SSC GD 2026 28 April 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Governor — Option (b)
Under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, the Governor of a state has the right to recommend President's Rule (State Emergency) to the President. When the Governor reports to the President that the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, the President may issue a Proclamation of Emergency under Article 356. The Governor's report is the trigger for imposing President's Rule (also called Governor's Rule or Constitutional Emergency). However, the President acts on the advice of the Union Cabinet. The 44th Constitutional Amendment (1978) added a safeguard that the President can impose President's Rule only on the basis of a written report from the Governor. The 38th Amendment (1975) made the President's satisfaction final and non-justiciable, but this was reversed by the 44th Amendment.
Option (a) Chief Minister — Incorrect: The Chief Minister heads the state government and would have no reason to recommend President's Rule against their own government; the recommendation comes from the Governor.
Option (c) Prime Minister — Incorrect: While the Union Cabinet (headed by the PM) advises the President on imposing President's Rule, it is the Governor's report under Article 356 that recommends and triggers this action at the state level.
Option (d) Supreme Court — Incorrect: The Supreme Court is the apex judicial body; it does not have the constitutional role of recommending President's Rule in a state — this is the constitutional function of the Governor.

Correct Answer: Governor — Option (d)
When no single party secures a clear majority in the State Legislative Assembly (a 'hung assembly' situation), the Governor exercises discretionary powers to appoint the Chief Minister. In such situations, the Governor: Invites the leader of the single largest party to form the government; OR invites the leader of the pre-poll alliance with the most seats; OR invites whoever can demonstrate the ability to command a majority on the floor of the House. The Governor asks the appointed Chief Minister to prove majority within a specified time by winning a floor test (vote of confidence) in the assembly. This discretionary power of the Governor is governed by constitutional convention and has been the subject of several Supreme Court rulings. The Bommai case (1994) and subsequent judgments have tried to define the limits of gubernatorial discretion in such cases.
Option (a) President — Incorrect: The President appoints the Prime Minister at the Centre in cases of no clear majority, but at the state level, it is the Governor who appoints the Chief Minister; the President has no direct role in state-level government formation.
Option (b) Speaker of the Assembly — Incorrect: The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly is elected by the members and presides over legislative proceedings; the Speaker does not have constitutional power to appoint the Chief Minister.
Option (c) Prime Minister — Incorrect: The Prime Minister heads the Union government and has no constitutional authority to appoint state-level Chief Ministers; state government formation is within the domain of the Governor.

Correct Answer: 1996 — Option (d)
Atal Bihari Vajpayee first became the Prime Minister of India on May 16, 1996, after the BJP emerged as the single largest party in the 11th General Elections held in April-May 1996. However, his first term was very brief — he served for only 13 days (May 16-28, 1996) as he was unable to prove majority on the floor of the Lok Sabha and resigned without facing a vote of confidence. He became PM again: Second term: March 19, 1998 to April 26, 1999 (government fell after 13 months when AIADMK withdrew support); Third term: October 13, 1999 to May 22, 2004 — his longest and most notable term, during which he led the NDA (National Democratic Alliance) coalition. During his third term, he oversaw major events including the Kargil War (1999), Pokhran nuclear tests (though this was in May 1998), and economic reforms.
Option (a) 1990 — Incorrect: In 1990, Atal Bihari Vajpayee was an opposition leader (he had been PM for 6 days in 1977 as External Affairs Minister... wait, no — he was never PM in 1977 either. He first became PM in 1996); he did not become PM in 1990.
Option (b) 1992 — Incorrect: Atal Bihari Vajpayee did not become Prime Minister in 1992; in 1992, the Congress government under P.V. Narasimha Rao was in power and implementing economic liberalization.
Option (c) 1994 — Incorrect: Vajpayee did not become Prime Minister in 1994; he first became PM in May 1996 after the 11th General Elections. In 1994, P.V. Narasimha Rao's Congress government was still in power.

