SSC GD 2026 28 April 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: 15% of Lok Sabha — Option (c)
The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 inserted Article 75(1A) in the Constitution of India, which provides that the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha). The current Lok Sabha has 543 elected members, so the maximum size of the Union Council of Ministers is 81 (15% of 543). Similarly, Article 164(1A) limits the size of state cabinets to 15% of the total strength of the legislative assembly with a minimum of 12 ministers. This amendment was enacted to address the problem of oversized governments and to cut down on administrative expenditure.
Option (a) 10% of Lok Sabha — Incorrect: The Constitution specifies 15%, not 10%, as the maximum limit for the Union Council of Ministers under Article 75(1A) inserted by the 91st Constitutional Amendment.
Option (b) 12% of Lok Sabha — Incorrect: 12% is not the constitutional limit for the Union Council of Ministers; the 91st Amendment clearly specifies 15% of the total strength of Lok Sabha.
Option (d) 20% of Lok Sabha — Incorrect: 20% exceeds the constitutional limit; the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 caps the Council of Ministers at 15% of the Lok Sabha's total strength.

Correct Answer: 21 — Option (a)
As of July 2025, 21 states in India have provided 50% reservation for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs). The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 mandated a minimum of one-third (33%) reservation for women in PRIs at all levels (village, intermediate, and district panchayats). However, many progressive states went beyond this constitutional minimum to provide 50% reservation: States with 50% reservation for women in PRIs include: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Tripura, Uttarakhand, and others. This higher reservation has significantly increased women's political participation at the grassroots level in India. India now has the largest representation of elected women representatives in the world, with over 1.4 million women elected to PRIs.
Option (b) 11 — Incorrect: By July 2025, 21 states had provided 50% reservation for women in PRIs, which is significantly more than 11; the momentum towards 50% reservation has been growing across Indian states.
Option (c) 14 — Incorrect: By July 2025, 21 states (not 14) had provided 50% reservation for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions; 14 reflects an outdated or incorrect count.
Option (d) 25 — Incorrect: As of July 2025, 21 states had adopted 50% women's reservation in PRIs, not 25; while the number is large, 25 overstates the figure as of that date.

Correct Answer: Dhol and Manjira (small cymbals) — Option (a)
Tippani is a vibrant folk dance originating from the Saurashtra region of Gujarat. It is traditionally performed by women workers (originally construction labourers ) who use a tippani — a long wooden stick with an iron tip — to pound the ground rhythmically. The dance is performed to the beats of Dhol (a large double-headed barrel drum) and Manjira (small hand cymbals also called kartal ). The rhythmic pounding of the tippani on the ground creates a unique percussion sound, complemented by the Dhol and Manjira. The dance is energetic and reflects the hardworking spirit of women from the Saurashtra region. Tippani dance has been recognised as part of Gujarat's rich folk heritage.
Option (b) Tabla and Harmonium — Incorrect: Tabla and harmonium are primarily associated with classical music, bhajan, ghazal, and certain folk styles; they are not the traditional accompanying instruments for Tippani dance.
Option (c) Flute and Veena — Incorrect: Flute and Veena are classical Indian instruments associated with performances like Carnatic music and temple music traditions; they do not accompany the Tippani folk dance.
Option (d) Sitar and Sarangi — Incorrect: Sitar and Sarangi are classical Hindustani music instruments; they are not associated with the folk tradition of Tippani dance from Gujarat's Saurashtra region.

Correct Answer: Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni — Option (a)
"The Palace of Illusions" (2008) is a celebrated novel written by Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni, an Indian-American author. The novel is a feminist retelling of the Indian epic Mahabharata from the perspective of Draupadi (also known as Panchaali ), the wife of the five Pandava brothers. The book explores Draupadi's inner life, thoughts, and feelings as she navigates the events of the Mahabharata, including the famous dice game, the year in exile, and the Kurukshetra war. Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni is also known for other novels like 'The Mistress of Spices', 'Sister of My Heart', 'The Forest of Enchantments', and 'The Last Queen'. She is a professor of creative writing at the University of Houston.
Option (b) Sudha Murty — Incorrect: Sudha Murty is a renowned Indian author known for books like 'Wise and Otherwise', 'House of Cards', and 'Mahashweta'; she did not write 'The Palace of Illusions'.
Option (c) Devdutt Pattanaik — Incorrect: Devdutt Pattanaik is known for his works on Indian mythology like 'Myth = Mithya ' and 'Jaya: An Illustrated Retelling of the Mahabharata'; he did not write 'The Palace of Illusions'.
Option (d) Kavita Kane — Incorrect: Kavita Kane is known for mythological fiction like 'Karna's Wife' and 'Sita's Sister'; she did not write 'The Palace of Illusions', which is authored by Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni.

