SSC GD 2026 27 May 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: 8 — Option (b)
The Indian Constitution originally had 8 Schedules when it was adopted on November 26, 1949 and came into effect on January 26, 1950. About the Schedules of the Indian Constitution: Original 8 Schedules (1950): First Schedule: Names of States and Union Territories; Second Schedule: Salaries, allowances and pensions of constitutional functionaries; Third Schedule: Oaths and affirmations; Fourth Schedule: Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha; Fifth Schedule: Administration of Scheduled Areas; Sixth Schedule: Administration of Tribal Areas in NE states; Seventh Schedule: Distribution of powers (Union List, State List, Concurrent List); Eighth Schedule: Languages recognized by the Constitution (originally 14 languages); Subsequent additions: Ninth Schedule: Added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment, 1951 — protects laws from judicial review; Tenth Schedule: Added by the 52nd Amendment, 1985 — Anti-defection law; Eleventh Schedule: Added by the 73rd Amendment, 1992 — Powers of Panchayati Raj; Twelfth Schedule: Added by the 74th Amendment, 1992 — Powers of Urban Local Bodies; Current total: 12 Schedules; About the Eighth Schedule: Originally had 14 languages; Currently has 22 languages (after several additions through amendments); Languages: Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani (added 1992), Malayalam, Manipuri (added 1992), Marathi, Nepali (added 1992), Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi (added 1967), Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Bodo (added 2003), Dogri (added 2003), Maithili (added 2003), Santhali (added 2003).
Option (a) 7 — Incorrect: The Indian Constitution did NOT originally have 7 Schedules; it had 8 Schedules when adopted in 1949; no version of the Constitution had only 7 schedules.
Option (c) 10 — Incorrect: The Constitution originally had 8 Schedules — NOT 10; the 9th Schedule was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) and the 10th by the 52nd Amendment (1985); so 10 schedules came much later.
Option (d) 12 — Incorrect: The Constitution currently has 12 Schedules, but this is after later amendments; originally (at adoption in 1950), there were only 8 Schedules; the 11th and 12th Schedules were added by the 73rd and 74th Amendments respectively in 1992.

Correct Answer: All of the above — Option (d)
The 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 added FOUR languages to the Eighth Schedule: Maithili, Bodo, Dogri, and Santhali . About the 92nd Constitutional Amendment, 2003: Passed in: December 2003; Came into force: January 7, 2004; Provisions: Added four new languages to the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution; The four languages added: Bodo: Spoken primarily in Assam and Northeast India; has its own script (Devanagari variant); Dogri: Spoken primarily in Jammu and Himachal Pradesh; Maithili: Spoken primarily in Bihar and Nepal; it is a major language of the Maithil Brahmins; Santhali : Spoken by the Santhal tribal community in Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, and Bihar; written in Ol Chiki script; Effect: The Eighth Schedule went from 18 languages to 22 languages after this amendment; Previous additions to the 8th Schedule: Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment (1967) — bringing total to 15; Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali were added by the 71st Amendment (1992) — bringing total to 18; The 92nd Amendment (2003) added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali — bringing total to 22; Since all three options (Maithili, Bodo, Santhali ) in the question were added by the 92nd Amendment (along with Dogri), 'All of the above' is the correct answer.
Option (a) Maithili only — Incorrect: While Maithili was indeed added by the 92nd Amendment 2003, Bodo and Santhali were ALSO added by the same amendment; selecting only Maithili misses the other two languages mentioned in the options.
Option (b) Bodo only — Incorrect: While Bodo was indeed added by the 92nd Amendment 2003, Maithili and Santhali were ALSO added by the same amendment; selecting only Bodo misses the other two languages.
Option (c) Santhali only — Incorrect: While Santhali was indeed added by the 92nd Amendment 2003, Maithili and Bodo were ALSO added by the same amendment; all three languages (plus Dogri) were added together by the 92nd Amendment, making 'All of the above' the correct answer.

Correct Answer: Weddings and harvest festivals — Option (a)
Giddha is traditionally performed at weddings and harvest festivals (and other celebratory occasions) — NOT exclusively at religious ceremonies. About Giddha : Type: Folk dance of Punjab (and Haryana); Performers: Women ( Giddha is the female counterpart of Bhangra); Origin: Punjab, India; Occasions: Weddings (Shaadi ceremonies), Harvest festivals (especially Vaisakhi, Teej , Teeyan ), Village fairs (Melas), Celebratory gatherings, Social functions; Characteristics: Women form a circle and clap rhythmically; The dancers take turns performing in the center; Accompanied by the dhol (drum) and dholak; Involves the singing of Boliyaan (short witty couplets/verses) by the women; Features vigorous jumping, clapping, and expressive movements; Women wear bright traditional Punjabi attire — Salwar Kameez, Dupatta, with colorful jewelry; Boliyaan : Short witty two-liners sung during Giddha — they express emotions, humor, gossip, joys, and sorrows of women; Themes: Love, seasons, longing for husband/family, social commentary; Significance: Giddha is NOT a classical dance — it is a folk/social dance performed spontaneously at social occasions; It is NOT restricted to religious ceremonies — it is primarily a celebratory/social dance; Giddha vs Bhangra: Giddha is the female form; Bhangra is the male form; Both are performed at harvest festivals and celebrations.
Option (b) Only religious ceremonies — Incorrect: Giddha is NOT performed exclusively at religious ceremonies — it is primarily a social folk dance performed at weddings, harvest festivals (especially Vaisakhi), and other celebratory occasions; while it may sometimes appear at festivals with religious elements, it is fundamentally a social/celebratory folk dance. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Political gatherings — Incorrect: Giddha is a traditional folk dance for social celebrations — it has no association with political gatherings; it is performed at weddings, harvest festivals, and community celebrations.
Option (d) Classical dance competitions — Incorrect: Giddha is a FOLK dance — NOT a classical dance; it is not typically performed in classical dance competitions; classical dance competitions feature Bharatanatyam, Kathak, Kuchipudi, etc.; Giddha is performed spontaneously at social occasions like weddings and Vaisakhi festivals.

