SSC GD 2026 29 April 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: B.N. Rau — Option (a)
Sir Benegal Narsing Rau (B.N. Rau) served as the Constitutional Adviser to the Constituent Assembly of India. He played an indispensable role in drafting India's Constitution. Key contributions of B.N. Rau: He prepared the initial draft of the Indian Constitution based on his comparative study of constitutions of several countries; He traveled to the USA, UK, Ireland, and Canada to study various constitutional models and consult legal experts; He met eminent constitutional experts including US Supreme Court Justice Felix Frankfurter; His initial draft served as the working paper for the Drafting Committee headed by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar; He later served as India's representative to the United Nations Security Council (1950-52); He also served as a judge of the International Court of Justice. B.N. Rau was a distinguished civil servant of the Indian Civil Service (ICS) and is remembered as the 'Architect of the Indian Constitution's framework'.
Option (b) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar — Incorrect: Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar was a prominent member of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly and made significant contributions; however, he served as a member, not as the Constitutional Adviser — that position was held by B.N. Rau.
Option (c) T.T. Krishnamachari — Incorrect: T.T. Krishnamachari (T.T.K.) was a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly who replaced B.L. Mitter; he later served as Finance Minister of India; he was not the Constitutional Adviser.
Option (d) K.M. Munshi — Incorrect: K.M. Munshi (Kanhaiyalal Maneklal Munshi) was a prominent member of the Constituent Assembly and the Drafting Committee, known for drafting important articles; however, he was a member, not the Constitutional Adviser — B.N. Rau held that specific role.

Correct Answer: Administrator appointed by the President — Option (d)
The administration of Union Territories (UTs) in India is carried out by an Administrator appointed by the President of India. This is provided under Article 239 of the Indian Constitution: 'Every Union territory shall be administered by the President acting, to such extent as he thinks fit, through an administrator to be appointed by him with such designation as he may specify.' Key facts about UT administration: The Administrator can be designated as Lieutenant Governor (as in Delhi, Puducherry, Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh, Andaman & Nicobar Islands), Administrator (as in Chandigarh, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu, Lakshadweep), or Chief Commissioner; Some UTs have legislatures (Delhi, Puducherry, Jammu & Kashmir) while others do not; In UTs with legislatures, the elected government functions alongside the Administrator, though the Administrator has special powers; The President appoints Administrators who act as his agents.
Option (a) Parliament — Incorrect: While Parliament can legislate for Union Territories (including on state list subjects under Article 246), the actual day-to-day administration of UTs is not directly by Parliament but through an Administrator appointed by the President.
Option (b) Chief Minister — Incorrect: Chief Ministers head the governments of States, not Union Territories; only some UTs (Delhi, Puducherry, Jammu & Kashmir) have elected governments with Chief Ministers, but even there, the LG/Administrator has overriding powers — the primary administrative head remains the President's appointee.
Option (c) Governor — Incorrect: Governors are constitutional heads of States, not Union Territories; UTs are administered by Administrators (called LG or Administrator) appointed by the President, who are distinct from Governors.

Correct Answer: Shankar Dayal Sharma — Option (b)
Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma served as the 9th President of India from 1992 to 1997. He had a distinguished academic background in constitutional law. Key facts about Shankar Dayal Sharma: Academic background: He earned his LLM (Master of Laws) from Lucknow University and a PhD in Law (Constitutional Law) from Cambridge University, UK; he was a renowned constitutional lawyer; Presidential career: He served as President from July 25, 1992 to July 25, 1997; Prior to becoming President, he served as the Vice President of India (1987-1992); He also served as the Governor of Andhra Pradesh, Punjab, and Maharashtra, and as Chief Minister of Bhopal (later Madhya Pradesh); He was a member of the Indian National Congress party and a lawyer and politician of repute; His expertise in constitutional law distinguished him academically among Indian Presidents.
Option (a) Ramaswami Venkataraman — Incorrect: R. Venkataraman served as the 8th President of India from 1987 to 1992 (not 1992-1997); he preceded Shankar Dayal Sharma as President.
Option (c) K.R. Narayanan — Incorrect: K.R. Narayanan served as the 10th President of India from 1997 to 2002, AFTER Shankar Dayal Sharma; he was a diplomat and academic (social scientist), not specifically known for constitutional law expertise. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Giani Zail Singh — Incorrect: Giani Zail Singh served as the 7th President of India from 1982 to 1987; he was a politician and religious leader, not known for an academic background in constitutional law.