Correct Answer: 2021 — Option (c)
Kidambi Srikanth made history in 2021 by becoming the first Indian male shuttler to reach the final of the BWF (Badminton World Federation) World Championships. The 2021 BWF World Championships were held in Huelva, Spain in December 2021. Srikanth defeated several top-ranked players to reach the final but lost to Loh Kean Yew of Singapore in the gold medal match (15-21, 14-21), eventually winning the silver medal. This achievement was historic for Indian badminton as no Indian male had previously reached the world championship final. Earlier, P. V. Sindhu (women's singles) had won gold at the 2019 World Championships and was a multiple medalist.
Option (a) 2017 — Incorrect: In 2017, Kidambi Srikanth had an excellent year on the BWF Super Series circuit, winning four titles, but he did not reach the final of the BWF World Championships that year.
Option (b) 2018 — Incorrect: Kidambi Srikanth did not reach the final of the BWF World Championships in 2018; his historic achievement came in 2021.
Option (d) 2022 — Incorrect: The year 2022 was not when Srikanth reached his historic World Championship final; this milestone occurred in 2021 at the BWF World Championships in Huelva, Spain.

Correct Answer: Wheat — Option (b)
In October 2017, India sent 1.1 million tonnes (approximately 1.1 lakh metric tonnes ) of wheat to Afghanistan through the Chabahar port in Iran, marking the first use of this maritime route for trade with Afghanistan. Chabahar port, located on the Gulf of Oman in southeastern Iran, provides India an alternative route to Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan. The wheat shipment was a humanitarian gesture and also demonstrated the strategic importance of the Chabahar route. India has been investing in the development of Chabahar port as part of its geopolitical strategy to access Afghanistan and Central Asian markets. The port agreement between India and Iran was signed in May 2016 during PM Modi's visit to Tehran.
Option (a) Rice — Incorrect: India did not send rice as the first commodity through Chabahar to Afghanistan in 2017; the first shipment via Chabahar port to Afghanistan was wheat (1.1 million tonnes ) in October 2017.
Option (c) Oil — Incorrect: Oil was not the first commodity sent from India to Afghanistan via Chabahar in 2017; the historic first shipment was wheat, sent as both a humanitarian gesture and a demonstration of the route's viability.
Option (d) Machinery — Incorrect: Machinery was not the first commodity India sent to Afghanistan through Chabahar port in 2017; the landmark first shipment was 1.1 million tonnes of wheat in October 2017.

Correct Answer: Samaveda — Option (b)
The Samaveda (Veda of Melodies or Chants) is primarily known for its musical content. It is a collection of hymns set to musical notation — most of its 1,875 verses are taken from the Rigveda but are arranged and set to specific musical melodies (samans) for liturgical chanting during Soma sacrifices. The Samaveda is considered the foundation of Indian classical music. The musical notes ( swaras ) of Indian classical music trace their origin to the Samaveda. The Udgatar priests specialised in chanting from the Samaveda. The Samaveda has two major recensions — Kauthuma and Jaiminiya — both preserving ancient musical traditions.
Option (a) Rigveda — Incorrect: The Rigveda is mainly known for its 1,028 hymns ( suktas ) praising the gods (deities); it is the oldest of the four Vedas and is primarily associated with religious poetry and cosmology, not primarily for musical content.
Option (c) Yajurveda — Incorrect: The Yajurveda is known for its prose and verse sacrificial formulas ( yajus ) recited by the Adhvaryu priest during rituals; it contains instructions for performing Vedic rituals, not primarily musical content.
Option (d) Atharvaveda — Incorrect: The Atharvaveda is known for its hymns, spells, charms, and magical formulae for everyday life including healing, protection, and prosperity; it is not primarily known for musical content.