Correct Answer: The Indian Revolt of 1857 — Option (b)
'The Last Mughal' by William Dalrymple is about Bahadur Shah Zafar (the last Mughal emperor) and the Indian Revolt of 1857. About the Book 'The Last Mughal': Author: William Dalrymple (British-Indian historian); Published: 2006; Subject: The Indian Revolt (Mutiny/Uprising) of 1857 and the fall of the Mughal Empire; Central figure: Bahadur Shah Zafar II — the last Mughal emperor (reigned 1837-1857); Content of the book: The book describes the 1857 Indian Revolt (also called the First War of Indian Independence or Sepoy Mutiny); It focuses on Delhi during the revolt — the rebellious sepoys marched to Delhi and declared Bahadur Shah Zafar their leader; The siege of Delhi by the British (June-September 1857); The fall of Delhi to British forces; The trial and exile of Bahadur Shah Zafar to Rangoon (Yangon), Burma; Bahadur Shah Zafar died in exile in Rangoon in 1862; The book is based on extensive archival research including Urdu and Persian documents from the 1857 period; About Bahadur Shah Zafar: A poet and calligrapher as much as a ruler; His poetry is still widely read; His famous verses about longing for his homeland (written in exile) are very touching; About William Dalrymple's other works: 'City of Djinns' (about Delhi), 'White Mughals,' 'Return of a King' (about British invasion of Afghanistan), 'The Anarchy' (about the East India Company), ' Koh-i-Noor ' (co-authored with Anita Anand).
Option (a) The Partition of India — Incorrect: The Partition of India (1947) is described in other books — not 'The Last Mughal'; William Dalrymple's 'The Last Mughal' specifically covers the Indian Revolt of 1857 and the fate of the last Mughal emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar.
Option (c) The formation of the Indian National Congress — Incorrect: The formation of the Indian National Congress (1885) is NOT the subject of 'The Last Mughal'; Dalrymple's book focuses on the 1857 revolt and Bahadur Shah Zafar; the INC formation came almost 30 years after the events described in the book.
Option (d) The Indian Independence Movement — Incorrect: While the 1857 revolt is sometimes called the First War of Independence, 'The Last Mughal' specifically deals with the events of 1857 and Bahadur Shah Zafar's fate — NOT the broader Indian Independence Movement (1885-1947) which culminated in independence in 1947.

Correct Answer: 40 minutes (two halves of 20 minutes) with 5-minute break — Option (b)
The official match duration for senior level men's kabaddi is 40 minutes — two halves of 20 minutes each — with a 5-minute half-time break. About Kabaddi Match Duration: Senior Men's Kabaddi: 40 minutes total (2 halves × 20 minutes) + 5-minute break at half-time; Senior Women's Kabaddi: 30 minutes total (2 halves × 15 minutes) + 5-minute break; Junior Boys (under 18): 30 minutes total (2 halves × 15 minutes) + 5-minute break; Junior Girls (under 18): 30 minutes total (2 halves × 15 minutes) + 5-minute break; Sub-junior (under 14 — Boys & Girls): 20 minutes total (2 halves × 10 minutes) + 5-minute break; Master (above 40 — Men): 40 minutes total (2 halves × 20 minutes); About kabaddi match structure: Teams: 12 players per team, 7 on court, 5 substitutes; Raider: Crosses into opponent's half, touches defenders, returns to own half while chanting 'kabaddi kabaddi '; Defender: Stops the raider from returning; Bonus line: Crossing the bonus line gives a bonus point; Lobby: The side areas that become active when a raider touches a defender; Super Tackle: When 3 or fewer defenders tackle the raider successfully; Extra Time: If the match is tied, an extra period may be played (5 min in Pro Kabaddi League); About Asian Kabaddi Federation: Governs kabaddi in Asia; The Asian Games include kabaddi since 1990 (men) and 2010 (women); India's dominant record: Won gold in almost all Asian Games kabaddi editions.
Option (a) 30 minutes (two halves of 15 minutes) — Incorrect: 30 minutes with 15-minute halves is the duration for WOMEN's senior kabaddi and JUNIOR kabaddi — NOT senior men's kabaddi; senior men's matches are 40 minutes with 20-minute halves.
Option (c) 50 minutes of continuous play — Incorrect: Kabaddi is NOT played for 50 minutes of continuous play; there is always a half-time break; senior men's kabaddi is 40 minutes (two halves of 20 minutes each) with a 5-minute break, not 50 minutes continuous.
Option (d) 25 minutes + extra raid time — Incorrect: This is NOT a valid match duration format for kabaddi; senior men's kabaddi matches are 40 minutes (two halves of 20 minutes each) with a 5-minute half-time break; there is no '25 minutes + extra raid time' format.