Correct Answer: Weddings and festivals — Option (a)
Tippani (also spelled Tippini or Tipri ) dance is a traditional folk dance from Gujarat, India, primarily performed by women belonging to the Nayak and Koli communities. It is traditionally performed at weddings and festivals. Characteristics of Tippani dance: Women performers strike the ground rhythmically with sticks (called ' Tippani '), creating percussion while dancing in groups; The dance form gets its name from the stick used (' Tipri ' or ' Tippini '); The dance originated among women labourers who pounded roads and expressed their emotions through rhythmic stick movements; It is performed at joyous occasions like marriages, local festivals, and community celebrations; The dance requires skilled coordination between stick movements and footwork; Performers dress in colorful traditional Gujarati attire with various ornaments and jewelry. Tippani dance has been recognized as an important part of Gujarat's cultural heritage.
Option (b) Only religious rituals — Incorrect: Tippani dance is not restricted to only religious rituals; it is performed at social occasions including weddings and festivals, making 'only religious rituals' an incorrect characterization.
Option (c) Only during harvest season — Incorrect: Tippani dance is not limited to the harvest season; it is a celebratory dance performed at weddings and festivals throughout the year, not exclusively at harvest time.
Option (d) At political rallies — Incorrect: Tippani is a traditional folk dance performed at cultural celebrations (weddings and festivals), not at political rallies; the dance has no connection to political gatherings.

Correct Answer: Indo-French Colonial — Option (a)
The French Quarter (also called White Town or Ville Blanche) in Pondicherry (Puducherry) is characterized by its distinctive Indo-French Colonial architectural style. Key features of this architectural style: Fusion of French colonial and South Indian architectural elements — French window shutters, verandas, courtyards ( thalavaram ), and French rooflines combined with Indian spatial planning and tropical adaptations; Wide, tree-lined boulevards called 'Grand Rue' modeled after French urban planning; Yellow-painted colonial buildings with large French windows, cast-iron railings, and terracotta tile roofs; The architecture reflects Pondicherry's history as a French colony (1674-1954) and the blend of two distinct cultures; Famous buildings include the French Consulate, the Alliance Française, and various colonial mansions and villas; The entire French Quarter with its grid-pattern streets and colonial buildings is a protected heritage zone. The Canal separates the French Quarter from the Tamil Quarter (Ville Noire) which has more traditional South Indian architecture.
Option (b) Gothic Revival — Incorrect: Gothic Revival architecture (characterized by pointed arches, ribbed vaults, flying buttresses) is associated with British-era buildings in India like Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus in Mumbai; the French Quarter of Pondicherry follows Indo-French Colonial style, not Gothic Revival.
Option (c) Art Deco — Incorrect: Art Deco is a decorative arts movement of the 1920s-30s characterized by geometric shapes, bold colors, and modernist design; while some buildings in Mumbai follow Art Deco style, the French Quarter of Pondicherry is primarily Indo-French Colonial.
Option (d) Neoclassical — Incorrect: Neoclassical architecture is inspired by ancient Greek and Roman styles; while some elements of classical design appear in French colonial buildings, the primary architectural style of Pondicherry's French Quarter is specifically identified as Indo-French Colonial.