Correct Answer: Charaka — Option (a)
Charaka is universally known as the 'Father of Ayurveda' (also called the Father of Indian Medicine). He lived approximately in the 1st century CE and authored the 'Charaka Samhita', one of the most foundational texts of Ayurveda. The Charaka Samhita is a comprehensive treatise on internal medicine ( Kayachikitsa ) covering: Eight branches of Ayurveda; Diagnosis and treatment of diseases; Pharmacology and medicinal plants; Pathology and anatomy; Ethics of medical practice. Key contributions of Charaka: He emphasized that a physician must understand the root cause of disease ( karan ) before prescribing treatment; He documented the importance of diet and lifestyle in maintaining health; He mentioned the concepts of digestion, metabolism, and immunity. Charaka Samhita was later translated into Arabic, Tibetan, and Latin, influencing global medicine.
Option (b) Vasudeva — Incorrect: Vasudeva is primarily known in Hindu tradition as the father of Lord Krishna, not as a figure associated with Ayurveda; the Father of Ayurveda is Charaka.
Option (c) Sushruta — Incorrect: While Sushruta is an extremely important figure in ancient Indian medicine, he is known as the 'Father of Surgery' (not Ayurveda) for his work 'Sushruta Samhita', which details surgical procedures, instruments, and techniques including plastic surgery.
Option (d) Nagarjuna — Incorrect: Nagarjuna is associated with Rasashastra (Ayurvedic alchemy and metallurgy) and Buddhist philosophy; he is not known as the Father of Ayurveda, which is the title given to Charaka.

Correct Answer: Ajatashatru — Option (c)
Ajatashatru was the son and successor of Bimbisara , the king of the Haryanka dynasty of Magadha. According to Buddhist and Jain sources, Ajatashatru imprisoned his father Bimbisara around 491 BCE and allegedly killed him or denied him food until he died (some accounts say Bimbisara committed suicide when he saw his son approaching with a sword). After becoming king of Magadha (c. 491-461 BCE), Ajatashatru: Expanded the Magadha kingdom by defeating Kosala (under Prasenajit/ Pasenadi ) and the Vajjian Confederacy (which took 16 years); Constructed a fort at Pataliputra (modern Patna), which became the future capital of the Mauryan Empire; Was a contemporary of both Gautama Buddha and Mahavira Jain. According to Buddhist tradition, he later repented his patricide and became a patron of Buddhism.
Option (a) Ashoka — Incorrect: Ashoka was a Mauryan emperor who lived approximately 200 years after Bimbisara ; he was the grandson of Chandragupta Maurya. Ashoka's father was Bindusara, not Bimbisara .
Option (b) Bindusara — Incorrect: Bindusara was the son of Chandragupta Maurya (Mauryan dynasty) and the father of Ashoka; he was not the successor of Bimbisara of the Haryanka dynasty.
Option (d) Chandragupta Maurya — Incorrect: Chandragupta Maurya founded the Mauryan Empire around 321 BCE, overthrowing the last Nanda king; he came much later than Bimbisara's time and was not Bimbisara's son or successor.

Correct Answer: Its mass is less — Option (b)
The gravitational force on the surface of the Moon is approximately 1/6th (about 1.62 m/s²) of that on Earth's surface (9.8 m/s²). According to Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation (g = GM/R²), the surface gravity depends on both the mass (M) and the radius (R) of the celestial body. The Moon's mass is approximately 7.35 × 10²² kg, which is about 1/81st of Earth's mass (5.97 × 10²⁴ kg). Although the Moon is also smaller in radius, the dominant factor for the lower surface gravity is its significantly lower mass. The combination of lower mass and smaller radius results in the Moon having only about 1/6th of Earth's surface gravity.
Option (a) It is smaller in size — Incorrect: While the Moon is smaller in size (radius ≈ 1,737 km vs. Earth's 6,371 km), size alone does not determine gravitational force; the primary reason for less gravity is the Moon's much lower mass.
Option (c) It rotates faster — Incorrect: The Moon actually rotates very slowly (once in about 27.3 days, same as its orbital period around Earth); the rotation speed of a body does not directly cause lower surface gravity.
Option (d) It is farther from the Sun — Incorrect: The distance from the Sun does not determine the surface gravity of a body; surface gravity is determined by the body's own mass and radius, not its distance from the Sun.