Correct Answer: The score is tied at 40-40 — Option (c)
In tennis, 'Deuce' means the score is tied at 40-40 (both players/teams have won 3 points each in a game). About Deuce in Tennis: Scoring system in a game: 0 points = Love; 1 point = 15; 2 points = 30; 3 points = 40; 4 points (winning) = Game — BUT only if the opponent has 2 or fewer points; Deuce: Occurs when BOTH players reach 40 (i.e., both have won 3 points in the game); At deuce (40-40), a player must win TWO CONSECUTIVE POINTS to win the game; After deuce: First player to win a point after deuce gets 'Advantage' (also called 'Ad In' if server, 'Ad Out' if receiver); If the player with advantage wins the next point → they win the game; If the player with advantage LOSES the next point → it goes back to Deuce; This continues until one player wins two consecutive points; Origin of the term 'Deuce': Derived from French 'deux' meaning 'two' — referring to the two consecutive points needed to win from this tied position; Deuce vs Advantage: Deuce = 40-40 (tied); Advantage = when one player is one point ahead after deuce; Important distinction: 'Deuce' is specific to 40-40 (Option c is correct); Option d says 'game is tied but not 40-40' — this would apply to 30-30 or 15-15, but those scores are simply called '30-all' or '15-all,' NOT deuce.
Option (a) The server gets the advantage — Incorrect: This describes 'Advantage In' (or 'Ad In') — the state AFTER deuce where the server has won the point; 'Deuce' itself means the score is tied at 40-40, NOT that the server has an advantage.
Option (b) The receiver gets the advantage — Incorrect: This describes 'Advantage Out' (or 'Ad Out') — the state AFTER deuce where the receiver has won the point; 'Deuce' means the score is tied at 40-40, NOT that the receiver has an advantage.
Option (d) The game is tied but not at 40-40 — Incorrect: When the score is tied at 15-15, it's called '15-all'; at 30-30, it's '30-all'; ONLY when the score is tied at 40-40 is it called 'Deuce'; Deuce specifically and exclusively refers to the 40-40 tie.

Correct Answer: Crossing the bonus line with one foot in the air — Option (c)
In kabaddi, a bonus point is earned by the raider when they cross the bonus line with at least one foot in the air (while the other foot has touched or crossed the line). About the Bonus Point Rule in Kabaddi: Bonus Line: Located between the baulk line and the end line of the opposite court; There are two bonus lines — one in each half; Bonus Point conditions: The raider must cross/touch the bonus line; At least one foot must be in the air (off the ground) when crossing the line; The opposite team must have at least 6 players on the court (if fewer than 6, bonus point rule does not apply); The raider must be alive (not caught) to receive the bonus point; Award: The raider's team gets 1 bonus point; The raider must still return to their own half safely; Key distinctions: Touching the baulk line (Option a): Touching the baulk line is required to score a 'touch point' — the raider must cross the baulk line to earn a touch; it is NOT the condition for a bonus point; The baulk line is the dividing line between the two halves; Bonus line is different from the baulk line; Touching two defenders (Option b): Touching one or more defenders earns 'touch points' — each defender touched gives 1 point; there's no specific requirement of touching 'at least two'; Super Tackle (Option d): A super tackle occurs when 3 or fewer defenders successfully stop the raider — the defending team gets 2 points; this is not about avoiding tackles.
Option (a) Touching the baulk line — Incorrect: Touching the baulk line is NOT the condition for a bonus point; the baulk line is the dividing line between the two halves of the court; a raider earns a bonus point by crossing the BONUS LINE (a line in the opponent's half) with one foot in the air, not by touching the baulk line.
Option (b) Touching at least two defenders — Incorrect: Touching defenders earns 'touch points' (one point per defender touched) — but this is NOT the condition for a bonus point; a bonus point is earned by crossing the bonus line with one foot in the air; there is no requirement to touch a specific minimum number of defenders for a bonus point. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Avoiding tackle attempts — Incorrect: Successfully avoiding tackle attempts (getting in and out without being tackled) is a raider's general strategy, but it is NOT the specific condition for earning a bonus point; the bonus point specifically requires crossing the bonus line with one foot in the air.