Correct Answer: Human origin and elements like sound ( dhwani ), notes ( swara ) and rhythm ( laya ) — Option (c)
According to historical and musicological observations, to study the history of Indian music, one must first understand human origin and the fundamental elements of music — particularly sound ( dhwani ), notes ( swara ), and rhythm ( laya ). Indian classical music theory holds that music originated with human beings' natural capacity to produce and respond to sound. The ancient texts like Natyashastra (by Bharatamuni ) and Sangitaratnakara trace the origin of music to the natural sounds produced by living beings. The three fundamental elements — dhwani (sound/vibration), swara (musical note/pitch), and laya (rhythm/tempo) — form the foundational building blocks upon which the entire edifice of Indian music theory and practice is constructed. Without understanding these primordial elements, studying the historical evolution of Indian music is incomplete.
Option (a) Human civilization and language — Incorrect: While civilization and language are broadly related to cultural development, the specific foundational elements for studying the history of Indian music are the musical elements of sound, notes, and rhythm — not language per se.
Option (b) Human development and technical skills — Incorrect: Technical skills are more relevant to the later development of musical instruments and performance techniques; the foundational understanding for studying Indian music history begins with human origin and the basic musical elements of dhwani , swara , and laya .
Option (d) Development of musical instruments and dance — Incorrect: Musical instruments and dance are products of the evolution of music; they come after the fundamental elements of sound, notes, and rhythm are understood — these come later in the study, not first.

Correct Answer: Memories of Midnight — Option (a)
'Memories of Midnight' (1990) by Sidney Sheldon is the direct sequel to 'The Other Side of Midnight' (1973). Both novels feature the character of Catherine Douglas. 'The Other Side of Midnight' follows the story of Noelle Page, a French girl who becomes a film star, and her obsessive love for an American pilot Larry Douglas, along with Catherine Alexander who also loves Larry. 'Memories of Midnight' picks up the story of Catherine Douglas after the events of the first book. Sidney Sheldon was a highly popular American author known for his fast-paced, plot-driven thrillers and romantic suspense novels. His other famous works include 'Master of the Game', 'Rage of Angels', 'Bloodline', 'If Tomorrow Comes', and 'Morning, Noon and Night'.
Option (b) Master of the Game — Incorrect: 'Master of the Game' (1982) by Sidney Sheldon is a standalone novel about the wealthy McGregor family and their diamond mining empire in South Africa; it is not the sequel to 'The Other Side of Midnight'.
Option (c) Morning, Noon and Night — Incorrect: 'Morning, Noon and Night' (1995) by Sidney Sheldon is a standalone thriller about three children of a billionaire and the mystery surrounding his death; it is not connected to 'The Other Side of Midnight'.
Option (d) Bloodline — Incorrect: 'Bloodline' (1977) by Sidney Sheldon is a standalone thriller about the pharmaceutical industry and corporate intrigue; it is not a sequel to 'The Other Side of Midnight'.

Correct Answer: 1972 — Option (b)
World Archery (formerly known as FITA — Fédération Internationale de Tir à l'Arc ) was officially recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) in 1972 as the international governing body for the sport of archery. FITA was originally founded in 1931 in Poland by seven member nations. Archery has had an interesting Olympic history: It was first included in the Olympics in 1900 (Paris), then appeared in 1904, 1908, and 1920 before being dropped; It was reintroduced in the 1972 Munich Olympics after the IOC's official recognition of FITA in 1972; Since 1972, archery has been a regular Olympic sport. FITA was renamed World Archery in 2011 to reflect a more accessible and modern image. The IOC's official recognition in 1972 was crucial for the sport's return to the Olympics.
Option (a) 1932 — Incorrect: In 1932, archery was not included in the Olympics and FITA had not yet received IOC recognition; the organization was founded in 1931 but gained IOC recognition in 1972.
Option (c) 1980 — Incorrect: World Archery received IOC recognition in 1972, not 1980; archery had already returned to the Olympics at the 1972 Munich Games following this recognition.
Option (d) 1992 — Incorrect: By 1992 (Barcelona Olympics), archery was well-established as an Olympic sport having been recognized by the IOC in 1972 and featured in the Olympics since that year.

