SSC GD 2026 27 May 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: 42nd Amendment — Option (a)
The Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. About Fundamental Duties: Added by: 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 (during the Emergency period under PM Indira Gandhi); On the recommendation of: Swaran Singh Committee (1976); Inserted as: Article 51A in Part IV-A of the Constitution; Originally: 10 Fundamental Duties were added; 11th Duty added: By the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 — relating to parents/guardians to provide opportunities for education to their children between 6-14 years; Inspired by: Soviet Constitution (USSR); The 11 Fundamental Duties (Article 51A): (a) Abide by the Constitution, respect the National Flag and National Anthem; (b) Cherish and follow noble ideals of freedom struggle; (c) Uphold and protect sovereignty, unity and integrity of India; (d) Defend the country and render national service; (e) Promote harmony and spirit of common brotherhood; (f) Value and preserve rich heritage of composite culture; (g) Protect and improve the natural environment; (h) Develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry; ( i ) Safeguard public property; (j) Strive towards excellence in individual and collective activity; (k) Provide opportunities for education to children aged 6-14 years; About other amendments: 44th Amendment (1978): Restored some provisions changed by 42nd Amendment; deleted Right to Property from Fundamental Rights (made it a legal right under Article 300A); 52nd Amendment (1985): Added 10th Schedule — Anti-defection law; 61st Amendment (1989): Reduced voting age from 21 to 18 years.
Option (b) 44th Amendment — Incorrect: The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 was enacted to restore some provisions changed by the 42nd Amendment; it deleted Right to Property from Fundamental Rights (Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31) and made it a constitutional right under Article 300A; it did NOT add Fundamental Duties — those were added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. The candidate selected the 61st Amendment (opt d) as wrong answer.
Option (c) 52nd Amendment — Incorrect: The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985 added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution — the anti-defection law that prevents elected members from switching parties; it has nothing to do with Fundamental Duties, which were added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.
Option (d) 61st Amendment — Incorrect: The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1989 reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years (by amending Article 326), making India one of the countries with the lowest voting age; it did NOT add Fundamental Duties — those were added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Remedies for enforcement of rights conferred by this Part — Option (c)
Article 32 of the Indian Constitution deals with 'Remedies for enforcement of rights conferred by this Part' — the Right to Constitutional Remedies. About Article 32: Title: Remedies for enforcement of rights conferred by this Part (Part III — Fundamental Rights); Content: Guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights; The Supreme Court can issue writs for this purpose; Called: 'Heart and Soul of the Constitution' by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar; Also described as: 'The most important article in the entire Constitution'; Why important: Without a remedy, rights become empty; Article 32 provides the enforcement mechanism for all other Fundamental Rights; The Five Writs under Article 32: Habeas Corpus ('You shall have the body'): To release a person from illegal detention; Mandamus ('We command'): To order a public official/body to perform their duty; Prohibition: Prohibits a lower court from exceeding its jurisdiction; Certiorari: To quash an order of a lower court passed without jurisdiction; Quo Warranto ('By what authority'): To challenge a person's right to hold a public office; Article 32 vs. Article 226: Article 32: Only Supreme Court, only for Fundamental Rights violations; Article 226: High Courts, for both Fundamental Rights violations AND other legal rights; Article 32 itself is a Fundamental Right and cannot be suspended except during National Emergency (Article 359).
Option (a) Validation of certain acts and regulations — Incorrect: Validation of certain acts and regulations is done under the Ninth Schedule (articles related to Constitutional Amendments) — NOT Article 32; Article 32 specifically deals with the remedies for enforcement of Fundamental Rights through writs in the Supreme Court.
Option (b) Freedom to manage religious affairs — Incorrect: Freedom to manage religious affairs is covered under Article 26 (Part III — Fundamental Rights) — NOT Article 32; Article 26 guarantees every religious denomination the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion; Article 32 is about the remedies/writs for enforcing Fundamental Rights. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Protection of interests of minorities — Incorrect: Protection of interests of minorities is covered under Article 29 and Article 30 (Part III — Fundamental Rights) — NOT Article 32; Article 29 protects the interests of minorities (right to conserve language, script, culture); Article 30 gives minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions; Article 32 specifically deals with constitutional remedies.

Correct Answer: Article 212 — Option (c)
Article 212 of the Indian Constitution is titled 'Courts not to inquire into proceedings of Legislature.' About Article 212: Title: Courts not to inquire into proceedings of Legislature; Part: Part VI (The States), Chapter III (The State Legislature); Content: No proceedings of a Legislature of a State shall be called in question in any court on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure; A member of a legislature is not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or vote given in the legislature; Significance: Protects legislative privilege — legislators can speak freely without fear of court interference; Ensures separation of powers — courts cannot review the internal proceedings of the legislature; This is the doctrine of parliamentary privilege; Parallel provision for Parliament: Article 122: Courts not to inquire into proceedings of Parliament (same concept for Parliament); Article 212 applies to State Legislatures while Article 122 applies to Parliament; About other articles: Article 208: Rules of procedure (state legislature); Article 211: Restriction on discussion in the State Legislature — no discussion of conduct of judges of Supreme Court or High Courts in the State Legislature; Article 212: Courts not to inquire into proceedings of Legislature (CORRECT ANSWER); Article 213: Power of Governor to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Legislature; About legislative privilege: Parliament/Legislatures have the privilege of freedom of speech within their premises; Court jurisdiction over legislative proceedings is excluded to maintain the independence of the legislature.
Option (a) Article 213 — Incorrect: Article 213 deals with the 'Power of the Governor to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Legislature' — it allows the Governor to issue ordinances when the State Legislature is not in session; it has nothing to do with courts inquiring into legislative proceedings. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Article 211 — Incorrect: Article 211 deals with 'Restriction on discussion in the Legislature' — specifically that no discussion shall take place in the Legislature of a State with respect to the conduct of any judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court in the discharge of their duties; it is related to restriction on discussion about judges, NOT about courts inquiring into legislative proceedings.
Option (d) Article 208 — Incorrect: Article 208 deals with 'Rules of Procedure' of the State Legislature — it relates to each House of the Legislature making rules for regulating its procedure and the conduct of its business; it is about the legislature's internal rules, NOT about courts being prohibited from inquiring into legislative proceedings.

