SSC GD 2026 30 May 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Supreme Court — Option (b)
The Supreme Court of India is the guardian and protector of the Constitution of India. About the Supreme Court as Constitutional Guardian: Power of Judicial Review: The Supreme Court has the power to examine (review) the constitutionality of any law passed by Parliament or a State Legislature, and any executive action; It can strike down laws that violate the Constitution; This is its most important function as guardian of the Constitution; Constitutional basis: Article 13: Declares laws inconsistent with or in derogation of Fundamental Rights to be void; Article 32: Right to Constitutional Remedies — guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights; Article 131: Original jurisdiction in disputes between Centre and States; Article 132-136: Appellate jurisdiction; Article 141: Law declared by SC is binding on all courts; Article 142: SC can pass any decree necessary to do complete justice; Article 143: Advisory jurisdiction (President can refer questions of law); Role as guardian: Upholds Fundamental Rights (Part III of Constitution); Enforces Directive Principles (Part IV) indirectly; Protects the basic structure of the Constitution ( Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973 — established Basic Structure Doctrine); Interprets the Constitution authoritatively; Acts as a check on both the Legislature and Executive; Key doctrine: Basic Structure Doctrine (1973): Even Parliament cannot amend the basic/fundamental features of the Constitution; SC is the final authority on what constitutes the basic structure; Examples: Secularism, federalism, judicial review, democracy are part of basic structure; About the President: President is the constitutional head but NOT the guardian of the Constitution; He is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers (Article 74).
Option (a) President — Incorrect: The President of India is NOT considered the guardian of the Constitution; the President is the constitutional head of the executive and acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers; while the President takes an oath to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution (Article 60), the institutional role of guardian/protector is played by the Supreme Court through judicial review; the Supreme Court can check unconstitutional actions even by the President.
Option (c) Prime Minister — Incorrect: The Prime Minister is NOT the guardian of the Constitution; the PM is the head of the Council of Ministers and the effective head of the executive; while the PM also takes an oath to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution (Article 75), the role of constitutional guardian belongs to the Supreme Court which has the power of judicial review to strike down unconstitutional actions.
Option (d) Parliament — Incorrect: Parliament is NOT considered the guardian of the Constitution; while Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution (Article 368), even Parliament cannot violate the basic structure of the Constitution ( Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973); the Supreme Court serves as the guardian of the Constitution and can strike down parliamentary legislation that violates constitutional provisions; in fact, the Supreme Court acts as a check on Parliament's power. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.

Correct Answer: 6 years or up to 65 years of age — Option (c)
The Chief Election Commissioner holds office for 6 years or until attaining 65 years of age, whichever is earlier. About the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC): Constitutional provision: Article 324 of the Indian Constitution; The CEC is appointed by the President of India; Term: 6 years OR until attaining the age of 65 years, WHICHEVER IS EARLIER; Removal: The CEC can be removed from office only in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court (i.e., by address of both Houses of Parliament on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity — Article 324(5)); Salary: Charged to the Consolidated Fund of India (thus not subject to vote in Parliament — ensuring independence); The salary is equivalent to that of a Supreme Court judge; Important update — Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023: New law governing appointment of CEC and Election Commissioners; The selection committee now comprises: PM (Chairperson), Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by PM; Key constitutional provisions about Election Commission: Article 324: Superintendence, direction and control of preparation of electoral rolls and conduct of elections vested in Election Commission; Multi-member: The Election Commission consists of CEC and such other Election Commissioners as the President may determine; Currently: 1 CEC + 2 Election Commissioners; Independence: CEC cannot be removed except like a SC judge; Service conditions cannot be varied to CEC's disadvantage after appointment; About Election Commissioners: Same term (6 years or 65 years); But removal is not as protected as CEC.
Option (a) 3 years — Incorrect: The term of office of the Chief Election Commissioner is NOT 3 years; it is 6 years OR until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier; 3 years would be too short for an independent constitutional authority like the CEC; no major Indian constitutional office has a 3-year term.
Option (b) 5 years — Incorrect: The term of office of the Chief Election Commissioner is NOT 5 years; it is 6 years OR until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier; while some constitutional offices like the President and Vice President have 5-year terms, the CEC's term is 6 years (or 65 years of age).