Correct Answer: 1972 — Option (b)
The Space Commission (Antariksha Aayog) was established in India in 1972. About the Space Commission of India: Established: 1972 (by a Government of India Resolution on June 1, 1972); Along with: The Department of Space (DOS) was also created in 1972; Prime Minister: Indira Gandhi (PM at the time — she also held the Space portfolio); First Chairman of Space Commission: Dr. Vikram Sarabhai (founding father of India's space program, though he died in December 1971); Second Chairman: Dr. Satish Dhawan; Role of the Space Commission: Highest policy-making body for India's space program; Sets the direction and policies for India's space activities; The Space Commission is chaired by the Chairman of ISRO; The Department of Space (DOS) implements the decisions of the Space Commission; About ISRO's establishment timeline: 1962: Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR) established under Dr. Vikram Sarabhai (precursor to ISRO); 1963: First rocket launched from Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS), Kerala; 1969: ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation ) established — replacing INCOSPAR; 1972: Space Commission and Department of Space created — giving formal government structure to the space program; 1975: India's first satellite Aryabhata launched (by Soviet Union); 1980: India's first indigenous satellite launch — Rohini satellite using SLV-3 rocket; About 1961: 1961 is NOT a significant year for India's space program; INCOSPAR was established in 1962.
Option (a) 1961 — Incorrect: The Space Commission was NOT established in 1961; the Indian space program's precursor (INCOSPAR — Indian National Committee for Space Research) was established in 1962, and the formal Space Commission was established in 1972. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) 1984 — Incorrect: The Space Commission was established in 1972, not 1984; 1984 is significant for India's space program as the year Rakesh Sharma became the first Indian to go to space (on the Soviet Soyuz T-11 mission), but it is NOT the year the Space Commission was established.
Option (d) 1998 — Incorrect: The Space Commission was established in 1972 — not 1998; 1998 was the year of India's Pokhran-II nuclear tests; the Space Commission had been functioning for 26 years before 1998.

Correct Answer: Henry Cavendish — Option (c)
Henry Cavendish experimentally determined the value of the Universal Gravitational Constant (G) in 1798 through his famous torsion balance experiment. About Henry Cavendish and the Cavendish Experiment: Scientist: Henry Cavendish (1731-1810) — English physicist and chemist; Year of experiment: 1798; Experiment: The Cavendish Torsion Balance Experiment; Setup: Cavendish used a torsion balance — a wooden rod suspended horizontally from a thin wire with small lead spheres (m) at each end; Two larger fixed lead spheres (M) were placed near the small spheres; The gravitational attraction between the spheres caused the wire to twist; By measuring the angle of twist and knowing the torsion constant of the wire, Cavendish calculated the gravitational force; Result: Measured G ≈ 6.74 × 10⁻¹¹ N⋅m²/kg² (remarkably close to today's accepted value of 6.674 × 10⁻¹¹ N⋅m²/kg²); Cavendish actually described his experiment as 'weighing the Earth' rather than measuring G; From his measurement, the density and mass of Earth could be calculated; About Newton's role: Isaac Newton: Formulated the Universal Law of Gravitation: F = Gm₁m ₂/r²; Newton identified the existence and role of G in his formula, but did NOT experimentally determine its numerical value; Newton's contribution was the theoretical framework — Cavendish's was the experimental determination of G's value; About others: Albert Einstein: Formulated General Theory of Relativity (a more advanced theory of gravity, 1915); Johannes Kepler: Formulated the three Laws of Planetary Motion (early 17th century) — precursor to Newton's work.
Option (a) Isaac Newton — Incorrect: Isaac Newton formulated the Universal Law of Gravitation (F = Gm₁m ₂/r²) and identified the gravitational constant G in theory, but he did NOT experimentally determine the numerical value of G; the experimental determination was done by Henry Cavendish in 1798. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Albert Einstein — Incorrect: Albert Einstein developed the General Theory of Relativity (1915), which provides a more sophisticated description of gravity — but Einstein did NOT determine the value of G; that was accomplished by Henry Cavendish in 1798 using his torsion balance experiment.
Option (d) Johannes Kepler — Incorrect: Johannes Kepler (1571-1630) formulated the three laws of planetary motion (Kepler's Laws) based on Tycho Brahe's astronomical observations — these laws describe how planets move around the Sun but do NOT involve the gravitational constant G; Henry Cavendish determined G experimentally in 1798.

Correct Answer: Self-reliance through strengthening heavy industries and reducing foreign aid — Option (d)
The 4th Five Year Plan (1969-74) had self-reliance as a central objective — achieved through strengthening heavy and basic industries and reducing dependence on foreign aid. About the 4th Five Year Plan (1969-74): Plan period: 1969-1974; PM during this period: Indira Gandhi; Drafted by: Planning Commission; Motto/Theme: 'Growth with Stability and Self-Reliance'; Key objectives: Self-reliance: Reduce dependence on foreign aid and external assistance; Strengthen heavy and capital goods industries (steel, machinery, chemicals, power); Achieve food security through Green Revolution (continuation); Control inflation and achieve price stability; Remove poverty (Indira Gandhi's famous slogan ' Garibi Hatao' — Remove Poverty — was launched in this context in 1971); Industrial objectives: Focus on heavy industries (iron and steel, heavy machinery, fertilizers, power); Reduce import of capital goods by producing them domestically; Reduce foreign aid dependence — India had been receiving substantial PL-480 food aid from USA; Promote small-scale and cottage industries; Major achievements: ISRO was established (1972); Green Revolution consolidated; Major bank nationalization (1969 — before the plan but its effects felt during the plan); Context: 1965-67: Two consecutive droughts; 1965 Indo-Pakistan war; 1966-67: Foreign exchange crisis; India had been very dependent on US food aid (PL-480); The 4th plan aimed to correct these vulnerabilities through self-reliance.
Option (a) Only import substitution in consumer goods — Incorrect: The 4th Plan's focus was on self-reliance through heavy industries — NOT just import substitution in consumer goods; the emphasis was on capital goods and reducing overall foreign dependence, not just consumer goods.
Option (b) Liberalization of foreign trade policies — Incorrect: Liberalization of foreign trade was a product of the 1991 reforms — NOT the 4th Five Year Plan (1969-74); during the 1960s-70s, India followed protectionist trade policies; the 4th Plan emphasized self-reliance, which is the OPPOSITE of liberalization.
Option (c) Prioritizing IT and service industries — Incorrect: The IT and service sector was NOT a priority during the 4th Five Year Plan (1969-74) — IT services emerged much later; the 4th Plan's industrial focus was on heavy manufacturing industries (steel, machinery, power) and reducing foreign aid dependence.