Correct Answer: Dolphins, bats and porpoises — Option (a)
Dolphins, bats, and porpoises produce ultrasound for echolocation. About Ultrasound: Definition: Sound with frequency above 20,000 Hz (20 kHz) — beyond the upper limit of human hearing; Infrasound: Below 20 Hz; Audible sound: 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz; Animals that produce/use ultrasound: Bats ( Chiroptera ): Use echolocation (biosonar) to navigate in darkness and locate prey; Emit ultrasonic pulses (20,000 to 100,000 Hz) from their larynx or nose; Interpret echoes to detect obstacles and insects; Dolphins and Porpoises (Cetaceans): Use echolocation for navigation and hunting in water; Produce clicks and squeaks in the ultrasonic range; Dolphins can detect objects as small as a golf ball from 70 meters away; Porpoises ( शिशुमार ): A type of small cetacean (like small dolphins) — also use echolocation; Other ultrasound producers: Some whales (sperm whales), shrews, some mice and rats (for communication), some insects (for communication/defense); About echolocation: The animal emits ultrasonic pulses; The sound bounces off objects and returns as echoes; The animal interprets the time delay and frequency shifts of echoes; This gives precise information about location, size, shape, and movement of objects; Applications of ultrasound: Medical imaging (sonography/ultrasonography); Industrial testing (detecting flaws in metals); Cleaning delicate instruments; Sonar in submarines.
Option (b) Whales, elephants and giraffes — Incorrect: While some whales (like sperm whales) do produce ultrasound for echolocation, elephants and giraffes do NOT produce ultrasound; elephants actually use INFRASOUND (below 20 Hz) for long-distance communication; giraffes produce very low frequency sounds; this combination is incorrect.
Option (c) Dogs, cats and lions — Incorrect: Dogs, cats, and lions do NOT produce ultrasound for echolocation; dogs can HEAR ultrasound (up to 65,000 Hz) and cats can hear up to 79,000 Hz but they do not PRODUCE ultrasound for navigation; lions communicate through roars in the audible frequency range.
Option (d) Rhinos, moths and tigers — Incorrect: Rhinos, moths, and tigers do NOT produce ultrasound for echolocation; some moths can DETECT ultrasound emitted by hunting bats (as a defense mechanism) but they don't produce it for navigation; rhinos use infrasound; tigers roar in audible frequencies.

Correct Answer: Refraction — Option (b)
The apparent bending of a pencil partially immersed in water is due to Refraction. About Refraction: Definition: The change in direction of light as it passes from one medium to another (due to change in speed of light); Cause: Light travels at different speeds in different media; Speed of light in vacuum: 3 × 10⁸ m/s; Speed of light in water: ~2.25 × 10⁸ m/s (slower); Speed of light in glass: ~2 × 10⁸ m/s (slower); Snell's Law: n₁ sin θ₁ = n₂ sin θ₂; When light passes from water to air (denser to rarer medium): It bends away from the normal; This makes the pencil in water appear to be at a different position than it actually is; Why the pencil appears bent: Light from the underwater part of the pencil bends (refracts) as it crosses the water-air interface; Our eyes trace the light rays back in straight lines; The brain perceives the pencil as being at the position where the extended straight lines meet — which appears bent or displaced; Other examples of Refraction: A swimming pool appears shallower than it is; Stars twinkle (due to refraction in atmosphere); A glass of water acts like a lens; Rainbow formation involves refraction; Lenses in spectacles/cameras work on refraction; About other options: Reflection: Light bouncing back from a surface (mirror effect); Diffraction: Bending of light around obstacles or through small openings; Interference: Superposition of two or more light waves causing bright and dark bands.
Option (a) Reflection — Incorrect: Reflection involves light bouncing back from a surface — it does NOT cause the apparent bending of a pencil in water; reflection is what happens in mirrors; the bent pencil in water is specifically due to refraction, which changes the direction of light as it moves from water to air.
Option (c) Diffraction — Incorrect: Diffraction is the bending of light waves around obstacles or through narrow openings — it is NOT responsible for the apparent bending of a pencil in water; diffraction produces interference patterns and is observed when light passes through very small openings; the pencil-in-water effect is due to refraction.
Option (d) Interference — Incorrect: Interference occurs when two or more waves superpose to produce regions of constructive or destructive interference — it is NOT responsible for the apparent bending of a pencil in water; interference produces patterns of bright and dark bands (like in thin films or double-slit experiments); the pencil-in-water effect is due to refraction.