Option (d) 6 years or up to 62 years of age — Incorrect: The retirement age for the Chief Election Commissioner is 65 years (NOT 62 years); while 62 is the retirement age for High Court Judges (and some other officials), the CEC holds office for 6 years or up to 65 years of age, whichever is earlier; Supreme Court judges retire at 65, and the CEC's retirement age was aligned with this.

Correct Answer: Newton (N) — Option (b)
The SI unit of weight is Newton (N). About Weight vs. Mass: This is a very common conceptual confusion — weight and mass are different quantities; Mass: Amount of matter in an object; SI unit: Kilogram (kg); Scalar quantity; Remains constant everywhere; Measured using a balance; Weight: The gravitational force acting on an object; Weight = Mass × Acceleration due to gravity (W = mg); SI unit: Newton (N) — because weight is a FORCE; Vector quantity (has direction — towards center of Earth); Changes with location (less on Moon, zero in space); Measured using a spring balance/weighing scale; Why Newton is the unit of weight: Weight is the force of gravity on an object; Force = Mass × Acceleration (Newton's Second Law: F = ma); SI unit of force is Newton (N) = kg⋅m /s²; Therefore weight (being a force) is measured in Newtons; Numerical example: A person of mass 60 kg on Earth: Weight = 60 × 9.8 = 588 N; On the Moon (g = 1.63 m/s²): Weight = 60 × 1.63 = 97.8 N (less); Mass remains 60 kg in both cases; Common confusion: In everyday life, we say 'I weigh 60 kg' — this is technically mass (60 kg), not weight (588 N); The scientific/SI definition uses Newton for weight; About other options: Joule (J): SI unit of energy/work; Pascal (Pa): SI unit of pressure (Force per unit area); Kilogram (Kg): SI unit of MASS (NOT weight).
Option (a) Kilogram (Kg) — Incorrect: Kilogram is the SI unit of MASS, NOT weight; weight and mass are different physical quantities — mass is the amount of matter (measured in kg), while weight is the gravitational force on that mass (measured in Newton); W = mg (Weight = Mass × g), where g is acceleration due to gravity (~9.8 m/s² on Earth); while we colloquially say 'I weigh 60 kg,' scientifically weight is in Newtons. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.
Option (c) Joule (J) — Incorrect: Joule is NOT the SI unit of weight; Joule is the SI unit of ENERGY and WORK; 1 Joule = 1 Newton-metre = 1 kg⋅m²/s²; energy and weight are different physical quantities; the SI unit of weight (which is a force) is Newton (N).
Option (d) Pascal (Pa) — Incorrect: Pascal is NOT the SI unit of weight; Pascal is the SI unit of PRESSURE; 1 Pascal = 1 Newton per square metre (N/m²); pressure and weight are different quantities — pressure is force per unit area, while weight is simply a force; the SI unit of weight is Newton (N).

Correct Answer: The Room on the Roof — Option (c)
Ruskin Bond's first novel 'The Room on the Roof' won the John Llewellyn Rhys Prize in 1957. About The Room on the Roof: Author: Ruskin Bond; Type: Semi-autobiographical novel; Published: 1956; Award: John Llewellyn Rhys Prize (1957) — a prestigious British literary award for Commonwealth writers under 30; Protagonist: Rusty, a young Anglo-Indian boy in Dehradun; Plot: Rusty lives with a strict English guardian but longs for freedom; He runs away and finds a home and family among Indian friends; It depicts Rusty's coming-of-age and discovery of Indian culture; Written when Ruskin Bond was just 17 years old (while living in London); Setting: Dehradun, Uttarakhand; Sequel: Vagrants in the Valley (also featuring Rusty); About John Llewellyn Rhys Prize: Named after John Llewellyn Rhys, a British writer killed in WWII; Awarded for the best work of literature by a Commonwealth citizen under 30; About Ruskin Bond: Born: May 19, 1934, Kasauli , Punjab (now Himachal Pradesh); Known for: Short stories, novels, and essays set in the Himalayan foothills; Major works: The Room on the Roof (1956), A Flight of Pigeons (1978), The Blue Umbrella (1980), Our Trees Still Grow in Dehra (1991); Awards: Sahitya Akademi Award (1992), Padma Shri (1999), Padma Bhushan (2014); Resides in Landour (Mussoorie), Uttarakhand; One of India's most beloved English-language authors; About other options: The Blue Umbrella (1980): Short novel, inspired the 2005 Vishal Bhardwaj film; A Flight of Pigeons (1978): Set during the 1857 Mutiny; Our Trees Still Grow in Dehra (1991): Won the Sahitya Akademi Award.