Correct Answer: GSLV MK III — Option (b)
GSLV MK III (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark III), now officially renamed LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark 3), is nicknamed 'Fat Boy' due to its large, wide, and bulky appearance compared to other Indian rockets. Key features of GSLV MK III: It is India's heaviest and most powerful operational rocket; Height: 43.5 metres ; Liftoff mass: 640 tonnes ; Can carry payloads of up to 4,000 kg to Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO) and up to 10,000 kg to Low Earth Orbit (LEO); It uses indigenous cryogenic engine (CE-20) making India self-reliant in cryogenic technology; Notable missions: Chandrayaan-2 (2019), OneWeb constellation satellites, Chandrayaan-3 (2023). GSLV MK III was also the rocket selected for India's upcoming Gaganyaan human spaceflight mission.
Option (a) PSLV — Incorrect: PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) is India's most reliable and workhorse rocket, known for its versatility; it is not called 'Fat Boy' — GSLV MK III has this nickname due to its bulky appearance.
Option (c) SSLV — Incorrect: SSLV (Small Satellite Launch Vehicle) is India's newest and smallest orbital rocket designed for launching small satellites quickly and cost-effectively; it is not called 'Fat Boy'.
Option (d) ASLV — Incorrect: ASLV (Augmented Satellite Launch Vehicle) was an early ISRO rocket that was retired in 1994; it was not called 'Fat Boy' — this nickname belongs to GSLV MK III.

Correct Answer: Becomes 36 times smaller — Option (c)
According to Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation: F = Gm₁m ₂/r², where F is the gravitational force, G is the gravitational constant, m₁ and m₂ are the masses of the two objects, and r is the distance between them. The gravitational force is inversely proportional to the square of the distance (F ∝ 1/r²). If the distance is increased 6 times (r becomes 6r), then: New Force = Gm₁m ₂/(6r)² = Gm₁m ₂/36r² = F/36. So the gravitational force becomes 1/36th of the original, i.e., 36 times smaller. This is the inverse square law — doubling the distance reduces force to 1/4, tripling reduces to 1/9, and increasing by 6 times reduces to 1/36.
Option (a) Becomes 36 times larger — Incorrect: If distance increases, gravitational force DECREASES (not increases) due to the inverse square relationship; increasing distance 6 times makes the force 36 times smaller, not larger.
Option (b) Becomes 6 times larger — Incorrect: This would be true only if force were directly proportional to distance, which is not the case; gravity follows an inverse square law (F ∝ 1/r²), so increasing distance reduces the force.
Option (d) Becomes 1/6 smaller — Incorrect: This would be the result if force were inversely proportional to distance (F ∝ 1/r), not the square of distance; since gravity follows the inverse square law, the force becomes 1/36 (not 1/6) of the original.

Correct Answer: Madhya Pradesh — Option (a)
The Malwa Plateau is primarily located in Madhya Pradesh, covering a major portion of the western and central parts of the state. It is a geologically ancient plateau formed of volcanic lava (Deccan Trap) and is characterized by black cotton soil (regur), which is fertile and suitable for agriculture. Key features of the Malwa Plateau: It lies between the Vindhya Range in the south and the Aravalli Range in the northwest; Major rivers originating here include the Chambal, Betwa, and Kali Sindh; The plateau extends slightly into Rajasthan and Gujarat but is predominantly in Madhya Pradesh; Important cities on the plateau include Indore, Ujjain, Bhopal, and Gwalior. The Malwa region has historical significance as the setting of many important events in Indian history, including the Mauryan, Gupta, and Mughal periods.
Option (b) Maharashtra — Incorrect: Maharashtra has its own plateau region (Deccan Plateau), but the Malwa Plateau is primarily in Madhya Pradesh, not Maharashtra.
Option (c) Rajasthan — Incorrect: While the Malwa Plateau extends slightly into southeastern Rajasthan, it is predominantly situated in Madhya Pradesh; Rajasthan is associated more with the Aravalli ranges and the Thar Desert.
Option (d) Gujarat — Incorrect: Gujarat borders the Malwa Plateau region but is not the state where the plateau is primarily located; the Malwa Plateau is mainly in Madhya Pradesh.