Correct Answer: Tyndall Effect — Option (a)
The Tyndall Effect is observed when a fine beam of light enters a room through small holes, making the light beam visible. About the Tyndall Effect: Discovered/described by: John Tyndall (1820-1893), Irish physicist; Definition: The scattering of light by colloidal particles suspended in a medium, making the path of light visible; Why it occurs: When light passes through a colloidal solution or medium with suspended particles (like dust in air), the particles scatter light in all directions; This makes the beam of light visible from the side — the beam appears as a luminous cone; Examples of Tyndall Effect: A beam of light entering a dark room through small holes — dust particles scatter the light, making the beam visible; Sunlight through clouds (crepuscular rays/God's rays); Car headlights in fog — the beam becomes visible; Light through milk or colloidal solutions in lab; Blue color of the sky is due to Rayleigh scattering (similar concept); Smoke from a chimney appearing blue in certain lighting; Tyndall vs Rayleigh Scattering: Tyndall Effect: Involves larger colloidal particles; non-selective scattering; Rayleigh Scattering: Involves very small molecules (like air molecules); selective (blue light scattered more); About other options: Brownian Motion: Random motion of colloidal particles due to collision with solvent molecules — NOT related to light beams in rooms; Diffraction: Bending of light around obstacles/through small openings — this IS related to small holes, but the visible beam in a room is primarily due to Tyndall Effect; Deposition: Sedimentation or geological deposition — has no relation to light beams.
Option (b) Brownian Motion — Incorrect: Brownian Motion is the random, erratic movement of colloidal particles (like pollen grains in water) caused by collision with solvent/medium molecules; it was discovered by Robert Brown in 1827 and explained by Einstein in 1905; it is NOT what makes a beam of light visible when entering a room through small holes — that is the Tyndall Effect.
Option (c) Diffraction — Incorrect: Diffraction refers to the bending of light (or other waves) around obstacles or through small openings; while diffraction does occur when light passes through small holes (creating diffraction patterns), the phenomenon that makes the light beam VISIBLE as a cone of light in a dusty room is the Tyndall Effect (scattering by dust particles); the candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Deposition — Incorrect: Deposition in physics/geology refers to the settling of sediment or the phase transition from gas directly to solid (like frost formation); it has absolutely no connection to the phenomenon of a light beam being visible when it enters a room through small holes; that phenomenon is the Tyndall Effect — scattering of light by colloidal/dust particles.

Correct Answer: A powerful shot taken by swinging the stick back and then quickly forward — Option (b)
A slap shot in hockey is a powerful shot executed by swinging the stick back and then quickly forward with maximum force to hit the puck/ball. About the Slap Shot: Type: Most powerful shot in ice hockey; Execution: The player winds up — swinging the stick behind (backswing); Then rapidly brings the stick forward (follow-through); The stick makes contact with the ice slightly before hitting the puck, causing the stick shaft to flex; The stored energy from stick flex is released upon contact with the puck; Result: Very high speed shot — puck speeds can exceed 160-170 km/h (100 mph) in professional ice hockey; The fastest recorded slap shots exceed 180 km/h; Key characteristics: Requires a significant windup/backswing; Uses full body rotation and weight transfer; Less accurate but most powerful; Takes more time to execute than other shots; About other types of hockey shots: Wrist Shot: Quick, accurate shot using wrist motion — no windup; more accurate than slap shot but less powerful; Snap Shot: Between wrist and slap — small backswing with quick release; Backhand Shot: Shot from the backhand side of the stick; Deflection: Redirecting a shot from a teammate; In Field Hockey context: The slap shot in field hockey is also a powerful hit using a similar backswing-forward swing motion, though the mechanics differ slightly from ice hockey due to the different stick and playing surface.
Option (a) A shot taken with an open hand — Incorrect: Hockey (both ice and field) does NOT involve shots taken with open hands — the player always uses a stick; the stick is the only implement used to hit the puck (ice hockey) or ball (field hockey); a 'slap shot' specifically refers to a powerful stick shot with a full backswing.
Option (c) A quick shot taken from the wrist — Incorrect: A shot taken quickly from the wrist is called a 'wrist shot' in hockey — NOT a slap shot; the wrist shot is characterized by its quick release with minimal backswing, using wrist rotation for power; the slap shot, in contrast, requires a full backswing and generates much more power.
Option (d) A shot taken from a short distance — Incorrect: The distance from the goal does NOT define a slap shot; a slap shot can be taken from various distances; what defines a slap shot is its technique — a full backswing with the stick followed by a powerful forward swing — not the proximity to the goal.