Correct Answer: 1987 — Option (c)
India (along with Pakistan) first hosted the Cricket World Cup in 1987. Key facts about the 1987 Cricket World Cup: Officially called the 'Reliance Cup' (due to title sponsorship); It was the 4th edition of the Cricket World Cup; It was the first Cricket World Cup to be held OUTSIDE England (all previous World Cups — 1975, 1979, 1983 — were held in England); 27 matches were played across 6 venues in India and Pakistan; For the first time, 50-over matches (instead of 60-over) were used in the World Cup; Australia won the 1987 World Cup, defeating England in the final at Kolkata's Eden Gardens; India lost to England in the semi-finals. Important distinction: India WON the Cricket World Cup in 1983 (held in England), but India first HOSTED the World Cup in 1987. The candidate confused 'winning' the World Cup (1983) with 'hosting' it for the first time (1987).
Option (a) 1975 — Incorrect: The 1975 Cricket World Cup was the inaugural edition, held in England — not hosted by India.
Option (b) 1983 — Incorrect: The 1983 Cricket World Cup was held in England, not India; 1983 is when India famously WON the World Cup (under Kapil Dev's captaincy) by defeating West Indies, but the tournament was hosted by England. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.
Option (d) 1996 — Incorrect: India did co-host the 1996 Cricket World Cup (Wills World Cup) along with Pakistan and Sri Lanka, but this was the SECOND time India hosted it (the first being 1987); the correct answer for 'first time' hosting is 1987.

Correct Answer: Wilhelm Steinitz — Option (b)
Wilhelm Steinitz (1836-1900) is universally recognized as the first official World Chess Champion. Key facts about Steinitz: He was born in Prague (then part of the Austrian Empire) and later became an American citizen; He held the first official World Chess Championship title from 1886 to 1894; The 1886 match between Steinitz and Johannes Zukertort in the United States is considered the first official World Chess Championship; He defended his title four times before losing it to Emanuel Lasker in 1894; Steinitz is credited with founding the 'Modern School of Chess' — emphasizing positional play, the accumulation of small advantages, and the concept of the 'weak square'; His theoretical contributions revolutionized chess strategy and moved it away from purely tactical, attacking play toward scientific positional understanding. He is considered the father of modern chess theory.
Option (a) Bobby Fischer — Incorrect: Bobby Fischer became the 11th World Chess Champion in 1972 when he defeated Boris Spassky (USA vs. USSR match); Fischer was a legendary 20th-century champion, but not the first official World Chess Champion.
Option (c) Garry Kasparov — Incorrect: Garry Kasparov was the 13th World Chess Champion (1985-2000) and is considered one of the greatest chess players of all time; he is not the first official World Chess Champion — that distinction belongs to Wilhelm Steinitz.
Option (d) Paul Morphy — Incorrect: Paul Morphy (1837-1884) was an American chess prodigy considered the unofficial world champion of his era (around 1857-1858) and dominated the chess world in the late 1850s; however, there was no formal World Chess Championship during his time — the first official championship was established in 1886 when Steinitz won it.

Correct Answer: Indira Gandhi — Option (c)
Indira Gandhi was the first woman to receive the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian honour . Key facts: Indira Gandhi received the Bharat Ratna in 1971, becoming the first woman to be conferred this honour ; She was the 3rd Prime Minister of India (1966-77 and 1980-84); Known as the 'Iron Lady of India,' she was a dominant political figure of the 20th century; Her notable achievements include: Leading India to victory in the 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War; Overseeing India's first nuclear test (Pokhran-I, 1974 — 'Smiling Buddha'); Nationalization of banks (1969); Abolition of Privy Purses (1971). The chronology of Bharat Ratna to women: Indira Gandhi (1971, first woman), Mother Teresa (1980), Aruna Asaf Ali (1997, posthumous), M.S. Subbulakshmi (1998), Lata Mangeshkar (2001).
Option (a) Aruna Asaf Ali — Incorrect: Aruna Asaf Ali received the Bharat Ratna in 1997 (posthumously); she was not the first woman to receive it — Indira Gandhi received it in 1971, 26 years earlier.
Option (b) Lata Mangeshkar — Incorrect: The legendary singer Lata Mangeshkar received the Bharat Ratna in 2001; she was not the first woman recipient — Indira Gandhi received it in 1971.
Option (d) Mother Teresa — Incorrect: Mother Teresa received the Bharat Ratna in 1980; while she was the second woman to receive it, she was not the first — Indira Gandhi received it in 1971. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.