Option (a) The Blue Umbrella — Incorrect: 'The Blue Umbrella' was NOT Ruskin Bond's first novel and did NOT win the John Llewellyn Rhys Prize; it was published in 1980 — 24 years after 'The Room on the Roof'; it was later adapted into a Hindi film by Vishal Bhardwaj (2005) starring Pankaj Kapur; the first novel was 'The Room on the Roof' (1956) which won the John Llewellyn Rhys Prize in 1957.
Option (b) A Flight of Pigeons — Incorrect: 'A Flight of Pigeons' was NOT Ruskin Bond's first novel and did NOT win the John Llewellyn Rhys Prize; it was published in 1978 — 22 years after 'The Room on the Roof'; it is set during the 1857 Indian Mutiny and was adapted into the film 'Junoon' (1978) by Shyam Benegal; the first novel was 'The Room on the Roof' (1956).
Option (d) Our Trees Still Grow in Dehra — Incorrect: 'Our Trees Still Grow in Dehra' was NOT Ruskin Bond's first novel and did NOT win the John Llewellyn Rhys Prize; it is a collection of autobiographical stories published in 1991 — 35 years after 'The Room on the Roof'; it won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1992; the novel that won the John Llewellyn Rhys Prize in 1957 was 'The Room on the Roof.' The candidate incorrectly selected this option.

Correct Answer: Lord's, London — Option (a)
The 1983 Cricket World Cup Final was held at Lord's Cricket Ground, London. About the 1983 Cricket World Cup Final: Date: June 25, 1983; Venue: Lord's Cricket Ground, St John's Wood, London, England; Teams: India vs West Indies; Result: India won by 43 runs; India's score: 183 all out (54.4 overs); West Indies' score: 140 all out (52 overs); India's captain: Kapil Dev; West Indies' captain: Clive Lloyd; About India's victory: India was a massive underdog — West Indies were the two-time defending champions (won 1975 and 1979 World Cups); India had never won the World Cup before; Kapil Dev's famous 175* vs Zimbabwe (Tunbridge Wells) earlier in the tournament is legendary; The final saw India's bowlers dismiss West Indies for 140 chasing 184; Key performers: India — Mohinder Amarnath (3/12), Madan Lal (3/31), Balwinder Singh Sandhu (2/32); Vivian Richards was dismissed for 33 by Madan Lal (caught by Kapil Dev); This win transformed Indian cricket forever and ignited the nation's passion for cricket; About Lord's: Called the 'Home of Cricket' — the most iconic cricket ground in the world; Located in St John's Wood, London; Home of the MCC (Marylebone Cricket Club); The slope at Lord's (from north-west to south-east) is famous; The Lord's Media Centre is architecturally iconic; Other famous finals at Lord's: Multiple Ashes Tests, ICC events; About the Prudential World Cup 1983: Officially the 3rd Cricket World Cup; Sponsored by Prudential Insurance; 8 teams participated; 60-overs per side format.
Option (b) The Oval, London — Incorrect: The 1983 Cricket World Cup Final was NOT held at The Oval; it was held at Lord's Cricket Ground; The Oval (Kennington Oval) is another famous cricket ground in London (in South London), home of Surrey County Cricket Club; The Oval hosted World Cup group matches but NOT the 1983 final; the 1983 final was specifically at Lord's Cricket Ground. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.
Option (c) Headingley , Leeds — Incorrect: The 1983 Cricket World Cup Final was NOT held at Headingley ; Headingley Cricket Ground is in Leeds, Yorkshire, and is famous for many great Test matches (including the famous Ashes Test of 1981 — Botham's Test); it hosted group matches of the 1983 World Cup but NOT the final; the 1983 final was at Lord's Cricket Ground, London.