Correct Answer: Bharatanatyam — Option (d)
Bharatanatyam is the classical dance form that originated in Tamil Nadu. About Bharatanatyam: Origin: Tamil Nadu (specifically from the temple traditions of Tamil Nadu); One of the oldest classical dance forms in India (2,000+ years old); Originally called: Sadir, Dasiattam (performed by devadasis in temples); Renamed: 'Bharatanatyam' by Rukmini Devi Arundale in the 1930s; Name meaning: Bha ( bhavam /expression) + Ra (ragam/melody) + Ta ( talam /rhythm) + Natyam (dance); Alternatively: Named after Sage Bharata (who wrote the Natyashastra); Governed by: Natyashastra by Sage Bharata; Style: Involves Nritta (pure dance), Nritya (expressive dance), and Natya (drama); Characterized by: Bent knees ( aramandi position), intricate footwork, expressive hand gestures (mudras), facial expressions (abhinaya); Key elements: Alarippu (invocation), Jatiswaram , Shabdam , Varnam, Padam, Tillana ; Costumes: Bright silk sari, elaborate jewelry, ankle bells ( ghungroo ); Important personalities: Rukmini Devi Arundale (revived and popularized the art form), Balasaraswati, Padma Subrahmanyam; About other options: Thiruvathirakali : A folk dance of Kerala (NOT Tamil Nadu); performed mainly by women during Thiruvathira festival (dedicated to Lord Shiva); Bagurumba : A folk dance of the Bodo tribe of Assam (NOT Tamil Nadu); Veeranatya : Not a major recognized classical dance form.
Option (a) Thiruvathirakali — Incorrect: Thiruvathirakali is a folk dance of Kerala — NOT Tamil Nadu; it is performed by women during the Thiruvathira festival (associated with the Dhanu month and Lord Shiva); Thiruvathira in Malayalam tradition is connected to the day believed to be the birthday of Lord Shiva; it is NOT a classical dance form and NOT from Tamil Nadu.
Option (b) Bagurumba — Incorrect: Bagurumba is a traditional folk dance of the Bodo tribe from Assam in northeastern India — NOT Tamil Nadu; it is also called the 'Butterfly dance' because the costumes resemble butterfly wings; it is performed during the Bwisagu festival (Bodo New Year); it is NOT from Tamil Nadu.
Option (c) Veeranatya — Incorrect: Veeranatya (also called Veeranatam ) is NOT a major classical dance form; Tamil Nadu's recognized classical dance form is Bharatanatyam; the question asks about the classical dance style originating in Tamil Nadu, and the correct answer is clearly Bharatanatyam.

Correct Answer: Nagaland — Option (c)
The traditional dances ' Secha ' and 'Kukui Kucho' are associated with Nagaland. About Secha and Kukui Kucho: These are traditional folk dances of the Naga tribes of Nagaland; Secha : A traditional warrior dance associated with Nagaland; performed during festivals and celebrations; Kukui Kucho: Another traditional folk dance of Nagaland; Both are performed during major festivals, particularly during the Hornbill Festival; Nagaland's folk dances reflect the warrior culture and tribal traditions of the Naga people; About Nagaland's cultural traditions: Nagaland is known as 'Land of Festivals'; Major festival: Hornbill Festival (December 1-10 each year) — showcases all Naga tribal dances, music, and culture; The 16 major Naga tribes each have their own distinct dance traditions; Other Nagaland folk dances: War Dance, Bamboo Dance, Changki Dance, Zeliang Dance; About folk dances of other states: Puducherry: Bharatanatyam (classical), Kolattam (folk), Pinnal Kolattam ; Haryana: Phag , Saang , Jhumar, Dhamal , Loor; Tamil Nadu: Bharatanatyam (classical), Kolattam , Karagattam , Therukoothu ; The Secha and Kukui Kucho are distinctly Nagaland dances.
Option (a) Puducherry — Incorrect: Puducherry's traditional dances include Bharatanatyam, Kolattam , and other forms influenced by Tamil culture; ' Secha ' and 'Kukui Kucho' are NOT folk dances of Puducherry; these are traditional Naga tribal dances from Nagaland in northeastern India.
Option (b) Haryana — Incorrect: Haryana's traditional dances include Phag , Saang , Jhumar, Dhamal , and Loor; ' Secha ' and 'Kukui Kucho' are NOT folk dances of Haryana; these are distinctly Naga tribal folk dances from Nagaland and have no connection with Haryana's cultural traditions.
Option (d) Tamil Nadu — Incorrect: Tamil Nadu is famous for Bharatanatyam (classical) and folk dances like Kolattam , Karagattam , Therukoothu , and Kummi ; ' Secha ' and 'Kukui Kucho' are NOT Tamil Nadu dances; these are traditional folk dances of the Naga tribes of Nagaland in northeastern India.

Correct Answer: Ministry of Earth Sciences — Option (b)
NCMRWF is under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, Government of India. About NCMRWF: Full form: National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting; Ministry: Ministry of Earth Sciences ( MoES ), Government of India; Established: 1988; Headquarters: Noida, Uttar Pradesh; Mission: To develop and provide medium range weather forecasts (3-10 days ahead) for India; Key functions: Numerical Weather Prediction (NWP) — using mathematical models to forecast weather; Assimilation of satellite data, radiosonde data, and other observations; Development of forecasting models for India; Providing weather forecasts to agriculture, aviation, disaster management; About Ministry of Earth Sciences ( MoES ): Nodal ministry for: Weather forecasting, climate science, seismology, oceanography, polar sciences; Organizations under MoES : IMD (India Meteorological Department) — weather forecasting; NCMRWF — medium range weather forecasting; IITM (Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology), Pune — climate research; NIO (National Institute of Oceanography), Goa; INCOIS (Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services), Hyderabad; NIOT (National Institute of Ocean Technology), Chennai; ESSO (Earth System Science Organisation ); About medium range weather forecasting: Short range: Up to 3 days; Medium range: 3-10 days; Extended range: 10-30 days; Long range (seasonal): 1-6 months; NCMRWF specializes in medium range forecasting.
Option (a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change — Incorrect: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change ( MoEFCC ) deals with environmental protection, forest management, wildlife conservation, and climate change policies — it does NOT oversee NCMRWF; weather forecasting organizations (including NCMRWF) fall under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Ministry of Cooperation — Incorrect: The Ministry of Cooperation was created in July 2021 to strengthen the cooperative movement in India — it oversees cooperative societies, IFFCO, KRIBHCO, etc.; it has absolutely no connection to NCMRWF (National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting), which is under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Option (d) Ministry of Education — Incorrect: The Ministry of Education oversees India's educational institutions, universities, IITs, and educational policy; it has no connection to NCMRWF; the National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting is a scientific research organization under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, not the Ministry of Education.