Correct Answer: Central India — Option (c)
The Satpura Range ( Satpura Parvatamaala ) is located in Central India. Key facts about the Satpura Range: It runs from east to west across central India, extending approximately 900 km; It passes through the states of Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Chhattisgarh; The range lies between the Narmada River (to the north) and the Tapti River (to the south); The highest peak is Dhupgarh (1,352 m) near Pachmarhi in Madhya Pradesh; Pachmarhi is the only hill station in Madhya Pradesh, located in the Satpura range; The range is part of the Deccan Plateau complex; The Satpura ranges are rich in biodiversity — Satpura National Park, Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve, and Kanha National Park are in this region; The Satpura ranges are composed mainly of sandstone, granite, and limestone.
Option (a) Northern India — Incorrect: The Satpura Range is not located in Northern India (which refers to the Indo-Gangetic plains and the Himalayan region); the Satpuras are in central India, running through Madhya Pradesh and surrounding states.
Option (b) Southern India — Incorrect: Southern India refers to the Deccan Plateau states (Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Kerala) and the Western and Eastern Ghats; the Satpura Range is in central India, not the south.
Option (d) Eastern India — Incorrect: Eastern India encompasses states like West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar, Jharkhand, and the northeastern states; the Satpura Range is located in central India (Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Chhattisgarh), not eastern India.

Correct Answer: West Bengal — Option (a)
The Ganga-Brahmaputra delta is primarily located in West Bengal. The Ganga-Brahmaputra delta (commonly called the Sundarbans Delta) is the world's largest delta and is shared between India and Bangladesh. Key facts: The delta is formed by the convergence of the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers; The Indian portion of the delta is located primarily in West Bengal, while the larger portion lies in Bangladesh; The Sundarbans (UNESCO World Heritage Site) — the largest mangrove forest in the world — is situated in this delta region spanning West Bengal and Bangladesh; The delta is renowned for the Royal Bengal Tiger, Irrawaddy dolphins, and other biodiversity; Major distributaries in West Bengal include the Hooghly, Bhagirathi, and other rivers; Kolkata (the major city of West Bengal) is situated on the Hooghly River, a distributary of the Ganga in the delta region.
Option (b) Uttar Pradesh — Incorrect: Uttar Pradesh is in the upper Gangetic plain where the Ganga flows as a main river; the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta is not in UP — the delta forms in West Bengal before the river enters the Bay of Bengal.
Option (c) Bihar — Incorrect: Bihar is in the middle Gangetic plain; while the Ganga flows through Bihar, the delta of the Ganga-Brahmaputra system is much further downstream in West Bengal (and Bangladesh).
Option (d) Assam — Incorrect: Assam is where the Brahmaputra flows through a valley (the Brahmaputra valley); while the Brahmaputra is a major component of this delta system, the actual delta is not in Assam — it forms in West Bengal and Bangladesh where the rivers converge near the Bay of Bengal.

Correct Answer: Greater tilt leads to increase in seasonal contrasts — Option (a)
The Milankovitch cycles are periodic variations in Earth's orbit and axial orientation that affect the amount and distribution of solar radiation reaching Earth. The axial tilt (obliquity) cycle of approximately 41,000 years involves Earth's axial tilt varying between 22.1° and 24.5°. Effect of greater axial tilt: When Earth's axial tilt is greater (closer to 24.5°), the polar regions receive more direct sunlight in summer and less in winter, leading to more intense seasonal contrasts — hotter summers and colder winters; When Earth's axial tilt is smaller (closer to 22.1°), the seasonal differences are less extreme — milder summers and less severe winters. The three Milankovitch cycles are: Eccentricity (shape of Earth's orbit, ~100,000-year cycle), Obliquity/Axial Tilt (41,000-year cycle), and Precession (wobble of Earth's axis, ~26,000-year cycle). These cycles influence long-term climate patterns, including ice ages.
Option (b) Change in tilt alters orbital speed — Incorrect: Axial tilt changes do not affect Earth's orbital speed; orbital speed is related to Earth's distance from the Sun (as per Kepler's Second Law — Earth moves faster when closer to the Sun), not to its axial tilt.
Option (c) Change in tilt affects the magnetic field — Incorrect: Earth's axial tilt and its magnetic field are unrelated phenomena; Earth's magnetic field is generated by the geodynamo (movement of molten iron in the outer core) and is affected by geomagnetic reversals, not by the Milankovitch axial tilt cycle.
Option (d) No effect — Incorrect: Changes in Earth's axial tilt have a significant effect on the distribution of solar radiation between seasons and latitudes, directly influencing seasonal contrasts and long-term climate patterns including ice ages.