Option (d) Old Trafford, Manchester — Incorrect: The 1983 Cricket World Cup Final was NOT held at Old Trafford; Old Trafford Cricket Ground in Manchester is famous for many Test matches; it hosted some 1983 World Cup group matches but NOT the final; the 1983 final was held at Lord's Cricket Ground, London — the 'Home of Cricket.'

Correct Answer: Virender Sehwag — Option (b)
Virender Sehwag was the first Indian batsman to score a triple century in Test cricket. About Virender Sehwag's Triple Centuries: First triple century: 309 vs Pakistan at Multan Cricket Stadium (March 29, 2004); Sehwag became the first Indian to score a triple century in Tests; He was on 309* when India declared and he remains the only Indian to have scored 300+ twice in Tests; Second triple century: 319 vs South Africa at MA Chidambaram Stadium, Chennai (March 26-27, 2008); 319 was the highest Test score by any Indian until that point; Both scores were individual achievements: 309: India vs Pakistan, Multan (2004), India won by an innings; 319: India vs South Africa, Chennai (2008), India won by an innings; About Virender Sehwag: Born: October 20, 1978, Delhi; Nickname: 'Multan ka Sultan', 'Nawab of Najafgarh', 'Viru'; Known for: Devastating opening batting; played instinctively without caring about averages; Test career: 104 Tests, 8586 runs, average 49.34; Highest Test score: 319* (vs South Africa, Chennai, 2008); ODI career: 251 ODIs, 8273 runs; Team India (World Cup): Played in 2011 World Cup; About other triple centuries by Indians: Karun Nair: 303* vs England, Chennai, December 2016 — became the second Indian to score a triple century; Rohit Sharma, Sachin Tendulkar, Rahul Dravid — none scored a triple century in Tests; Note: Sachin Tendulkar's highest Test score is 248* vs Bangladesh (2004).
Option (a) Sachin Tendulkar — Incorrect: Sachin Tendulkar is NOT the first Indian batsman to score a triple century in Test cricket; Sachin's highest Test score is 248* against Bangladesh in Dhaka (2004); while Sachin holds many batting records, a triple century in Tests is NOT one of them; the first Indian to score a triple century in Tests was Virender Sehwag (309 vs Pakistan, Multan, 2004).
Option (c) Rahul Dravid — Incorrect: Rahul Dravid is NOT the first Indian batsman to score a triple century in Test cricket; Dravid's highest Test score is 270 against Pakistan in Rawalpindi (2004) — the same series as Sehwag's 309; Dravid never scored a triple century; the first Indian to score a triple century in Tests was Virender Sehwag (309 vs Pakistan, Multan, 2004).
Option (d) Karun Nair — Incorrect: Karun Nair did score a triple century (303* vs England, Chennai, December 2016) but he was NOT the FIRST Indian to do so; Virender Sehwag was the first Indian to score a triple century in Tests (309 vs Pakistan, 2004); Karun Nair was the SECOND Indian to achieve this feat, 12 years after Sehwag.

Correct Answer: Assam — Option (d)
The ' Devdhani ' dance is associated with Assam. About Devdhani Dance: State: Assam; Type: Ritual/folk dance; Nature: Performed as part of a religious ritual — specifically involving spirit possession (a practitioner called ' Deodha ' enters a trance); 'Dev' = deity/god, 'Dhani' = one who holds; The Deodha (trance medium) is believed to be possessed by a deity (usually Goddess Manasha, the serpent goddess, or other local deities); The dance is performed in a state of trance and is deeply religious in character; Performed at: Temples and festivals, particularly at Kamakhya Temple (Guwahati) and during Deodha festivals; Setting: Often performed during specific religious occasions; The Deodha dances vigorously, leaps, and performs acts while in a trance state; Cultural significance: An ancient and living tradition of Assam; Part of the rich folk culture of Assam; Distinguished from classical dance forms — it is primarily a spiritual/religious practice; About Assam's cultural heritage: Major dance forms: Bihu dance (associated with Bihu festival — most famous), Devdhani (ritual trance dance), Jhumur dance (tea garden workers); Bihu: Performed during Rongali Bihu ( Bohag Bihu) in April; National dance of Assam; Sattriya : One of 8 classical dance forms of India, from Assam (originating in Vaishnavite monasteries/ Sattras ); Assam is also known for: Silk (Muga silk, Pat silk, Eri silk); Kaziranga National Park (one-horned rhinoceros); Tea gardens (Assam tea is world-famous); Brahmaputra River.