Correct Answer: Digboi — Option (d)
India's first oil refinery was established at Digboi in Assam in 1901, making it one of the oldest operating oil refineries in the world. Key facts about Digboi: Oil was first discovered at Digboi in 1889, making it India's first oil discovery; The Digboi refinery was set up by the Assam Oil Company (later became IndianOil's Digboi refinery); It is located in the Tinsukia district of Assam in the northeastern part of India; The refinery has a small but historically significant processing capacity; The Digboi oil field is considered one of the oldest producing oil fields in the world still in operation; The name ' Digboi ' is believed to come from the British engineers' instruction 'Dig, Boy!' to workers during oil exploration. India's subsequent major refineries were set up at Trombay /Mumbai (1954), Vishakhapatnam (1957), Koyali (1965), Barauni (1964), and Haldia (1975).
Option (a) Haldia — Incorrect: The Haldia refinery in West Bengal was established in 1975 as an extension of the Indian Oil Corporation; it was not the first oil refinery in India — Digboi (1901) holds that distinction.
Option (b) Koyali — Incorrect: The Koyali (Gujarat) refinery (now Vadodara refinery of IOCL) was established in 1965; it is a major refinery but not the first in India — Digboi in Assam was established in 1901.
Option (c) Barauni — Incorrect: The Barauni refinery in Bihar was established in 1964 with Soviet assistance as part of the second Five-Year Plan; it was the third major refinery in India but not the first — the first was at Digboi , Assam (1901).

Correct Answer: Economist Intelligence Unit — Option (a)
The Global Liveability Index is published by the Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU), the research and analysis division of The Economist Group. The index assesses living conditions in cities around the world across five broad categories: Stability (25% weightage); Healthcare (20%); Culture and Environment (25%); Education (10%); Infrastructure (20%). Each city is scored from 1 (intolerable) to 100 (ideal) in each category, and the overall liveability score is calculated. The index is published annually and is widely used for benchmarking cities. Cities like Vienna (Austria), Copenhagen (Denmark), and Zurich (Switzerland) have consistently topped the Global Liveability Index in recent years. Indian cities like Chennai, Mumbai, and Delhi typically rank lower due to challenges in stability and infrastructure.
Option (b) World Bank — Incorrect: The World Bank publishes indices like the Logistics Performance Index (LPI), Ease of Doing Business Index (discontinued), and Human Capital Index; it does not publish the Global Liveability Index.
Option (c) UN Development Programme — Incorrect: UNDP publishes the Human Development Index (HDI), Gender Inequality Index (GII), and Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI); the Global Liveability Index is published by the Economist Intelligence Unit.
Option (d) World Economic Forum — Incorrect: WEF publishes the Global Competitiveness Report, Global Gender Gap Report, and Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Report; the Global Liveability Index is not among its publications.

Correct Answer: Industrial Policy 1977 — Option (c)
The Industrial Policy of 1977 (announced by the Janata Party government under PM Morarji Desai) is specifically known for its strong and explicit emphasis on promoting small-scale, cottage, and village industries. Key features of the Industrial Policy 1977: It classified industries into three categories — Cottage and Household industries, Small-scale industries, and Large-scale industries; It significantly expanded the list of items reserved exclusively for small-scale sector production; It emphasized 'people-oriented' and ' labour-intensive ' development over capital-intensive large industry; It promoted district industries centres (DICs) to provide support to small enterprises at the grassroots level; It aimed to generate maximum employment and bring industries to rural areas. This policy represented a philosophical shift from the heavy-industry-focused approach of the 1956 policy.
Option (a) Industrial Policy 1948 — Incorrect: The 1948 Industrial Policy was India's first policy statement after independence, focusing on classifying industries into government and private domains; while it mentioned small industries, it was not specifically known for prominently promoting them.
Option (b) Industrial Policy 1956 — Incorrect: The 1956 Industrial Policy (based on the Mahalanobis model) is known for its emphasis on heavy industries and the expansion of the public sector; it was not the policy primarily known for promoting small-scale industries.
Option (d) Industrial Policy 1980 — Incorrect: The 1980 Industrial Policy (under PM Indira Gandhi's returned Congress government) partially reversed the 1977 policy and focused more on modernization, consolidation, and preventing sick units; it was not primarily known for promoting small-scale industries like the 1977 policy.