Correct Answer: Increase in polar aurora and radiation exposure — Option (a)
Earth's magnetosphere (generated by the movement of molten iron in the outer core) acts as a protective shield, deflecting charged particles from the solar wind. When the magnetic field temporarily weakens (as happens during geomagnetic storms or polarity reversals), more solar particles penetrate into the atmosphere near the polar regions, causing: (1) Increased and more widespread polar auroras (Aurora Borealis in the north, Aurora Australis in the south) as solar particles interact with atmospheric gases; (2) Increased radiation exposure at higher altitudes and latitudes — posing risks to astronauts, airline passengers, and satellites; (3) Disruption of radio communications and GPS signals; (4) Potential damage to power grids due to geomagnetically induced currents. Such events, while spectacular for aurora watchers, can have significant technological and biological impacts.
Option (b) Complete loss of the atmosphere — Incorrect: A temporary weakening of the magnetic field does not cause complete atmospheric loss; this is an extreme scenario associated with complete and permanent loss of magnetosphere over geological timescales, not temporary weakening.
Option (c) Increase in gravity — Incorrect: Earth's gravity is determined by its mass and is independent of its magnetic field; a weakening of the magnetic field has no effect on gravitational force.
Option (d) No effect — Incorrect: A weakening of Earth's magnetic field has definite observable effects, primarily increased polar auroras, higher radiation exposure, and disruption of satellite communications and power infrastructure.

Correct Answer: Willingness to donate or help others — Option (d)
The World Happiness Report, published annually by the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network, measures happiness across countries using six key variables: GDP per capita, Social support, Healthy life expectancy, Freedom to make life choices, Generosity, and Perceptions of corruption. The 'Generosity' factor specifically measures individual charitable behavior — it is based on the Gallup World Poll question: "Have you donated money to a charity in the past month?" and other indicators of helping strangers. This captures the personal willingness to donate or help others (prosocial behavior) rather than government or macro-economic measures. Generous societies where people help each other tend to have higher levels of happiness and social cohesion.
Option (a) National tax rates — Incorrect: National tax rates are a government fiscal policy measure; the generosity factor in the World Happiness Index measures individual charitable behavior and personal willingness to help others, not government taxation.
Option (b) Foreign aid — Incorrect: Foreign aid is a government-to-government transfer at the macro-economic level; the generosity factor in the Happiness Index captures individual/personal charitable behavior and altruism.
Option (c) Government subsidies — Incorrect: Government subsidies are fiscal policy tools and are part of the economic structure; the generosity factor specifically measures individual willingness to donate or help others, not government spending on subsidies.

Correct Answer: Industrial Licensing Policy — Option (a)
Before the 1991 liberalization, the Industrial Licensing Policy (also known as the 'License Raj' or 'Permit Raj') was the primary framework that restricted and controlled private sector participation in Indian industries. Under this policy (governed by the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951): Companies required government licenses to establish new industrial units; Licenses were needed for expansion of existing capacity; Certain strategic industries were exclusively reserved for the public sector; Even location and capacity were controlled by the government. The system created bottlenecks, inefficiency, and encouraged corruption. The 1991 New Industrial Policy (under PM Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Manmohan Singh) abolished industrial licensing for most industries, opening them to private competition.
Option (b) Agricultural Subsidy Policy — Incorrect: Agricultural subsidy policies provided financial support to farmers; they were not mechanisms to limit private sector participation in industries before 1991.
Option (c) Foreign Trade Policy — Incorrect: While foreign trade policies regulated imports and exports, the specific mechanism that limited private sector participation in domestic industries was the Industrial Licensing Policy.
Option (d) Public Distribution System — Incorrect: The Public Distribution System (PDS) is a food security system for distributing subsidized food to the poor; it is not a policy that limited private sector participation in industries.

Correct Answer: To collect statistical data on socio-economic conditions — Option (d)
The National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO), now reorganised as part of the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation ( MoSPI ), was established in 1950 with the primary purpose of collecting statistical data on socio-economic conditions of the Indian population. The NSSO conducts large-scale sample surveys across India on topics such as: Employment and unemployment patterns; Household consumption expenditure; Housing conditions and amenities; Health and morbidity; Education and literacy; Land and livestock holdings; Debt and investment. The NSSO's surveys are crucial for policy planning, resource allocation, and measuring development outcomes. The data collected helps the government formulate welfare schemes and track living standards across different sections of society.
Option (a) To promote agriculture — Incorrect: The promotion of agriculture is the mandate of the Ministry of Agriculture and agencies like ICAR; the NSSO was not established to promote agriculture but to collect statistical data for evidence-based policymaking.
Option (b) To monitor industry — Incorrect: Industrial monitoring and regulation falls under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and other regulatory bodies; the NSSO's mandate is statistical data collection across socio-economic domains.
Option (c) To promote exports — Incorrect: Export promotion is handled by agencies like DGFT, Export Promotion Councils, and APEDA; the NSSO's core purpose is to collect comprehensive socio-economic statistical data through sample surveys.