Option (a) Bihar — Incorrect: ' Devdhani ' dance is NOT associated with Bihar; Bihar has its own rich folk dance traditions including Jat-Jatin, Jhijhiya , Bidesia , Samai, Kajri, Karma, Nachni, and Domkach ; Devdhani is a trance-based ritual dance specifically associated with Assam and its Deodha tradition.
Option (b) Tamil Nadu — Incorrect: ' Devdhani ' dance is NOT associated with Tamil Nadu; Tamil Nadu is home to classical Bharatanatyam (one of India's 8 classical dances) and folk dances like Karagattam , Kummi , Kolattam , Kavadi Attam, and Therukoothu ; Devdhani is a trance-based ritual dance of Assam.
Option (c) Himachal Pradesh — Incorrect: ' Devdhani ' dance is NOT associated with Himachal Pradesh; Himachal Pradesh has its own folk traditions including Nati (the longest chain dance, listed in Guinness World Records), Kullu Nati, Losar Shona Chuksam , Dangi, and Rakshasa; Devdhani is a ritual trance dance associated with Assam, not Himachal Pradesh.

Correct Answer: 4000 kg — Option (a)
GSLV Mk-III (LVM3) can carry up to 4000 kg to Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO). About GSLV Mk-III (LVM3): Full name: Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark III; Also renamed: LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark 3) — renamed in 2022; Developer: ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation ); Type: 3-stage launch vehicle; Payload capacity: GTO (Geostationary Transfer Orbit): 4,000 kg; LEO (Low Earth Orbit): 8,000-10,000 kg; GSLV Mk-III stages: Stage 1 (S200): Two solid fuel strap-on boosters; Stage 2 (L110): Liquid fuel core stage; Stage 3 (C25): Cryogenic upper stage (using LOX/LH₂); Significance of C25 Cryogenic Engine: India developed its own cryogenic engine — C25 (Cryogenic Engine 25); Earlier, India had to import cryogenic engines; Russia initially agreed to transfer technology but was blocked by US pressure (MTCR concerns); India independently developed cryogenic technology; Key missions of GSLV Mk-III/LVM3: Chandrayaan-2 (2019): Lunar orbiter and lander; Chandrayaan-3 (2023): Successfully landed on Moon's south pole; OneWeb missions (2022-23): Commercial satellite launches; Comparison of ISRO launch vehicles: SLV-3: 40 kg to LEO; ASLV: 150 kg to LEO; PSLV: ~3,800 kg to LEO; GSLV Mk-II: ~2,500 kg to GTO; GSLV Mk-III (LVM3): 4,000 kg to GTO, ~8,000 kg to LEO; Why GTO matters: Satellites for communication are placed in Geostationary Orbit (36,000 km altitude); GTO is an elliptical transfer orbit used to reach GEO; GSLV Mk-III can launch 4-tonne class communication satellites — India's GSAT series, etc.
Option (b) 8500 — Incorrect: GSLV Mk-III does NOT carry 8,500 kg to Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO); the payload capacity to GTO is 4,000 kg; 8,500 kg is close to its LEO capacity (approximately 8,000-10,000 kg to LEO); GTO and LEO capacities are different — GTO is much harder to reach (requires more delta-v), hence lower payload. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.
Option (c) 9000 — Incorrect: GSLV Mk-III does NOT carry 9,000 kg to GTO; the payload capacity to GTO is 4,000 kg; 9,000 kg might approximate its LEO capacity; the question specifically asks about GTO (Geostationary Transfer Orbit) capacity, which is 4,000 kg for GSLV Mk-III.
Option (d) 10000 — Incorrect: GSLV Mk-III does NOT carry 10,000 kg to GTO; the payload capacity to GTO is 4,000 kg; 10,000 kg is approximately its maximum LEO capacity; GTO requires much more energy than LEO (GTO is at ~36,000 km perigee equivalent, while LEO is ~400-2,000 km), so GTO payload is significantly less than LEO payload.