Correct Answer: Cymbals — Option (a)
Silyen (Sil-Yen) and Bubzal are traditional cymbal instruments used in Ladakh. About Silyen and Bubzal : Silyen : Traditional cymbals used in Ladakhi Buddhist music and ceremonies; They produce a crashing, ringing sound when struck together; Used in Buddhist monasteries (gompas) during rituals and prayers; Bubzal : Another form of cymbals used in Ladakhi traditional music; Both instruments are percussion instruments of the cymbal family; Cultural context in Ladakh: Ladakh has a rich tradition of Buddhist music; Musical instruments in Ladakh's Buddhist ceremonies include: Dungchen (long horns/trumpets), Gyaling (oboe-like wind instrument), Rnga / Damaru (drums), Rol- mo / Silyen (cymbals), Drilbu (hand bell), Kangling (thigh-bone trumpet); The cymbals ( rol-mo , sil -yen) are essential in Buddhist ceremonies, monastery festivals (cham dance), and traditional performances like Losar (Ladakhi New Year) and Hemis Festival; About cymbals: Cymbals ( झांझ ) are percussion instruments — two circular metal plates struck together; Produce a resonant, crashing sound; Used in orchestras, bands, and religious ceremonies worldwide; In Indian classical music, similar instruments include Manjira (small cymbals) and Jhanja ; About Hornbill Festival vs Ladakh: Unlike Nagaland's Hornbill Festival, Ladakh's major cultural festivals include Hemis Festival and Ladakh Festival where these instruments are prominently used.
Option (b) Drum — Incorrect: Silyen and Bubzal are NOT drums; they are cymbals ( झांझ ) — circular metal plates struck together; drums used in Ladakhi tradition include the Rnga or Damaru ; while drums are also part of Ladakhi musical tradition, Silyen and Bubzal specifically refer to cymbal instruments.
Option (c) Flute — Incorrect: Silyen and Bubzal are NOT flutes; they are cymbals — percussion instruments made of metal plates; wind instruments (flute-type) in Ladakhi tradition include the Gyaling (a double-reed wind instrument similar to an oboe); Silyen and Bubzal produce sound through the percussion of metal plates, making them cymbals.
Option (d) Bell — Incorrect: Silyen and Bubzal are NOT bells; bells (called Drilbu in Tibetan Buddhist tradition) are single instruments shaken or rung; cymbals ( Silyen / Bubzal ) are a pair of metal discs struck together; while both are percussion instruments used in Buddhist ceremonies in Ladakh, they are distinctly different — Silyen / Bubzal are cymbals, not bells.

Correct Answer: Europa Clipper — Option (b)
NASA's Europa Clipper mission is designed to explore Jupiter's moon Europa. About Europa Clipper: Mission: Europa Clipper; Agency: NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration); Launch: October 14, 2024 (launched aboard SpaceX Falcon Heavy rocket); Destination: Europa — one of Jupiter's largest moons; Arrival at Jupiter system: Expected in April 2030; Mission objectives: Investigate whether Europa's subsurface ocean could support life; Study Europa's ice shell, geology, and composition; Determine the depth and salinity of the subsurface ocean; Map potential landing sites for future missions; About Europa (Jupiter's moon): 6th largest moon in the Solar System; Has a global ocean of liquid water beneath its icy surface; The ice shell is estimated to be 10-30 km thick; The subsurface ocean may have more water than all of Earth's oceans combined; Considered one of the most promising places in the Solar System to search for extraterrestrial life; Europa gets energy from tidal heating (due to gravitational interaction with Jupiter); About other options: Europa Orbiter: Not an active NASA mission; Europa Clipper flies by Europa repeatedly (not an orbiter of Europa specifically — it orbits Jupiter and makes flybys); Galileo-2: Not a real mission; the original Galileo mission (1989-2003) explored Jupiter and its moons; JUICE: ESA's (European Space Agency) mission — Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer; launched April 2023; will study Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto; JUICE is NOT NASA's mission — it is ESA's.
Option (a) Europa Orbiter — Incorrect: 'Europa Orbiter' was a proposed concept mission that was never launched; the actual NASA mission to explore Europa is called 'Europa Clipper' (launched October 2024); Europa Clipper does not orbit Europa directly but performs multiple flybys while orbiting Jupiter.
Option (c) Galileo-2 — Incorrect: 'Galileo-2' is not a real NASA mission; the original NASA Galileo mission (1989-2003) explored Jupiter and its moons (including Europa) and was the first spacecraft to orbit Jupiter; the mission to explore Europa is Europa Clipper; there is no 'Galileo-2' mission. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) JUICE — Incorrect: JUICE (Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer) is the European Space Agency's (ESA's) mission to explore Jupiter's icy moons (Europa, Ganymede, Callisto) — NOT NASA's mission; JUICE was launched in April 2023 and will arrive at Jupiter in 2031; the NASA mission for Europa exploration is the Europa Clipper.