Correct Answer: Constellation — Option (a)
Orion is one of the most prominent and recognizable constellations ( तारामंडल ) in the night sky. Key facts about Orion: It is named after Orion, a hunter in Greek mythology; It is located on the celestial equator and is visible from most parts of the world; Orion is best visible in the night sky during January-February in the Northern Hemisphere; Notable stars in Orion: Betelgeuse (a red supergiant, marking Orion's right shoulder), Rigel (a blue supergiant, marking Orion's left foot), Bellatrix (Orion's left shoulder), Saiph (Orion's right foot); Orion's Belt: Three prominent stars in a straight line — Alnitak, Alnilam, and Mintaka — form the distinctive 'belt' that makes Orion easily identifiable; The Orion Nebula (M42) is a famous stellar nursery located below Orion's Belt; The International Astronomical Union (IAU) officially recognizes 88 constellations, and Orion is among the most well-known.
Option (b) Star — Incorrect: Orion is not a single star but a constellation — a group of stars that form a recognizable pattern; individual stars within Orion include Betelgeuse and Rigel.
Option (c) Planet — Incorrect: Orion is not a planet; it is a constellation (a group of stars seen as a pattern in the night sky); planets in our solar system are Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune.
Option (d) Satellite — Incorrect: A satellite is a natural or artificial body orbiting a planet (like the Moon orbiting Earth); Orion is a constellation — a recognizable pattern of stars in the night sky — not a satellite.

Correct Answer: Chilika Lake — Option (c)
Chilika Lake is the largest saltwater (brackish water) lake in India and the largest coastal lagoon in Asia. Key facts about Chilika Lake: Location: Located in Odisha on the eastern coast of India, spread across the districts of Puri, Khurda , and Ganjam; Area: Approximately 1,100 sq km in winter and up to 1,165 sq km in monsoon season; It is a brackish water lagoon separated from the Bay of Bengal by a narrow sandy ridge; It was the first Ramsar site in India (designated in 1981) — a wetland of international importance; Famous for the Irrawaddy dolphins (one of the few places in the world where they can be found); A major bird sanctuary with over 160 species of migratory birds (including flamingos, pelicans, white-bellied sea eagles) visiting in winter; The famous Kalijai Temple is located on an island in the lake; It supports the livelihood of over 200,000 fisherfolk.
Option (a) Vembanad Lake — Incorrect: Vembanad Lake in Kerala is the longest lake in India and the largest lake in Kerala, but it is a freshwater/brackish water backwater lake — not specifically known as the largest saltwater lake; Chilika is larger in terms of being the largest saltwater/brackish water lake.
Option (b) Pulicat Lake — Incorrect: Pulicat Lake (located on the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu) is the second largest saltwater lagoon/lake in India after Chilika; it is NOT the largest saltwater lake.
Option (d) Sambhar Lake — Incorrect: Sambhar Lake in Rajasthan is the largest inland saltwater lake in India (i.e., not coastal/lagoon), but the largest saltwater lake overall in India is Chilika Lake; moreover, Sambhar is a salt lake (hypersaline), while Chilika is a brackish water lagoon.

Correct Answer: Education, Income, Life Expectancy — Option (a)
The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite statistical index developed by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) that measures human development along three key dimensions: 1) Education: Measured by two indicators — Mean Years of Schooling (average years of education received by people aged 25 and above) and Expected Years of Schooling (total years of schooling expected for a child entering school age); 2) Income/Standard of Living: Measured by Gross National Income (GNI) per capita at Purchasing Power Parity (PPP); 3) Long and Healthy Life: Measured by Life Expectancy at birth. The HDI was introduced in 1990 by Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq with the help of Indian Nobel laureate economist Amartya Sen; Published annually in the UNDP Human Development Report; India's HDI rank in recent years has been in the 'Medium Human Development' category. The HDI ranges from 0 to 1, with higher values indicating greater human development.
Option (b) GDP, Gross National Income, Literacy — Incorrect: The HDI does not directly use GDP or standalone Literacy as its components; it uses GNI per capita (not GDP), and Education is measured through mean and expected years of schooling — not just literacy.
Option (c) Employment, Social Security, Gender Equality — Incorrect: These are components of other composite indices (like the Social Progress Index or Gender Development Index), not the HDI; the HDI specifically measures Education, Income (GNI per capita), and Life Expectancy.
Option (d) Income, Health, Environment — Incorrect: Environment is not a component of the HDI; the three components of HDI are Education, Income (GNI per capita), and Life Expectancy (representing the health dimension) — environment is not included.

