint or iris scan; A digital Life Certificate (Jeevan Pramaan ID) is generated; This is electronically delivered to the pension disbursing agency; Pensioner can submit certificate from home, common service centres , bank branches, post offices, or even via smartphone; Benefits: Eliminates the need for physical visits to banks/offices; Reduces fraud in pension disbursement; Accessible from anywhere — home, CSCs, banks; Available on mobile app (Jeevan Pramaan app); Scope: Covers Central Government civil pensioners, defence pensioners, telecom pensioners, etc.; Also adopted by many State Governments.
Option (a) Expansion of rural electrification — Incorrect: Rural electrification is handled by schemes like the Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana and later Saubhagya Scheme (Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana) — 'Jeevan Pramaan ' has nothing to do with electrification; it is about digital life certificates for pensioners.
Option (b) Providing skill development training for youth — Incorrect: Skill development for youth is addressed by schemes like Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) and the Skill India Mission — 'Jeevan Pramaan ' is specifically for pensioners and their digital life certificates, not for youth skill development.
Option (c) Providing insurance to farmers — Incorrect: Insurance for farmers is provided through schemes like Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) — 'Jeevan Pramaan ' is not about farmer insurance; it is an initiative that enables pensioners to submit their annual life certificate digitally using Aadhaar biometric authentication.

Correct Answer: Abscisic Acid — Option (c)
Abscisic Acid (ABA) is the plant hormone that inhibits plant growth and can cause wilting of leaves. About Abscisic Acid (ABA): Chemical nature: A sesquiterpenoid (15-carbon compound); Synthesized in: Leaves, roots, fruits, and seeds; Also called: The 'Stress Hormone' of plants because it helps plants respond to environmental stresses; Functions of Abscisic Acid: Growth inhibition: ABA inhibits cell elongation and division — it is an INHIBITOR (unlike other hormones); Stomatal closure: During water stress/drought, ABA causes stomatal guard cells to close, reducing water loss — BUT if closure is extreme, leaves may wilt; Leaf senescence and abscission: ABA promotes aging and falling of leaves; Seed dormancy: Maintains seeds in dormant state — prevents premature germination; Bud dormancy: Induces winter dormancy in buds; Fruit ripening: Involved in fruit maturation; ABA and wilting: ABA causes stomata to close to conserve water; In severe drought, ABA levels rise dramatically, causing extreme stomatal closure and ultimately leaf wilting; ABA and seed germination: ABA inhibits germination — this is antagonized by Gibberellins; About other plant hormones: Auxin (IAA): Promotes cell elongation, phototropism, geotropism, apical dominance; Gibberellins: Promote stem elongation, seed germination, flowering; Cytokinin: Promotes cell division (cytokinesis), delays leaf senescence, promotes lateral bud growth; Ethylene: Promotes fruit ripening, leaf/flower abscission.
Option (a) Cytokinin — Incorrect: Cytokinin is a plant growth PROMOTER — it promotes cell division (cytokinesis), promotes lateral bud growth, delays leaf senescence (aging and yellowing), and promotes chlorophyll synthesis; cytokinins do NOT inhibit growth or cause wilting. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Gibberellin — Incorrect: Gibberellins are plant growth PROMOTERS — they promote stem elongation (internode elongation), seed germination, bolting (flowering in biennials), and fruit development; they do NOT inhibit growth or cause wilting.
Option (d) Auxin — Incorrect: Auxin (IAA — Indole-3-acetic acid) is a plant growth PROMOTER that promotes cell elongation, phototropism (bending toward light), geotropism, apical dominance, and root formation; auxin does NOT inhibit growth or cause wilting; the correct answer is Abscisic Acid.

Correct Answer: Tribal welfare — Option (a)
The DAJGUA campaign (Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan) is related to Tribal welfare ( Janjatiya Kalyan). About DAJGUA — Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan: Full form: Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan (DAJGUA); 'Dharti Aaba ' is the title given to Birsa Munda (the great tribal freedom fighter) meaning 'Father of Earth/Land'; The scheme focuses on the development and welfare of tribal communities across India; Objective: Saturation of central government schemes in tribal villages; Coverage: Targets tribal (Scheduled Tribe) villages and habitations across India; Aim: To ensure that all central government welfare schemes reach tribal villages comprehensively — covering housing (PMAY), drinking water (Jal Jeevan Mission), health, education, livelihood, etc.; The scheme ensures that no tribal village is left out of government development programs; Launch context: The campaign was named after Birsa Munda, a revered tribal leader from Jharkhand who is considered a revolutionary and freedom fighter; November 15 (Birsa Munda's birth anniversary) is celebrated as Janjatiya Gaurav Diwas (Tribal Pride Day); The Ministry of Tribal Affairs implements this scheme; About tribal welfare in India: India has about 10.4 crore tribal population (Scheduled Tribes); They constitute about 8.6% of India's total population; Key tribal welfare schemes: EMRS (Ekalavya Model Residential Schools), PM JANMAN (PM Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan), Van Dhan Vikas Kendras, TRIFED.