Correct Answer: 2 consecutive points — Option (b)
In tennis, a player/team needs to win 2 consecutive points after deuce to win the game. About Deuce in Tennis: Deuce: When the score in a game reaches 40-40 (i.e., both players/teams have won 3 points each); After deuce, a player must win 2 CONSECUTIVE points to win the game; This prevents a game from being decided by a single point from deuce; Scoring after deuce: Deuce (40-40): Both players/teams tied at 3 points each; After deuce, if a player wins a point: That player gets 'Advantage' (Ad); If the same player wins the NEXT point: That player wins the GAME (2 consecutive points from deuce); If the opposing player wins the next point after Advantage: Score returns to Deuce; This continues until one player wins 2 consecutive points from Deuce; Tennis Scoring System: Points: 15, 30, 40 (and Deuce at 40-40); Games: First to win 6 games (with 2 clear) wins a Set; Tiebreak at 6-6 in most sets; Sets: First to win 2 sets (best of 3) or 3 sets (best of 5) wins the Match; Match formats: Grand Slams (Men): Best of 5 sets; Grand Slams (Women): Best of 3 sets; Other tournaments: Best of 3 sets; Deuce in doubles: Same rule — 2 consecutive points after deuce; No-Ad rule: In some formats (tie-breaks, mixed doubles at some events), a sudden death point is played at deuce (no advantage system); The 2 consecutive points requirement is the standard rule for regular tennis matches (Ad scoring).
Option (a) 1 — Incorrect: A player/team does NOT win a game by winning just 1 point after deuce; if only 1 point were needed after deuce, it would be a 'sudden death' point at 40-40; in standard tennis, after deuce, winning 1 point gives 'Advantage' (not the game); the player must then win 1 MORE point (total 2 consecutive from deuce) to win the game.
Option (c) 3 — Incorrect: A player/team does NOT need to win 3 consecutive points after deuce to win the game; the requirement is 2 consecutive points; in standard tennis, 2 consecutive points after deuce (Advantage + winning the next point) wins the game; requiring 3 consecutive points would be a different (non-existent) rule.
Option (d) 4 — Incorrect: A player/team does NOT need to win 4 consecutive points after deuce to win the game; the requirement is only 2 consecutive points; 4 consecutive points after deuce would be an extremely long and unusual requirement; the standard tennis rule is 2 consecutive points from deuce to win the game.

Correct Answer: Replace imports of manufactured goods with domestic production through protectionist policies — Option (c)
The objective of ISI was to replace imports of manufactured goods with domestic production through protectionist policies. About Import Substitution Industrialization (ISI): Definition: An inward-looking trade policy strategy that aims to replace foreign imports with domestic production; Period in India: Primarily from Independence (1947) to the economic reforms of 1991; Policy approach: HIGH PROTECTIONISM: High tariffs and import duties on manufactured goods; Quantitative restrictions (QRs) and import licensing; Industrial licensing (License Raj); Foreign exchange controls; Public sector investment in heavy industries; Key objectives: Reduce dependence on foreign manufactured goods; Build domestic industrial capacity; Save foreign exchange; Achieve economic self-sufficiency and self-reliance; Rationale for ISI in India: Post-colonial India faced: Underdeveloped industrial base; Chronic foreign exchange shortages; Need to industrialize rapidly; Belief in Nehruvian socialism and planned development; 'Infant industry' argument: Domestic industries need protection from established foreign competition to grow; Key policies under ISI: High import duties on manufactured goods; Public sector steel plants, heavy engineering; MRTP Act (Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices); FERA (Foreign Exchange Regulation Act); Limitations of ISI: Led to inefficiency and lack of competition; Created 'License Raj' and corruption; Import substitution succeeded in creating industries but not in making them globally competitive; High cost of domestically produced goods; India moved away from ISI after the 1991 reforms (shifted to export-led growth and globalization).
Option (a) Promote export of manufactured goods to earn foreign exchange — Incorrect: Promoting exports was NOT the objective of Import Substitution Industrialization (ISI); ISI was specifically an INWARD-LOOKING strategy focused on domestic production to REPLACE imports — not on exports; export promotion is the OPPOSITE strategy (outward-looking), adopted by countries like South Korea, Taiwan, Singapore; India shifted to export promotion AFTER the 1991 reforms, not during the ISI era.