Correct Answer: Persistent trade deficit due to imports — Option (c)
India's trade balance (merchandise/goods trade) has consistently shown a deficit — i.e., India's imports of goods far exceed its exports of goods — and this is the main structural deficiency of India's trade balance. Key reasons for India's persistent trade deficit: High import bill for crude oil and petroleum products (India imports ~85% of its oil needs); Large imports of gold and precious metals; Significant imports of electronic goods, machinery, and capital equipment; Growing imports of coal and natural gas; India's merchandise trade deficit has widened over the years, often exceeding $200 billion annually. While India earns a surplus in services trade (especially IT/software exports, remittances), the large merchandise trade deficit results in India's overall current account deficit in many years.
Option (a) Surplus export of services — Incorrect: India's services sector (especially IT, software, and business process services) actually enjoys a trade surplus — this is a strength, not a deficiency, of India's overall trade account.
Option (b) Excessive dependence on certain trading partners — Incorrect: While India's trade concentration with certain partners (like China for imports) is a concern, the primary/main deficiency of India's trade balance is the persistent structural deficit caused by high imports of goods.
Option (d) High tariff structure — Incorrect: India's tariff structure is not among the highest globally; moreover, a high tariff structure would reduce imports (improving the trade balance), not cause a deficit — the main issue is the large import demand for essential commodities like oil and gold.

Correct Answer: PM-DAKSH Scheme — Option (b)
PM-DAKSH (Pradhan Mantri Dakshata Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi) Yojana was approved with a budget of ₹450 crore for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26. It is a Central Sector Scheme implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Key features of PM-DAKSH: Target beneficiaries: Scheduled Castes (SC), Other Backward Classes (OBC), Economically Backward Classes (EBC), Sanitation Workers, De-Notified and Nomadic Tribes (DNT); Objectives: Upskilling and reskilling of target groups to improve their employability and enable them to earn better incomes; Types of training: Short-term training, Long-term training, Entrepreneurship development programs, Re-skilling/up-skilling programs; Training is provided free of cost with stipend support. The scheme was launched in 2021 and the PM-DAKSH portal facilitates online registration of beneficiaries and training institutions.
Option (a) SMILE Scheme — Incorrect: SMILE (Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise) is a scheme by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment focused on transgender persons and persons engaged in begging, but it was not the scheme approved for ₹450 crore for 2021-22 to 2025-26.
Option (c) NAMASTE Scheme — Incorrect: NAMASTE (National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem) is a scheme to mechanize sewage cleaning and eliminate hazardous manual scavenging; it was not the scheme with ₹450 crore budget for 2021-22 to 2025-26.
Option (d) Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyan — Incorrect: Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyan (Drug-free India campaign) is an anti-drug initiative under the Ministry of Social Justice; it is not the scheme associated with the ₹450 crore allocation for 2021-22 to 2025-26.

Correct Answer: NISAR — Option (c)
NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) is the satellite best suited for using radar to monitor Earth's surface changes through clouds and even at night. NISAR is a joint Earth observation satellite mission between NASA (USA) and ISRO (India), expected to be launched in 2024. Key features of NISAR: It uses dual-frequency Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) — L-band (NASA) and S-band (ISRO) — allowing it to penetrate cloud cover and operate in all weather conditions and at night; It can measure ground deformation from earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, and landslides; It monitors changes in ice sheets, sea level, wetlands, and forest biomass; It provides repeat coverage of the Earth's surface every 12 days. SAR technology specifically allows all-weather, day-and-night Earth observation — making NISAR the correct answer for radar-based surface monitoring.
Option (a) Chandrayaan-3 — Incorrect: Chandrayaan-3 is India's lunar exploration mission (Moon lander and rover) launched in 2023; it is designed to study the Moon's surface, not Earth's surface.
Option (b) EOS-09 — Incorrect: EOS-09 (Earth Observation Satellite-09) is an ISRO radar imaging satellite, but NISAR (with its dual-frequency SAR for comprehensive Earth surface monitoring) is the specifically described satellite for all-weather, day-and-night Earth surface change monitoring.
Option (d) XPoSat — Incorrect: XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite) is India's first dedicated X-ray polarimetry mission launched in January 2024 to study X-ray sources in space (cosmic X-ray sources); it is not designed for Earth surface monitoring.