Option (b) Swachh Bharat — Incorrect: The Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (Clean India Mission) is a national cleanliness campaign launched in 2014 — it focuses on sanitation, open defecation free (ODF) India, and waste management; DAJGUA is specifically about tribal welfare, not Swachh Bharat.
Option (c) OBC scholarship — Incorrect: OBC (Other Backward Classes) scholarships are managed through the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment — DAJGUA is specifically about Scheduled Tribe (tribal/ Janjatiya ) welfare, not OBC scholarships.
Option (d) Food fortification — Incorrect: Food fortification (adding micronutrients to staple foods) is managed through FSSAI (Food Safety and Standards Authority of India) — DAJGUA is about comprehensive development and welfare of tribal communities; the candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: 64.4% — Option (a)
According to the report 'Women in Agribusiness: Opportunities and Challenges,' 64.4% of India's agricultural workforce in 2025 is composed of women. About the Report: Title: 'Women in Agribusiness: Opportunities and Challenges'; This report highlights the significant and growing role of women in India's agricultural sector; Key finding: Women constitute 64.4% of India's agricultural workforce in 2025 — making India's agriculture sector predominantly female; About Women in Indian Agriculture: Despite constituting the majority of the agricultural workforce, women farmers face multiple challenges: Limited land ownership rights; Lack of access to credit and institutional finance; Limited access to modern technology and training; Unequal wages compared to male agricultural laborers; Vulnerability to climate change impacts; Women's roles in agriculture: Crop production and harvesting; Post-harvest management and food processing; Animal husbandry and dairying; Horticulture and kitchen gardens; Seed preservation and management; Government initiatives for women in agriculture: Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana (MKSP): Empowers women farmers; Self-Help Groups (SHGs) in agriculture; Kisan Credit Card (KCC) extended to women farmers; PM MUDRA Yojana for women agri -entrepreneurs; Agri-clinics and Agri-business centres for women; NRLM (National Rural Livelihoods Mission) — supports women farmers through SHGs; Significance of the 64.4% figure: It underscores that women are the backbone of Indian agriculture; Their labor and contributions are often unrecognized and underpaid; Policy focus needed on land rights, credit access, and skill development for women farmers.
Option (b) 51.4% — Incorrect: According to the report 'Women in Agribusiness: Opportunities and Challenges,' the percentage of women in India's agricultural workforce in 2025 is 64.4%, not 51.4%; the actual figure is significantly higher than 51.4%.
Option (c) 45.4% — Incorrect: The correct figure from the report is 64.4% — not 45.4%; 45.4% would be a minority share and would not reflect the dominant role women play in India's agricultural workforce as highlighted by the report.
Option (d) 54.4% — Incorrect: The correct percentage from the 'Women in Agribusiness: Opportunities and Challenges' report is 64.4% — not 54.4%; the actual figure is 10 percentage points higher than 54.4%; the candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: 111 — Option (a)
Anna University secured rank 111 in the Times Higher Education (THE) Asia Rankings 2025. About Anna University: Location: Chennai, Tamil Nadu; Type: Technical University; Established: 1978; Named after: C.N. Annadurai (former Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu); Status: One of India's premier technical universities; Known for: Engineering, technology, and architecture education; Anna University is affiliated with numerous engineering colleges across Tamil Nadu; About THE Asia Rankings 2025: Conducted by: Times Higher Education (THE), a UK-based magazine that publishes influential university rankings; Asia Rankings assess universities across Asia on parameters including: Teaching quality, Research output and citations, International outlook, Industry connections, Academic reputation; Significance of Anna University's rank 111 in THE Asia Rankings 2025: Demonstrates its strong research output and academic quality at the Asian level; Shows improvement in India's higher education sector's global visibility; Other top Indian universities in THE Asia Rankings 2025 typically include: IIT Bombay, IIT Delhi, IIT Madras, IIT Roorkee, IISc Bangalore; Anna University at rank 111 represents a significant achievement for a state technical university; About Times Higher Education (THE): THE also publishes THE World University Rankings, THE World's Best Universities, and THE Subject Rankings; THE Asia Rankings specifically focus on Asian universities and provide a regional perspective separate from global rankings.
Option (b) 91 — Incorrect: Anna University's rank in the Times Higher Education (THE) Asia Rankings 2025 is 111, not 91; the candidate selected rank 91 which is incorrect — the correct rank is 111.
Option (c) 77 — Incorrect: Rank 77 in THE Asia Rankings 2025 is not Anna University's position; Anna University secured rank 111 in the THE Asia Rankings 2025.
Option (d) 124 — Incorrect: Anna University's actual rank in the THE Asia Rankings 2025 is 111, not 124; rank 124 is lower than the actual ranking of 111 that Anna University achieved.