Correct Answer: Unorganized sector workers — Option (c)
The PM Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM) scheme is designed for workers in the unorganized sector. About PM Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM): Full name: Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan; Launched: February 2019 (announced in Union Budget 2019-20); Type: Voluntary and contributory pension scheme; Implementing agency: Ministry of Labour and Employment; Target beneficiaries: Workers in the unorganized/informal sector with monthly income of ₹15,000 or less; Examples of eligible workers: Street vendors, rickshaw pullers, construction workers, domestic workers, sanitation workers, cobblers, rag pickers, agricultural workers, beedi workers, auto and taxi drivers, home-based workers, etc.; Key features: Entry age: 18-40 years; Pension amount: ₹3,000 per month after the age of 60 years; Contribution: Subscriber and Central Government contribute equally (50:50 matching contribution); Monthly contribution ranges from ₹55 to ₹200 per month (depending on entry age); Implementation: Through Common Service Centres (CSCs) and Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC); LIC is the Fund Manager; The scheme uses Jan Dhan accounts for auto-debit of contributions; About the broader context: India has about 42 crore unorganized sector workers; Most lack formal pension or social security; PM-SYM provides them a basic old-age pension safety net; Comparison with other pension schemes: NPS (National Pension System): For organized sector; PM-SYM: For unorganized sector workers; Atal Pension Yojana (APY): For unorganized sector (focused on 18-40 age group, similar to PM-SYM).
Option (a) Housewives — Incorrect: PM-SYM is NOT specifically designed for housewives; it targets unorganized/informal sector workers who earn less than ₹15,000 per month; while a housewife who works as a domestic worker may qualify, the scheme broadly targets unorganized sector workers.
Option (b) Corporate sector professionals — Incorrect: Corporate sector professionals are part of the organized sector and are covered by EPF (Employees' Provident Fund), NPS, and other formal pension mechanisms — PM-SYM is specifically designed for the UNORGANIZED sector workers, the opposite of corporate professionals.
Option (d) Government employees — Incorrect: Government employees have their own pension systems — the New Pension System (NPS) for Central Government employees and state government employees; PM-SYM is specifically designed for unorganized sector workers, NOT government employees.

Correct Answer: Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) — Option (c)
The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) is responsible for formulating and implementing India's Foreign Trade Policy. About DGFT: Full name: Directorate General of Foreign Trade; Ministry: Under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India; Headquarters: New Delhi (with regional offices across India); Mandate: Formulate and implement India's Foreign Trade Policy (FTP); Key functions of DGFT: Formulating the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP): India's FTP is announced for a 5-year period (e.g., FTP 2023-28 was announced in April 2023); It governs India's exports and imports; Issuing IEC (Import Export Code): All importers and exporters must obtain a 10-digit IEC from DGFT; Administering export promotion schemes: MEIS (Merchandise Exports from India Scheme) — now replaced by RoDTEP ; SEIS (Service Exports from India Scheme); EPCG (Export Promotion Capital Goods) scheme; Advance Authorization Scheme; Special Economic Zones (SEZ) matters; Maintaining SCOMET list: Special Chemicals, Organisms, Materials, Equipment and Technologies — for controlling sensitive exports; About India's Foreign Trade Policy (FTP): Provides guidance on exports and imports; Sets targets for export growth; Outlines incentives for exporters; About other institutions: RBI: India's central bank — manages monetary policy, banking regulation, foreign exchange (FEMA) — NOT foreign trade policy; NITI Aayog: Government's planning body — provides policy recommendations but does NOT implement trade policy; Ministry of Home Affairs: Manages internal security, police, borders (not foreign trade).
Option (a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) — Incorrect: The RBI manages India's monetary policy, banking regulation, and foreign exchange reserves under FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act) — it does NOT formulate or implement Foreign Trade Policy; that responsibility lies with the DGFT under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Option (b) NITI Aayog — Incorrect: NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) is the government's policy think tank and planning body — it advises on economic and social policy but does NOT formulate or implement the Foreign Trade Policy; DGFT under the Ministry of Commerce is responsible for FTP.
Option (d) Ministry of Home Affairs — Incorrect: The Ministry of Home Affairs manages internal security, central armed police forces, border management, and centre -state relations — it has no role in formulating or implementing Foreign Trade Policy; DGFT under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry handles India's trade policy.