Correct Answer: Involuntary action — Option (b)
Heartbeat is an involuntary ( अनैच्छिक ) action — it occurs automatically without conscious control. Explanation: The heart is a cardiac muscle that contracts and relaxes rhythmically; The heartbeat is controlled by the autonomic nervous system (specifically the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems) and the heart's own electrical conduction system (sinoatrial node, or the 'natural pacemaker'); A normal adult heart beats 60-100 times per minute at rest; The sinoatrial (SA) node in the right atrium generates the electrical impulse that initiates each heartbeat, spreading to the atrioventricular (AV) node and then to the ventricles; This entire process happens automatically, without any conscious effort or decision — it is involuntary; While factors like stress, exercise, and medicines can alter the heart rate, the basic action itself is involuntary.
Option (a) Reflex action — Incorrect: Reflex actions are rapid, automatic responses to stimuli mediated by the spinal cord (like pulling a hand away from a hot object); heartbeat is not a reflex action — it is an involuntary rhythmic action controlled by the autonomic nervous system and the heart's own pacemaker.
Option (c) Voluntary action — Incorrect: Voluntary actions are conscious, deliberate movements controlled by the cerebral cortex (like walking, writing, or speaking); heartbeat is involuntary — we cannot start or stop it at will. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.
Option (d) Coordinated action — Incorrect: While heartbeat does involve coordination between different parts of the heart's conduction system, 'coordinated action' is not the specific biological classification for heartbeat; the correct classification is 'involuntary action' as it occurs without conscious control.

Correct Answer: Waste disposal — Option (b)
Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles found in animal cells whose primary function is waste disposal — the breakdown and digestion of cellular waste, old or damaged organelles, and foreign materials. Key facts about lysosomes: They contain powerful hydrolytic (digestive) enzymes (over 50 types) such as proteases, lipases, nucleases, and glycosidases; These enzymes work optimally at an acidic pH (around 4.5-5.0) maintained within the lysosome by proton pumps; Lysosomes perform autophagy — breaking down old, damaged, or excess cellular organelles and molecules; They perform phagocytosis — digesting pathogens, bacteria, and foreign particles engulfed by white blood cells; They are often called 'garbage disposal bags' or 'suicide bags' of the cell (the term 'suicide bag' was coined by Christian de Duve, who discovered lysosomes and received the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1974); Lysosomal dysfunction leads to lysosomal storage diseases.
Option (a) Energy production — Incorrect: Energy production is the primary function of mitochondria (called the 'powerhouse of the cell'), which produce ATP through cellular respiration; lysosomes do not produce energy.
Option (c) Protein synthesis — Incorrect: Protein synthesis is the primary function of ribosomes (in the cytoplasm) and the rough endoplasmic reticulum; lysosomes contain enzymes that BREAK DOWN proteins rather than synthesize them.
Option (d) Lipid storage — Incorrect: Lipid storage is associated with lipid droplets (fat bodies) in cells; the primary function of lysosomes is waste disposal through enzymatic digestion, not lipid storage.