Correct Answer: Kumardevi — Option (c)
Kumardevi was the Lichchhavi princess who married Chandragupta I, the founder of the Gupta Empire. About Chandragupta I and Kumardevi : Chandragupta I: Founder of the Gupta Empire; ruled from c. 319-335 CE; assumed the title ' Maharajadhiraja ' (King of Kings); Marriage significance: The marriage of Chandragupta I with Kumardevi , the Lichchhavi princess, was a politically strategic alliance; The Lichchhavi clan was a powerful Vajji confederacy — this marriage gave Chandragupta political legitimacy, military power, and territory; This union is considered one of the most important political marriages in ancient Indian history; Commemorated on coins: Chandragupta I issued gold coins (Dinars) depicting both himself and Kumardevi — this is the first instance in Indian history where a queen was depicted on coins; The coins are inscribed with 'Chandragupta' and ' Kumardevi ' with the Lichchhavi emblem; Their son: Samudragupta — the greatest Gupta ruler, known as the 'Napoleon of India' (V.A. Smith) for his extensive military conquests; Samudragupta was sometimes referred to as ' Lichchhavindrasuta ' (son of Lichchhavi ) acknowledging his maternal lineage; About Lichchhavi clan: The Lichchhavis were an ancient and powerful oligarchic republic of ancient India; Their capital was Vaishali (in present-day Bihar); About other options: Nayanika: Queen of the Satavahana king Satakarni I — known from the Nanaghat inscription, not Gupta dynasty; Kadambadevi : Not a prominent historical queen; Prabhavati: Daughter of Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) — who married the Vakataka king Rudrasena II.
Option (a) Kadambadevi — Incorrect: Kadambadevi was NOT the Lichchhavi princess who married Chandragupta I; Kumardevi was the Lichchhavi princess who married him, and this union is famously commemorated on Gupta gold coins; the candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Nayanika — Incorrect: Nayanika (also spelled Naganika) was the queen of Satavahana king Satakarni I — known from the Nanaghat inscription where she records her husband's military achievements; she was NOT the Lichchhavi princess who married Chandragupta I.
Option (d) Prabhavati — Incorrect: Prabhavati (Prabhavati Gupta) was the DAUGHTER of Chandragupta II (the grandson of Chandragupta I), not the wife of Chandragupta I; she married the Vakataka king Rudrasena II and later acted as regent; Kumardevi was Chandragupta I's Lichchhavi wife.

Correct Answer: E.V. Ramasamy Naicker (Periyar) — Option (a)
The Self-Respect Movement ( Swabhimaan Andolan ) was founded by E.V. Ramasamy Naicker, popularly known as 'Periyar,' in 1925. About the Self-Respect Movement: Founded by: Erode Venkatappa Ramasamy (E.V.R.) — widely known as 'Periyar' (meaning 'the great one/elder' in Tamil); Year: 1925, in Tamil Nadu; Official founding: The Self-Respect Movement ( Suyamariyathai Iyakkam in Tamil) was formally launched at a conference in Chengalpet (now Chengalpattu, Tamil Nadu); Key aims: To achieve complete social equality for people of lower castes (especially Dalits and backward classes); To challenge and overthrow Brahminical dominance in religion and society; Rationalism and atheism — rejection of God, religion, and superstition as tools of oppression; Women's rights and equality; Against the caste system and untouchability; Key features: Self-respect marriages (performed without priests or religious rituals); Rationalist approach — questioning religious texts; Social reform through education; Slogan: 'Let us get self-respect and live with dignity'; Publications: Kudi Arasu (newspaper) by Periyar; Organizational development: The movement led to the formation of the Dravidar Kazhagam (DK) in 1944; About Periyar: Born: September 17, 1879, in Erode, Tamil Nadu; Awarded UNESCO 'Socio-Cultural Personality' of Asia and Sahitya Akademi awards; Staunch rationalist, atheist, and social reformer; Died: December 24, 1973.
Option (b) Ghasidas — Incorrect: Ghasidas (1756-1836) was a social reformer and spiritual leader from Chhattisgarh who founded the Satnami movement among lower-caste communities — he did NOT start the Self-Respect Movement; E.V. Ramasamy Naicker (Periyar) founded the Self-Respect Movement in 1925 in Tamil Nadu.
Option (c) Sri Narayana Guru — Incorrect: Sri Narayana Guru (1856-1928) was a great social reformer and spiritual leader from Kerala who worked for the upliftment of the Ezhava community and fought against caste discrimination with his 'One caste, one religion, one God for humanity' philosophy — he did NOT start the Self-Respect Movement; Periyar founded that movement.
Option (d) Jyotirao Phule — Incorrect: Jyotirao Govindrao Phule (1827-1890) was a great social reformer from Maharashtra who founded the Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth-Seekers' Society) in 1873, and fought for women's education and Dalit rights — he did NOT start the Self-Respect Movement; Periyar started it in 1925. The candidate selected this incorrect option.