Option (b) Attract foreign investment in consumer goods industries — Incorrect: Attracting foreign investment was NOT the objective of Import Substitution Industrialization; ISI was about domestic production replacing imports; India during the ISI era was actually quite restrictive about foreign investment (FERA 1973 restricted FDI); the ISI policy aimed to develop DOMESTIC industry through protectionism, NOT to attract foreign companies.
Option (d) Liberalize imports of machinery and capital goods without any restrictions — Incorrect: Liberalizing imports was the OPPOSITE of ISI's objective; ISI was a protectionist, import-restricting policy; it imposed HIGH tariffs, quotas, and licensing to REDUCE imports; liberalization of imports began AFTER the 1991 reforms (LPG) when India moved away from ISI; the correct objective of ISI was to replace imports with domestic production through protectionist policies.

Correct Answer: Year 1991 — Option (a)
FDI limits in India were liberalized in 1991 as part of the historic economic reforms. About 1991 Economic Reforms and FDI Liberalization: Context: India faced a severe Balance of Payments ( BoP ) crisis in 1991; Foreign exchange reserves had fallen to just 2 weeks of imports; India had to pledge gold to the Bank of England and IMF to avoid default; The government (PM P.V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh) introduced sweeping reforms; LPG Reforms (1991): Liberalization — reducing government controls on industry; Privatization — disinvestment of public sector enterprises; Globalization — opening up to foreign trade and investment; FDI Liberalization (1991): Industrial Policy 1991 (announced July 24, 1991): Automatic approval for FDI up to 51% in 34 high-priority industries; Earlier, FERA (Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973) restricted FDI to just 40% in most sectors; Foreign Technology Agreements were simplified; FIPB (Foreign Investment Promotion Board) established; Key FDI policy changes after 1991: 1999: FDI allowed up to 100% in many sectors; 2000: FDI through automatic route expanded significantly; FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act) replaced FERA in 2000; Further liberalization continued in subsequent years (insurance, defence , retail, etc.); About FERA (pre-1991): FERA 1973 severely restricted FDI — most sectors limited to 40%; Coca-Cola left India in 1977 rather than dilute its equity to 40%; IBM also left India in 1977 for the same reason; These companies returned after 1991 reforms.
Option (b) Year 1995 — Incorrect: FDI limits were NOT first liberalized in 1995; the major liberalization of FDI happened in 1991 as part of the new Industrial Policy announced by PM P.V. Narasimha Rao; while further FDI reforms continued in 1995 and beyond, the foundational liberalization occurred in 1991.
Option (c) Year 2000 — Incorrect: FDI limits were NOT first liberalized in 2000; the major FDI liberalization occurred in 1991; however, in 2000, FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act) replaced FERA, and further FDI liberalization happened; the first major liberalization was in 1991 with the new Industrial Policy allowing automatic FDI up to 51% in 34 priority sectors.
Option (d) Year 2010 — Incorrect: FDI limits were NOT first liberalized in 2010; the foundational FDI liberalization occurred in 1991; 2010 saw further sectoral liberalization (FDI in multi-brand retail was debated, defence FDI was enhanced) but the original liberalization happened in 1991 under the new Industrial Policy announced by PM Narasimha Rao and FM Manmohan Singh.

Correct Answer: Provide collateral-free guarantee support — Option (a)
The Credit Guarantee Fund for MSMEs and Startups aims to provide collateral-free guarantee support. About Credit Guarantee Funds for MSMEs: Key scheme: Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE); Established: 2000; By: Ministry of MSME and SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India); Objective: Provide collateral-free credit (loans without security/guarantee) to micro and small enterprises; How it works: The CGTMSE provides a guarantee to banks/lending institutions for loans given to MSMEs without collateral; Banks are more willing to lend to MSMEs when they have a government-backed guarantee; This ensures credit flow to small businesses that don't have assets to pledge; For Startups: Fund of Funds for Startups (FFS): Under Startup India scheme; SEBI-registered Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) provide equity funding; Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS): Provides guarantee cover for loans to DPIIT-recognized startups; Enables startups to get loans without collateral; Why collateral-free credit matters for MSMEs: Most MSMEs are small businesses that don't have enough assets to pledge as collateral; Without guarantee schemes, banks are reluctant to lend; Credit guarantee solves this 'missing collateral' problem; Benefits banks too — reduces their risk through government guarantee; About the MSME sector: India has approximately 6.3 crore MSMEs; Contributes about 30% to GDP; Employs about 11 crore people; Second largest employment sector after agriculture; Contributes about 45-50% to exports; MSME definition revised in 2020: Micro: Investment < Rs 1 crore, Turnover < Rs 5 crore; Small: Investment < Rs 10 crore, Turnover < Rs 50 crore; Medium: Investment < Rs 50 crore, Turnover < Rs 250 crore.