Correct Answer: 64% — Option (d)
As of November 2024, 64% of all PDS (Public Distribution System) beneficiaries in India had completed their e-KYC (electronic Know Your Customer) verification. About PDS e-KYC: PDS: Public Distribution System — India's food security system that distributes subsidized food grains (wheat, rice, sugar) to eligible beneficiaries (ration card holders); e-KYC for PDS: Electronic verification of identity of PDS beneficiaries using Aadhaar; Objective: To eliminate bogus/duplicate/fake ration card holders and ensure genuine beneficiaries receive their entitled subsidized food; Technology: Aadhaar-based biometric authentication at Fair Price Shops (FPS); Beneficiaries authenticate using fingerprint or iris scan; Status as of November 2024: 64% of all PDS beneficiaries had completed e-KYC; This means 36% were yet to complete e-KYC; About One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC): Linked to PDS modernization; Allows beneficiaries to access ration from any Fair Price Shop anywhere in India; About National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013: Covers about 81.35 crore (813.5 million) people — about 2/3 of India's population; Provides subsidized rice at ₹3/kg, wheat at ₹2/kg, coarse cereals at ₹1/kg; Beneficiaries must complete e-KYC to ensure they continue receiving benefits under NFSA; The government pushed for Aadhaar-based authentication to reduce leakages.
Option (a) 88% — Incorrect: As of November 2024, the percentage of PDS beneficiaries who completed e-KYC was 64% — NOT 88%; while 88% would be a higher achievement, the actual figure reported was 64%.
Option (b) 42% — Incorrect: The percentage of PDS beneficiaries who completed e-KYC as of November 2024 was 64% — NOT 42%; 42% would represent less than half, which would be significantly lower than the actual achievement.
Option (c) 100% — Incorrect: As of November 2024, e-KYC completion among PDS beneficiaries was NOT 100%; the actual figure was 64%, meaning about 36% of beneficiaries still needed to complete their e-KYC verification.

Correct Answer: Flower — Option (c)
In angiosperms (flowering plants), the reproductive parts are located in the flower. About Reproduction in Angiosperms: Angiosperms = Flowering plants (the most diverse group of plants); The flower is the reproductive organ of angiosperms; Parts of a flower and their roles: Stamen (Male reproductive organ): Anther: Produces pollen grains (containing male gametes); Filament: Stalk supporting the anther; Pistil/Carpel (Female reproductive organ): Stigma: Sticky surface that receives pollen; Style: Connects stigma to ovary; Ovary: Contains ovules (which develop into seeds); Ovule: Contains the egg cell (female gamete); Process of reproduction in angiosperms: Pollination: Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma (by wind, insects, birds, water, etc.); Fertilization: Pollen tube grows from stigma through style to ovary; Male gamete fuses with egg cell in ovule (fertilization); Double fertilization: Unique to angiosperms — one male gamete fertilizes the egg (→ zygote → embryo) while another fuses with polar nuclei (→ endosperm); After fertilization: Ovule develops into SEED; Ovary develops into FRUIT; The fruit protects the seed and aids dispersal; About other parts: Leaf: Site of photosynthesis; contains chlorophyll; gas exchange; NOT reproductive; Root: Absorbs water and minerals; anchors the plant; some roots store food; NOT the site of reproductive parts; Stem: Supports the plant; transports water and nutrients; some stems store food; NOT the site of reproductive parts.
Option (a) Leaf — Incorrect: Leaves are the primary site of photosynthesis in plants — they contain chlorophyll and perform gas exchange; leaves are NOT the location of reproductive parts in angiosperms; the reproductive parts are found in the flower.
Option (b) Root — Incorrect: Roots are responsible for absorbing water and minerals from the soil, anchoring the plant, and sometimes storing food — they are NOT the location of reproductive parts in angiosperms; the flower contains the reproductive organs.
Option (d) Stem — Incorrect: The stem supports the plant and transports water (via xylem) and food (via phloem) between roots and leaves; while some stems are modified for storage or vegetative reproduction, the PRIMARY reproductive parts (stamens and pistils) of angiosperms are located in the flower.

Correct Answer: Multi-purpose river valley development — Option (c)
The Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) was established for multi-purpose river valley development. About the Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC): Established: July 7, 1948 (under the Damodar Valley Corporation Act, 1948); Modeled on: Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA) of the USA; Headquarters: Kolkata, West Bengal; Coverage: The Damodar river valley spanning Jharkhand (then Bihar) and West Bengal; Purposes of DVC (Multi-purpose): Flood Control: The Damodar was known as 'Sorrow of Bengal' due to recurrent devastating floods; DVC was primarily set up to control these floods; Irrigation: Provide irrigation to agricultural areas; Hydroelectric Power Generation: Generate electricity for industrial and domestic use; Navigation: Improve navigability of the Damodar river; Afforestation: Control soil erosion in the valley; Industrial Development: Support coal mining and industries in the Damodar coal belt; Dams built by DVC: Tilaiya Dam, Konar Dam, Maithon Dam, Panchet Dam; These create reservoirs for multi-purpose use; Why 'Sorrow of Bengal': Damodar river used to overflow during monsoon, causing massive floods; DVC's dams brought flood control; Significance: DVC was India's first multi-purpose river valley project in independent India; It became a model for subsequent river valley projects.
Option (a) Trade promotion — Incorrect: The DVC was NOT established for trade promotion; it was set up to control floods, generate power, provide irrigation, and ensure multi-purpose river valley development in the Damodar Valley region spanning Jharkhand and West Bengal.
Option (b) Steel production — Incorrect: While steel plants are located near the Damodar Valley region (Tata Steel in Jamshedpur, SAIL plants in Bokaro etc.) due to proximity to coal and power from DVC, the DVC itself was NOT established specifically for steel production; its mandate is multi-purpose river valley development.
Option (d) Rural credit — Incorrect: Rural credit is the domain of financial institutions like NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) — NOT the DVC; the Damodar Valley Corporation was established for multi-purpose river valley development including flood control, irrigation, and hydroelectric power generation.