Correct Answer: Free kick — Option (d)
A 'Free kick' (free hit) is NOT a direct way to score a goal in field hockey. About Scoring in Field Hockey: Ways to score a goal in field hockey: Field Goal: A goal scored during open play when the ball is hit from within the striking circle; the ball must be within the circle when struck; Penalty Corner (Short Corner): Awarded when a defender commits a foul inside the 23m area or when a defender intentionally plays the ball over the backline; A player hits the ball from the backline (at a point at least 10m from the goal post); Team members set up outside the circle and execute a structured play to score; Penalty Stroke: Awarded when a defender commits an intentional foul inside the circle that denies a goal-scoring opportunity; A one-on-one between the striker and goalkeeper (similar to a penalty kick in football); Taken 6.4 meters from the goal; About Free Hit/Free Kick: Free Hit is awarded to a team when the opponent commits a foul outside the striking circle; A free hit taken outside the striking circle CANNOT result in a direct goal — the ball must travel outside the circle and be re-entered for a goal to be scored; Free hits near the circle have additional restrictions (ball must travel 5 meters before another player touches it); Since a free kick CANNOT directly result in a goal, it is NOT classified as a method of scoring a goal; A direct shot from outside the circle into the goal from a free hit does NOT count as a goal in field hockey.
Option (a) Field goal — Incorrect as an answer (Field goal IS a way to score): A field goal in hockey is scored during open play when a player hits or deflects the ball into the goal from within the striking circle; it is one of the primary and most common ways to score in field hockey; it is definitely a valid method of scoring.
Option (b) Penalty corner — Incorrect as an answer (Penalty corner IS a way to score): A penalty corner (short corner) is a frequently used set-piece in field hockey for scoring goals; a penalty corner allows a structured attack — the ball is hit from the backline, stopped at the top of the circle, and then shot at goal; it is one of the most effective ways to score in field hockey.
Option (c) Penalty stroke — Incorrect as an answer (Penalty stroke IS a way to score): A penalty stroke is a direct shot at goal from 6.4 meters awarded for specific severe fouls inside the circle; it is a one-on-one with the goalkeeper; it IS a valid way to score a goal in field hockey.

Correct Answer: Fourth — Option (d)
The Khelo India Winter Games 2024 was the 4th (Fourth) edition of the annual Khelo India Winter Games. About Khelo India Winter Games: Organized by: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India; Purpose: To promote winter sports and identify talent in snow and ice sports; Editions of Khelo India Winter Games: 1st Edition (2020): Held at Gulmarg, Jammu and Kashmir; Sports: Skiing and ice sports; 2nd Edition (2021): Held at Gulmarg, Jammu and Kashmir; 3rd Edition (2023): Held at Gulmarg and Leh, Ladakh (expanded to Ladakh); 4th Edition (2024): Held at Leh (Ladakh) and Gulmarg (J&K); Expanded scope with more winter sports; So the Khelo India Winter Games 2024 = 4th Edition; About Khelo India Programme : Launched: 2018 by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports; Objectives: Revive sports culture at grassroots level, identify and train sporting talent, provide financial support to athletes; Khelo India Games series: Khelo India School Games (2018), Khelo India Youth Games, Khelo India University Games, Khelo India Winter Games; Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG): Different from Winter Games — held annually for youth athletes; 2024 edition was KIYG 2024; Khelo India University Games (KIUG): For university-level athletes; Winter Games sports: Alpine Skiing, Cross Country Skiing, Ice Hockey, Ice Skating, Snowboard, Ski Mountaineering etc.
Option (a) First — Incorrect: The Khelo India Winter Games 2024 was NOT the 1st edition; the first edition was held in 2020 at Gulmarg, J&K; by 2024, the Khelo India Winter Games had already completed three previous editions (2020, 2021, and 2023), making 2024 the 4th edition.
Option (b) Second — Incorrect: The Khelo India Winter Games 2024 was NOT the 2nd edition; the second edition was held in 2021 at Gulmarg, J&K; the 2024 games was the 4th edition, following three previous editions in 2020, 2021, and 2023.
Option (c) Third — Incorrect: The Khelo India Winter Games 2024 was NOT the 3rd edition; the third edition was held in 2023 at Gulmarg and Leh (Ladakh); the 2024 games at Leh (Ladakh) and Gulmarg was the 4th edition of the Khelo India Winter Games.