Correct Answer: Continuous fragmentation of agricultural holdings and decline in operational holding size — Option (c)
Fragmentation of agricultural land holdings is one of the most serious structural challenges facing Indian agriculture today. Due to the Hindu Succession Act and traditional inheritance practices, agricultural land is divided among all heirs with each generation, resulting in: Continuously shrinking average operational holding sizes (India's average holding has shrunk from 2.28 hectares in 1970-71 to about 1.08 hectares by 2015-16); Economically unviable sub-marginal holdings that cannot support mechanization or efficient farming; Difficulty in accessing institutional credit (small holdings have lower collateral value); Inability to invest in irrigation, technology, or quality inputs; Scattered plots making agricultural operations and water management inefficient. According to the Agriculture Census 2015-16, about 86% of India's farmers are small and marginal farmers with less than 2 hectares of land.
Option (a) Shortage of agricultural labor due to low population density in rural areas — Incorrect: India's rural areas have high population density and abundant agricultural labor; the challenge is seasonal labor migration and rising wages, not shortage due to low density.
Option (b) Increasing level of agricultural mechanization — Incorrect: While mechanization is increasing, it is generally seen as a positive development helping to address labor shortage and improve productivity, not a challenge to Indian agriculture.
Option (d) Declining domestic demand for major food grains — Incorrect: Domestic demand for food grains remains substantial given India's large population; per capita consumption patterns may be shifting but overall demand has not declined significantly.

Correct Answer: Kandla — Option (b)
India's first Export Processing Zone (EPZ) was established at Kandla (now Deendayal Port) in Gujarat in 1965. It is also considered one of Asia's first Export Processing Zones. Kandla EPZ (now known as Kandla Special Economic Zone — KASEZ) was set up to: Boost export-led manufacturing; Attract foreign investment; Generate employment; Earn foreign exchange. The choice of Kandla was strategic due to its location as a major port on the Gulf of Kutch (Arabian Sea coast), giving it easy access to international shipping routes. Over the decades, Kandla EPZ evolved into a Special Economic Zone under the SEZ Act 2005. It hosts units in sectors like engineering goods, chemicals, pharmaceuticals, gems and jewellery , and textiles. India subsequently established EPZs at Santa Cruz (Mumbai), Falta (Kolkata), Madras, Cochin, Noida, and Visakhapatnam.
Option (a) Surat — Incorrect: Surat is a major textile and diamond trading city in Gujarat but was not the location of India's first Export Processing Zone; Kandla (also in Gujarat) holds that distinction (established 1965).
Option (c) Mumbai — Incorrect: Mumbai (Santacruz) had India's second EPZ established at Santa Cruz Electronics Export Processing Zone (SEEPZ); the first EPZ was at Kandla, not Mumbai.
Option (d) Cochin — Incorrect: Cochin (Kochi) EPZ was established later, after Kandla's EPZ (1965); it was not the first Export Processing Zone in India.

Correct Answer: Testosterone — Option (c)
Testosterone is the primary male sex hormone (androgen) mainly responsible for the physical and physiological changes in males during puberty. Testosterone is produced primarily in the testes (by Leydig cells) and in small amounts by the adrenal glands. Changes caused by testosterone during puberty include: Growth of facial hair (beard and moustache); Growth of body hair (chest, underarms, pubic area); Deepening of the voice (voice box enlargement); Development and growth of the penis and testes; Increase in muscle mass and strength; Increase in height and bone density; Development of the Adam's apple; Production of sperm (spermatogenesis). Testosterone also influences behavior, libido, and mood. It is a steroid hormone derived from cholesterol.
Option (a) Estrogen — Incorrect: Estrogen is the primary female sex hormone responsible for puberty changes in females (breast development, widening of hips, etc.); while males have small amounts of estrogen, it is not the primary hormone responsible for male puberty changes.
Option (b) Thyroxine — Incorrect: Thyroxine (T4) is produced by the thyroid gland and regulates metabolism, growth, and energy; it is not specifically responsible for the sexual development changes during male puberty.
Option (d) Adrenaline — Incorrect: Adrenaline (epinephrine) is a stress hormone produced by the adrenal glands that mediates the 'fight or flight' response; it is not responsible for the sexual development changes during male puberty.