Correct Answer: Lieutenant Commander Yashasvi Solanki — Option (a)
Lieutenant Commander Yashasvi Solanki made history by becoming the first woman naval officer to serve as Aide-de-Camp (ADC) to the President of India. An Aide-de-Camp (ADC) to the President is a military officer who serves as a personal assistant to the President and assists in ceremonial and official functions. This appointment was a landmark moment in Indian naval history, reflecting the expanding role and recognition of women officers in the Indian Armed Forces. The Indian Navy has been progressively opening more roles to women officers, including combat roles and commands. Lieutenant Commander Solanki's appointment as the first woman naval ADC to the President of India is a significant milestone in gender equality in the Indian military.
Option (b) Lieutenant Bhavana Singh — Incorrect: Lieutenant Bhavana Singh is not the naval officer who made history as the first woman naval ADC to the President; this milestone belongs to Lieutenant Commander Yashasvi Solanki.
Option (c) Commander Priya Menon — Incorrect: Commander Priya Menon is not the officer associated with this historic first; Lieutenant Commander Yashasvi Solanki was the first woman naval officer to serve as ADC to the President of India.
Option (d) Captain Shikha Sharma — Incorrect: Captain Shikha Sharma is not the naval officer who became the first woman naval ADC to the President; this distinction belongs to Lieutenant Commander Yashasvi Solanki.

Correct Answer: Malabar — Option (d)
The Kingdom of Mysore, under Hyder Ali and particularly his son Tipu Sultan, controlled the profitable trade of the Malabar Coast (present-day Kerala coast). This was a major source of conflict with the British East India Company, leading to the Anglo-Mysore Wars (1767-1799). Why Malabar was important: The Malabar Coast was famous for its lucrative trade in spices (especially black pepper, cardamom, and ginger), coconut products, and timber; Tipu Sultan sought to monopolize this trade and expand his influence on the coast; The control of Malabar gave Mysore direct access to overseas trade routes and the ability to import weapons from French and other European traders; The British East India Company coveted the Malabar trade and ultimately defeated Tipu Sultan in the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War (1799), after which the Malabar region came under British control.
Option (a) Bombay — Incorrect: Bombay (Mumbai) was a British East India Company's presidency and trading hub; it was not controlled by the Mysore kingdom. Mysore's dominance was on the Malabar Coast (southwest India).
Option (b) Hooghly — Incorrect: Hooghly is a river and region in Bengal (eastern India); it was under British control (Bengal Presidency) and had no connection to Mysore's trade control.
Option (c) Coromandel — Incorrect: The Coromandel Coast is the southeastern coast of India (Tamil Nadu); while Mysore had some interactions with this region, its primary and most profitable coastal trade control was over the Malabar Coast, not the Coromandel Coast.

Correct Answer: Rangoon — Option (c)
After the Revolt of 1857 (also called the First War of Independence or Sepoy Mutiny), Bahadur Shah Zafar II, the last Mughal Emperor, was captured by the British forces under Lieutenant William Hodson at Humayun's Tomb in Delhi in September 1857. He was tried for treason and rebellion by a British military commission. In October 1858, he was exiled to Rangoon (present-day Yangon, Myanmar/Burma), where he spent his last years as a prisoner. Key facts: He arrived in Rangoon on November 7, 1858; He died in Rangoon on November 7, 1862, at the age of approximately 87 years; His death in exile marked the formal end of the Mughal dynasty; His grave at Rangoon became a place of pilgrimage for many. Bahadur Shah Zafar was also a celebrated Urdu poet — his famous verse expressing his grief in exile is well-known in Urdu literature.
Option (a) Shanghai — Incorrect: Shanghai is a city in China; Bahadur Shah Zafar was not exiled to Shanghai — he was sent to Rangoon (present-day Yangon, Myanmar) by the British after the 1857 revolt.
Option (b) Dhaka — Incorrect: Dhaka is in present-day Bangladesh; Bahadur Shah Zafar was not imprisoned in Dhaka — his place of exile was Rangoon (Yangon), Myanmar, where he spent his last years and died in 1862.
Option (d) Andaman — Incorrect: While the Andaman Islands (Cellular Jail) became a famous British prison for Indian political prisoners, Bahadur Shah Zafar was not imprisoned in the Andamans — he was specifically exiled to Rangoon, Burma.