Correct Answer: Mrichchhakatika — Option (c)
Mrichchhakatika (The Little Clay Cart) was written by Shudraka, NOT Kalidasa. About Mrichchhakatika : Author: Shudraka (an ancient Sanskrit playwright); Title meaning: ' Mrichchha ' = clay, 'Katika' = cart — 'The Little Clay Cart'; It is a Sanskrit play about the romantic relationship between Charudatta (a noble but poor Brahmin) and Vasantasena (a wealthy courtesan); Known for its realistic portrayal of society and one of the finest examples of Sanskrit drama; About Kalidasa's Works: Kalidasa is considered the greatest classical Sanskrit poet and playwright; He lived during the Gupta period (approximately 4th-5th century CE); Major Works of Kalidasa: Plays (Nataka): Abhijnanasakuntalam (Recognition of Shakuntala) — his masterpiece, translated into many world languages; about King Dushyanta and Shakuntala; Vikramorvasiyam — about the love between King Pururavas and the nymph Urvashi; Malavikagnimitra — about King Agnimitra's love for Malavika; Epic poems (Mahakavya): Kumarasambhavam — about the birth of Kartikeya (Kumar/Skanda), son of Shiva and Parvati; Raghuvamsha — genealogy and deeds of the Raghu dynasty (ancestors of Lord Ram); Shorter poems: Meghaduta (Cloud Messenger) — a yaksha sends a message to his beloved through a cloud; one of the most celebrated Sanskrit lyrical poems; Ritusamhara — description of six seasons; All options EXCEPT Mrichchhakatika are by Kalidasa; Mrichchhakatika is by Shudraka .
Option (a) Meghaduta — Incorrect: Meghaduta (Cloud Messenger) IS written by Kalidasa — it is one of his most celebrated lyrical poems where a yaksha (sent into exile by Kubera) asks a cloud to carry a message to his beloved; it is NOT the answer. The candidate selected this incorrectly.
Option (b) Kumarasambhavam — Incorrect: Kumarasambhavam IS written by Kalidasa — it is a Sanskrit epic poem describing the birth of Kartikeya (son of Shiva and Parvati); it is definitely a Kalidasa work and NOT the answer to 'which is NOT by Kalidasa.'
Option (d) Abhijnanasakuntalam — Incorrect: Abhijnanasakuntalam (Shakuntala) IS written by Kalidasa — it is his most famous play about King Dushyanta's love for Shakuntala; translated into German by Goethe who praised it highly; it is NOT the answer; the correct answer for 'NOT by Kalidasa' is Mrichchhakatika (by Shudraka ).

Correct Answer: Additional coaching and re-examination opportunity — Option (c)
Students failing the annual examination in Class 5 and Class 8 in centrally run schools are provided additional coaching and given a re-examination opportunity. About the Policy for Centrally Run Schools: Background: Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009 originally mandated a 'No Detention Policy' — students could NOT be detained/failed in classes 1 to 8; all students were automatically promoted; Amendment to RTE Act: The RTE (Amendment) Act, 2019 modified the No Detention Policy; States and Union Territories were given the option to conduct examinations in Class 5 and Class 8; New policy for centrally run schools (KVS/Navodaya/etc.): Annual examinations: Classes 5 and 8 now have mandatory annual examinations; If a student FAILS: They are NOT immediately detained; They are given: Additional coaching and remedial support for 2 months; A re-examination (second chance exam) after 2 months; If they FAIL the re-examination: They may be detained (held back in the same class); This balances the right to education with the need for quality education standards; Context: Centrally run schools include: Kendriya Vidyalayas (KVS), Navodaya Vidyalayas (NVS), CBSE-affiliated schools following central guidelines; The policy ensures students don't simply pass without learning but are given support before any detention decision.
Option (a) Transfer to another school — Incorrect: Failing the annual examination in Class 5 or 8 does NOT result in transfer to another school; the policy provides additional coaching and a re-examination opportunity before any action is taken.
Option (b) Exemption from future exams — Incorrect: Failing students are NOT exempted from future exams; on the contrary, they are given additional coaching and must appear for a re-examination (a second chance), not exempted from assessment.
Option (d) Direct promotion to the next class — Incorrect: The No Detention Policy (which allowed automatic promotion) was AMENDED to allow detention of students who fail both the regular and re-examination; the new policy does NOT provide for direct promotion of failing students — instead it gives them additional coaching and a second chance at examination.