Correct Answer: Persian ruler Shah Tahmasp — Option (c)
The Persian (Safavid) ruler Shah Tahmasp helped Humayun regain the Mughal throne after his exile. About Humayun's Exile and Return: Humayun (1508-1556): Second Mughal emperor; Son of Babur; Humayun's defeat: Defeated by Sher Shah Suri at the Battle of Chausa (1539) and Battle of Kanauj /Bilgram (1540); Forced into exile — wandered through Sindh, Rajputana, and finally fled to Persia (Iran/Safavid Empire); In exile (1540-1555): Spent years in the Safavid court of Shah Tahmasp I; Shah Tahmasp's support: The Safavid ruler Shah Tahmasp (also written Tahmasb ) gave asylum to Humayun; Provided him a Persian army of approximately 12,000 soldiers; Condition: Humayun had to convert (or nominally convert) to Shia Islam from Sunni — this was a diplomatic gesture; Humayun's return: With Persian military support, Humayun recaptured Kabul (1545) and Kandahar; In 1555, he defeated the Sur rulers (successors of Sher Shah Suri) and recaptured Delhi; Restored Mughal rule in India in 1555; Humayun died in 1556 (fell from stairs in his library); His son Akbar became the next emperor; Significance: Persian influence became strong in the Mughal court (art, architecture, literature, language); Persian language became the court language of the Mughals.
Option (a) Bahadur Shah of Gujarat — Incorrect: Bahadur Shah of Gujarat was actually a rival/enemy — he was the Sultan of Gujarat who battled with Humayun in the 1530s; Humayun defeated Bahadur Shah in 1535 and captured Champaner ; Bahadur Shah did NOT help Humayun return from exile — that help came from the Persian ruler Shah Tahmasp. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Sher Shah Suri — Incorrect: Sher Shah Suri was the very person who DEFEATED Humayun and sent him into exile; he was Humayun's main adversary, NOT his helper; Sher Shah Suri established the Sur dynasty (1540-1555) after defeating Humayun; it would be contradictory for Sher Shah Suri to help Humayun regain the throne he had taken from him.
Option (d) Rana Sanga — Incorrect: Rana Sanga (Rana Sangram Singh) of Mewar was a contemporary of Babur (Humayun's father), NOT Humayun; Rana Sanga was defeated by Babur at the Battle of Khanwa (1527); Rana Sanga died in 1528 — well before Humayun's exile from 1540 onwards; he could not have helped Humayun regain the throne.

Correct Answer: Kandla — Option (b)
India's first Export Processing Zone (EPZ) was established at Kandla, Gujarat in 1965. About India's Export Processing Zones (EPZ) and SEZs: First EPZ: Kandla EPZ (KEPZ) — established in 1965 in Kandla, Gujarat; Kandla EPZ was the first EPZ in Asia; Later renamed as: Kandla Special Economic Zone (KASEZ); About EPZs: Export Processing Zones are industrial estates where goods are manufactured for export under favourable conditions (duty-free imports of raw materials, simplified procedures); They were precursors to SEZs (Special Economic Zones); All EPZs in India (established before SEZ Act 2005): Kandla EPZ (Gujarat) — 1965; Santa Cruz Electronics Export Processing Zone (SEEPZ), Mumbai — 1973; Falta EPZ, West Bengal — 1984; Madras EPZ, Tamil Nadu — 1984; Noida EPZ, Uttar Pradesh — 1985; Cochin EPZ, Kerala — 1984; Visakhapatnam EPZ, Andhra Pradesh — 1989; SEZ Act, 2005: Replaced EPZs with SEZs (Special Economic Zones); SEZs offer more incentives including tax exemptions for up to 15 years; About Kandla Port/DEENDAYAL Port: Kandla Port (now Deendayal Port) is in the Kutch district of Gujarat; One of India's major ports; India's first SEZ was established here in 1965 (as EPZ); Kandla was also the first planned port developed after independence.
Option (a) Paradip — Incorrect: Paradip (in Odisha) is a major port city but India's first EPZ was NOT established there; Paradip is known for its petroleum refinery and iron ore handling; the first EPZ was at Kandla, Gujarat in 1965.
Option (c) Mundra — Incorrect: Mundra (in Gujarat) is home to the Adani Group's private port (India's largest commercial port by volume) but India's first EPZ was NOT at Mundra; Mundra Port was developed much later in the private sector era; the first EPZ was at Kandla, Gujarat in 1965.
Option (d) Haldia — Incorrect: Haldia (in West Bengal) is a major port and industrial city but India's first EPZ was NOT established there; Haldia became an industrial hub later; the first EPZ was at Kandla, Gujarat in 1965; West Bengal's EPZ (Falta EPZ) was established in 1984.

Correct Answer: Ministry of Law and Justice — Option (c)
The Mahila Arogyam Kaksham (Women's Health Room) was inaugurated in July 2025 under the Ministry of Law and Justice. About Mahila Arogyam Kaksham : Mahila Arogyam Kaksham translates to 'Women's Health Room/Chamber'; It is a dedicated health facility/room for women working in or visiting court complexes; Inaugurated in: July 2025; Associated Ministry: Ministry of Law and Justice; Purpose: To provide basic health facilities and a comfortable resting space for women judges, lawyers, court staff, and litigants in court premises; This initiative aims to improve the working conditions for women in the judicial system; Significance: Women in the judiciary and court premises often lack adequate facilities; This initiative provides dedicated health rooms in district courts and high courts; About Ministry of Law and Justice: The Ministry of Law and Justice is one of the oldest ministries of the Government of India; It has three departments: Department of Legal Affairs; Legislative Department; Department of Justice; It handles: Judicial appointments and court administration; Legal reforms; Drafting of legislation; Constitutional matters; About related ministries: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare: Manages healthcare system, AIIMS, CGHS etc.; Ministry of Women and Child Development: Handles schemes like Beti Bachao Beti Padhao, POSHAN Abhiyaan, etc.; The Mahila Arogyam Kaksham is specifically under the Law Ministry as it serves women in the judicial/court system.
Option (a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare — Incorrect: While health-related facilities might seem to fall under this ministry, the Mahila Arogyam Kaksham was specifically inaugurated under the Ministry of Law and Justice as it serves women in court premises; the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare manages hospitals, AIIMS, and national health programs, but not this specific court-based initiative.
Option (b) Ministry of Women and Child Development — Incorrect: The Ministry of Women and Child Development handles programs like Beti Bachao Beti Padhao, One Stop Centres , and child welfare schemes; the Mahila Arogyam Kaksham was inaugurated under the Ministry of Law and Justice as a facility for women in court complexes, NOT under the Women and Child Development Ministry. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Ministry of Home Affairs — Incorrect: The Ministry of Home Affairs manages internal security, police forces, border management, and centre -state relations; it has no connection to the Mahila Arogyam Kaksham, which is a women's health facility in court complexes inaugurated under the Ministry of Law and Justice.