Correct Answer: Dr. Meenakshi Jain — Option (b)
Dr. Meenakshi Jain, a distinguished Indian historian and author, was nominated to the Rajya Sabha for her outstanding contributions to history and scholarship. She is a former Associate Professor at Gargi College, University of Delhi. Dr. Meenakshi Jain is known for her extensively researched works on Indian history, including: 'The Battle for Rama: Case of the Temple at Ayodhya' (a detailed study of the Ram Janmabhoomi issue); 'Rama and Ayodhya' (examining historical and textual evidence); 'Flight of Deities and Rebirth of Temples' (on temple desecration during the medieval period); 'Sati: Evangelicals, Baptist Missionaries and the Changing Colonial Discourse'. Her scholarly contributions to reinterpreting Indian history made her a notable figure recognized by her Rajya Sabha nomination.
Option (a) Ujjwal Nikam — Incorrect: Ujjwal Nikam is a senior criminal lawyer and Special Public Prosecutor known for prosecuting the 26/11 Mumbai attacks case; he was nominated to Rajya Sabha as a legal expert, not specifically for contributions to history and scholarship.
Option (c) Harikrishnan — Incorrect: This nominee was not specifically recognized for contributions to history and scholarship in the context of this Rajya Sabha nomination.
Option (d) C. Sadanandan Master — Incorrect: C. Sadanandan Master is known for his contributions in other domains; Dr. Meenakshi Jain was the nominee specifically recognized for her contributions to history and scholarship.

Correct Answer: Odisha — Option (b)
Odisha does NOT share a border with Bangladesh. Odisha is located on the eastern coast of India (Bay of Bengal coastline) and borders Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal, and has a coastline along the Bay of Bengal. It has no direct border with Bangladesh. The five Indian states that share a border with Bangladesh are: West Bengal (longest shared border, ~2,216 km); Assam (~263 km); Meghalaya (~443 km); Tripura (~856 km); Mizoram (~318 km). The total India-Bangladesh border is approximately 4,096 km (the 5th longest international border in the world). Odisha is separated from Bangladesh by West Bengal.
Option (a) Assam — Incorrect: Assam does share a border with Bangladesh (approximately 263 km); therefore Assam cannot be the correct answer to 'which state does NOT share a border with Bangladesh'.
Option (c) Tripura — Incorrect: Tripura shares an extensive border with Bangladesh (approximately 856 km) on three sides (north, west, and south); it cannot be the answer as it clearly borders Bangladesh.
Option (d) West Bengal — Incorrect: West Bengal shares the longest border with Bangladesh (approximately 2,216 km) among all Indian states; it is definitely not the state that does NOT share a border with Bangladesh.

Correct Answer: 1707 — Option (a)
Aurangzeb (full name: Abul Muzaffar Muhi- ud -Din Mohammad Aurangzeb Alamgir), the sixth Mughal Emperor of India, died on March 3, 1707, in Ahmednagar (Maharashtra) at the age of approximately 88 years. He had been the longest-reigning Mughal emperor (1658-1707) — nearly 49 years. Key facts about Aurangzeb: He seized the Mughal throne by imprisoning his father Shah Jahan and defeating his brothers; His reign saw the maximum geographical expansion of the Mughal Empire; He was known for his strict implementation of Islamic law and is a controversial figure in history; He spent the last 25 years of his reign in the Deccan fighting against the Marathas; His death in 1707 marked the beginning of the rapid decline of the Mughal Empire, with numerous succession wars following.
Option (b) 1717 — Incorrect: Aurangzeb died in 1707, not 1717; in 1717, Mughal Emperor Farrukhsiyar was on the throne and granted the British East India Company significant trade privileges (the 'Magna Carta of English trading privileges').
Option (c) 1747 — Incorrect: Aurangzeb died four decades earlier, in 1707; in 1747, Ahmad Shah Durrani (Abdali) invaded India and the Mughal Empire was in decline under Emperor Ahmad Shah Bahadur.
Option (d) 1757 — Incorrect: Aurangzeb died in 1707, fifty years before 1757; the year 1757 is historically significant as the year of the Battle of Plassey, in which the British East India Company under Robert Clive defeated Siraj ud -Daulah of Bengal.