Correct Answer: 79.5% — Option (b)
According to the Annual Report of the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), 2023-24, the literacy rate among Muslims for persons aged 7 years and above was 79.5%. About PLFS Literacy Data: Report: Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) Annual Report, 2023-24; Conducted by: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation ( MoSPI ) / National Statistical Office (NSO); Literacy rate among Muslims (age 7+): 79.5% (as per PLFS 2023-24); About PLFS: The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) was launched in April 2017; It provides quarterly estimates of labour force indicators for urban areas and annual estimates for rural and urban areas; Key indicators: Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR), Worker Population Ratio (WPR), Unemployment Rate (UR); Also covers literacy rates, educational attainment by community; About Literacy in India (general context): National overall literacy rate (Census 2011): 74.04%; Male literacy: 82.14%; Female literacy: 65.46%; The PLFS 2023-24 data shows improvement over earlier figures; Muslim literacy rate at 79.5% reflects improvement in educational access for the community; About PLFS 2023-24 findings: Covered various demographic groups including Hindus, Muslims, and other communities; Provided data on employment, labour force participation, and educational attainment; The 79.5% literacy rate for Muslims aged 7 and above is a specific statistical finding from this report.
Option (a) 58.5% — Incorrect: The Muslim literacy rate (age 7+) as per PLFS 2023-24 was 79.5% — NOT 58.5%; 58.5% would be significantly lower and would misrepresent the literacy achievement among Muslims as reported in PLFS 2023-24.
Option (c) 73.5% — Incorrect: The literacy rate among Muslims (age 7+) as per PLFS 2023-24 was 79.5% — NOT 73.5%; while 73.5% is in a similar range, the accurate figure from the report is 79.5%. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) 71.5% — Incorrect: The Muslim literacy rate (age 7+) as per the Annual Report of PLFS 2023-24 was 79.5% — NOT 71.5%; 71.5% would be about 8 percentage points lower than the actual figure of 79.5% reported in PLFS 2023-24.

Correct Answer: Bangladesh — Option (a)
Bangladesh tops the Global Gender Gap Index 2025 in the South Asia region. About Global Gender Gap Index 2025: Published by: World Economic Forum (WEF); Frequency: Annual; Measures: Gender equality across four dimensions — Economic Participation and Opportunity, Educational Attainment, Health and Survival, Political Empowerment; Scores range from 0 (total inequality) to 1 (total equality); Bangladesh in Global Gender Gap Index 2025: Bangladesh is the top-ranked South Asian country in the Global Gender Gap Report 2025; Bangladesh's ranking is globally notable for a developing nation; Key reasons for Bangladesh's strong performance: Political Empowerment: Bangladesh has had female leadership for an extended period — Sheikh Hasina (served as PM for long periods) and before that Khaleda Zia; Women in Parliament: Bangladesh has significant female political representation; Women in workforce: Bangladesh's garment industry employs millions of women; Educational attainment: Girls' enrollment has improved substantially; Health indicators: Female life expectancy has improved; About India's ranking: India typically ranks around 127-140 globally in the Gender Gap Index; India is NOT the top South Asian country; Bangladesh consistently outperforms India in gender equality metrics; About the Global Gender Gap Report: First published in 2006; Iceland has topped the global list consecutively for many years; The report highlights that no country has achieved full gender parity.
Option (b) Bhutan — Incorrect: While Bhutan is a small Himalayan nation with some positive gender equality indicators, it is NOT the top South Asian country in the Global Gender Gap Index 2025; Bangladesh tops South Asia in this index.
Option (c) Nepal — Incorrect: Nepal has made progress in gender equality (with a significant percentage of women in parliament), but Nepal is NOT the top South Asian country in the Global Gender Gap Index 2025; Bangladesh holds the top position in South Asia.
Option (d) Maldives — Incorrect: While the Maldives is a South Asian island nation, it is NOT the top South Asian country in the Global Gender Gap Index 2025; Bangladesh tops the South Asia region in the Global Gender Gap Index 2025.

Correct Answer: 16 August 1946 — Option (c)
The Muslim League called for 'Direct Action Day' to be observed on 16 August 1946. About Direct Action Day: Called by: Muhammad Ali Jinnah and the All-India Muslim League; Date: 16 August 1946; Purpose: To demonstrate Muslim demand for a separate nation (Pakistan); To protest the failure of the Cabinet Mission Plan (which proposed a united India); Context: After World War II, Britain announced it would grant India independence; The Cabinet Mission Plan (1946) was proposed to keep India united with a federal structure; Jinnah and the Muslim League initially accepted but later rejected aspects of the plan; Jinnah called for 'Direct Action Day' to show Muslim strength and determination for Pakistan; Events of 16 August 1946: The Muslim League called for a public holiday and demonstrations; In Calcutta (Kolkata), the day turned into one of the worst communal riots in Indian history; Known as: 'The Great Calcutta Killings' or 'Calcutta Killings'; Thousands of people (both Hindus and Muslims) were killed in 3-4 days of riots; The riots spread to Noakhali, Bihar, and other areas; Impact: Demonstrated the impossibility of Hindu-Muslim unity in the then-prevailing atmosphere; Accelerated the inevitability of Partition; About 8 August 1942 (Option a): This is the date of the Quit India Movement — Mahatma Gandhi's 'Do or Die' call; NOT related to the Muslim League's Direct Action Day.
Option (a) 8 August 1942 — Incorrect: 8 August 1942 is the date of the launch of the Quit India Movement (Bharat Chhodo Andolan) by Mahatma Gandhi and the Indian National Congress — NOT the Muslim League's Direct Action Day; the Direct Action Day was 16 August 1946. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) 9 December 1945 — Incorrect: 9 December 1945 is NOT the date of the Muslim League's Direct Action Day; it was a date associated with the beginning of the Constituent Assembly discussions; the Direct Action Day was 16 August 1946.
Option (d) 23 September 1946 — Incorrect: 23 September 1946 has no significant connection to the Muslim League's Direct Action Day; the Direct Action Day was observed on 16 August 1946, which led to the Great Calcutta Killings.