Correct Answer: 64.4% — Option (a)
According to the Global Gender Gap Index 2025, India's score increased from 64.1% in 2024 to 64.4% in 2025. About India's Global Gender Gap Index 2025 performance: India's score: Increased from 64.1% (2024) to 64.4% (2025); India's global rank: India ranked 131st in the Global Gender Gap Index 2025 (out of 156 countries); India's rank in South Asia: Not the highest — Bangladesh tops South Asia; About Global Gender Gap Index 2025: Published by: World Economic Forum (WEF); Four dimensions measured: Economic Participation and Opportunity, Educational Attainment, Health and Survival, Political Empowerment; Global topper: Iceland (has topped the list for 15+ consecutive years); Top countries globally (2025): Iceland, Finland, Norway, New Zealand, Sweden etc.; South Asia: Bangladesh is the top South Asian country; India's performance by dimension: Economic Participation and Opportunity: India shows improvement in women's economic participation; Educational Attainment: India has near parity in primary and secondary education; Health and Survival: India scores lower due to sex ratio imbalance; Political Empowerment: India scores well due to female political leadership; Historical context: India's Gender Gap score has been gradually improving over the years; The 2025 increase from 64.1% to 64.4% represents a marginal improvement; India's overall position reflects challenges in economic empowerment and health dimensions for women.
Option (b) 69.2% — Incorrect: India's score in the Global Gender Gap Index 2025 was 64.4% — NOT 69.2%; 69.2% would represent a jump of 5.1 percentage points from 64.1%, which is a very large improvement; India's actual improvement was marginal — from 64.1% to 64.4%.
Option (c) 66.4% — Incorrect: India's score in the Global Gender Gap Index 2025 was 64.4% — NOT 66.4%; 66.4% would represent a jump of 2.3 percentage points from 64.1%, which is larger than the actual improvement; the actual score of 64.4% reflects a marginal increase from the 2024 score.
Option (d) 67.1% — Incorrect: India's score in the Global Gender Gap Index 2025 was 64.4% — NOT 67.1%; the candidate selected this wrong option; 67.1% would represent a jump of 3 percentage points from 64.1%, significantly overestimating India's actual performance improvement in the 2025 Global Gender Gap Index.

Correct Answer: Loess deposits are not found in China — Option (c)
The statement 'Loess deposits are not found in China' is INCORRECT (FALSE) — China actually has some of the world's largest and thickest loess deposits. About Loess and China: Loess: Fine-grained, wind-blown sediment (primarily silt); Colour : Yellowish (due to iron oxide minerals); Formation: Deposited by wind over thousands of years; China's Loess Plateau ( Huangtu Plateau): Located in north-central China (covering parts of Shaanxi, Shanxi, Gansu, Ningxia, Henan and other provinces); One of the world's largest loess deposits; Up to 300 meters thick in some places; Covers an area of about 640,000 sq km; The Yellow River (Huang He) flows through this plateau — the river gets its yellow colour from loess sediment; The Loess Plateau is one of the most extensively studied loess regions in the world; So the statement 'Loess deposits are NOT found in China' is completely FALSE — making option (c) the correct answer to 'which is NOT correct'; About other options (all TRUE): Option (a) — Wind IS an active factor of erosion and deposition in desert areas — TRUE; Wind erosion creates features like deflation hollows, yardangs, mushroom rocks; Wind deposition creates loess, sand dunes, bajada; Option (b) — Mushroom rock (Gara/ छत्रक शैल ): Base is narrow (wind erosion is stronger near the ground where sand grains are heavier); Top is wider (less abrasion at higher levels) — TRUE; Option (d) — Sand dunes ARE examples of wind deposition in deserts — TRUE.
Option (a) Wind is an active factor of erosion and deposition in desert areas — Incorrect as an answer (this statement is TRUE): Wind is indeed a very active agent of erosion AND deposition in desert/arid areas; wind erosion creates deflation hollows, yardangs, and mushroom rocks; wind deposition creates loess, sand dunes, and other aeolian features; this statement is correct and therefore NOT the answer to 'which is NOT correct.' The candidate selected this (RED = wrong selection).
Option (b) The base of a mushroom rock is narrow and the top is wide — Incorrect as an answer (this statement is TRUE): Mushroom rocks (also called Gara or pedestal rocks) have a narrow base and wide top because wind erosion is stronger near the ground (coarse, heavy sand grains travel close to the ground) causing more abrasion at the base; upper parts experience less abrasion giving the mushroom-like shape; this is TRUE and NOT the answer.
Option (d) Sand dunes are examples of the work of wind in desert areas — Incorrect as an answer (this statement is TRUE): Sand dunes ( बालू टिब्बा ) are classic examples of wind deposition in desert environments; they form when wind loses velocity and deposits the sand it was carrying; types include barchan dunes, seif dunes, star dunes, and transverse dunes; this statement is TRUE and NOT the answer.