Correct Answer: Australia — Option (d)
In November 2024, Australia became the first country in the world to pass a law banning children under 16 from using social media. Key facts about this landmark legislation: The Online Safety Amendment (Social Media Minimum Age) Act 2024 was passed by the Australian Parliament in November 2024; The law requires social media platforms to verify users' ages and ban those under 16 years from creating accounts; Platforms covered include Instagram, Facebook, TikTok, Snapchat, X (formerly Twitter), and similar social media services; Platforms that fail to comply with age verification requirements face fines of up to AUD 50 million; The law was championed by Australian Prime Minister Anthony Albanese, citing mental health concerns for young people; This made Australia a global trailblazer in child online safety legislation; The law sparked international debate about balancing children's safety with digital freedoms.
Option (a) India — Incorrect: India has not passed a specific law banning social media for children under 16; India's Digital Personal Data Protection Act (2023) has provisions for children's data, but no specific social media age ban law was passed in November 2024.
Option (b) USA — Incorrect: While the United States has discussed legislation regarding children's social media use (such as the KIDS Online Safety Act), the US had not passed a comprehensive national ban on social media for under-16s as of November 2024; Australia was the first.
Option (c) Japan — Incorrect: Japan had not passed a law banning social media for children under 16 as of November 2024; Australia became the first country in the world to enact such legislation in November 2024.

Correct Answer: 1767-69 — Option (a)
The First Anglo-Mysore War was fought from 1767 to 1769 between Hyder Ali (the de facto ruler of Mysore) and the British East India Company along with the Nizam of Hyderabad and the Marathas. Key facts about the First Anglo-Mysore War: Cause: The British broke their alliance with Hyder Ali and joined hands with his enemies (Nizam and Marathas) against Mysore; Outcome: Hyder Ali proved to be a formidable military commander; he outmaneuvered the British forces and even reached the gates of Madras; Peace: The war ended with the Treaty of Madras (1769) — a rare instance where a British company was forced to sign a defensive alliance with an Indian ruler (Hyder Ali); Significance: The British agreed to assist Hyder Ali against his enemies, establishing a brief but humbling diplomatic settlement. The four Anglo-Mysore Wars in summary: 1st War (1767-69) — British vs. Hyder Ali, ended Treaty of Madras; 2nd War (1780-84) — Hyder Ali and Tipu Sultan vs. British; 3rd War (1790-92) — Tipu Sultan vs. British; 4th War (1799) — Death of Tipu Sultan.
Option (b) 1780-84 — Incorrect: 1780-84 corresponds to the Second Anglo-Mysore War, fought between Hyder Ali (who died in 1782) and his son Tipu Sultan against the British; it ended with the Treaty of Mangalore (1784). The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) 1790-92 — Incorrect: 1790-92 corresponds to the Third Anglo-Mysore War, fought between Tipu Sultan and the British (allied with the Nizam and Marathas); it ended with the Treaty of Seringapatam (1792).
Option (d) 1799 — Incorrect: 1799 corresponds to the Fourth (and final) Anglo-Mysore War, in which Tipu Sultan was killed and Seringapatam ( Srirangapatna ) was captured, ending Mysore's power; the First Anglo-Mysore War was in 1767-69.

Correct Answer: Indian National Congress — Option (a)
During the 1946 provincial elections (Winter 1945-46), the Indian National Congress performed exceptionally well in the 'general' (non-Muslim/non-reserved) constituencies. Key facts about the 1946 elections: These elections were held for the provincial legislatures and also for selecting representatives to the Constituent Assembly of India; Results in general constituencies: The Indian National Congress won an overwhelming majority — 208 out of 214 general seats in the Constituent Assembly elections; The Congress also won majorities in 8 out of 11 provincial legislatures, forming governments in most provinces; The Muslim League, on the other hand, dominated Muslim reserved constituencies, winning almost all Muslim seats; The 1946 election results demonstrated Congress's broad-based popular support among the general population; These elections set the stage for the formation of the Interim Government (September 1946) and the Constituent Assembly, which drafted the Indian Constitution.
Option (b) Justice Party — Incorrect: The Justice Party (also called the South Indian Liberal Federation) was a political party representing non-Brahmin communities, primarily in Madras Presidency; it did not perform well in general constituencies in the 1946 elections, which were dominated by the Indian National Congress.
Option (c) Communist Party of India — Incorrect: While the Communist Party of India participated in the 1946 elections, it did not perform well in general constituencies compared to the Congress; the Indian National Congress swept the general seats.
Option (d) Swaraj Party — Incorrect: The Swaraj Party was a political party formed by C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru in 1922-23 within the Congress to contest legislative council elections; by 1946, the Swaraj Party had effectively merged back into Congress and was not a separate entity contesting the 1946 elections.