Option (b) Provide grants for research — Incorrect: Providing grants for research is NOT the objective of the Credit Guarantee Fund for MSMEs and Startups; research grants are provided by different agencies (DST, CSIR, DBT, etc.); the Credit Guarantee Fund specifically focuses on providing collateral-free credit guarantees to enable MSMEs and startups to access bank loans without pledging assets as security.
Option (c) Pension fund — Incorrect: A Pension fund is NOT the objective of the Credit Guarantee Fund for MSMEs and Startups; pension funds (like NPS, EPFO) serve a completely different purpose — providing retirement income to workers; the Credit Guarantee Fund is specifically designed to facilitate collateral-free lending to MSMEs and startups by providing guarantee cover to banks.
Option (d) Home loan security — Incorrect: Home loan security is NOT the objective of the Credit Guarantee Fund for MSMEs and Startups; home loan guarantees serve a completely different market segment (individual homebuyers); the Credit Guarantee Fund for MSMEs and Startups specifically targets business loans for micro, small, medium enterprises and startups, providing collateral-free guarantee support to encourage bank lending to this sector.

Correct Answer: 3 pillars — Option (a)
Swabhav Swachhata Sanskar Swachhata Abhiyan 2024 is built around 3 key pillars. About Swabhav Swachhata Sanskar Swachhata Abhiyan (S4 Abhiyan): Full name: Swabhav Swachhata Sanskar Swachhata Abhiyan; Also called: S4 Abhiyan; Launched: 2024 (as part of Swachh Bharat Mission); Launched by: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs ( MoHUA ) and Ministry of Jal Shakti; Context: As India approaches the 10th anniversary of Swachh Bharat Mission (launched October 2, 2014); The S4 Abhiyan focuses on making cleanliness a ' Swabhav ' (natural behavior/instinct) and 'Sanskar' (cultural value); Three Key Pillars of S4 Abhiyan: Pillar 1 — Swabhav (Natural behavior): Making cleanliness an ingrained habit/natural behavior of every Indian; Moving from external compliance to internal motivation for cleanliness; Pillar 2 — Swachhata (Cleanliness): Maintaining physical cleanliness of surroundings, public spaces, and environment; Emphasis on waste management, open defecation free status, solid waste management; Pillar 3 — Sanskar (Cultural values): Embedding cleanliness as a cultural value and social norm; Making cleanliness part of India's cultural ethos (drawing from traditions); Inculcating values in the next generation; About Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM): Launched: October 2, 2014 (on Mahatma Gandhi's birth anniversary); By: PM Narendra Modi; Key achievements: India declared Open Defecation Free (ODF) in 2019; Over 11 crore toilets built; Swachh Survekshan annual cleanliness rankings; SBM 2.0 launched in 2021 focuses on ODF++, solid and liquid waste management.
Option (b) 5 — Incorrect: Swabhav Swachhata Sanskar Swachhata Abhiyan 2024 is NOT built around 5 pillars; it is built around 3 key pillars — Swabhav (natural behavior), Swachhata (cleanliness), and Sanskar (cultural values); 5 pillars would be an incorrect number for the S4 Abhiyan.
Option (c) 7 — Incorrect: Swabhav Swachhata Sanskar Swachhata Abhiyan 2024 is NOT built around 7 pillars; it is built around 3 key pillars; the candidate incorrectly selected 7 as the number of pillars; the 3 pillars of the S4 Abhiyan are Swabhav , Swachhata , and Sanskar.
Option (d) 8 — Incorrect: Swabhav Swachhata Sanskar Swachhata Abhiyan 2024 is NOT built around 8 pillars; it is built around 3 key pillars — Swabhav (natural instinct for cleanliness), Swachhata (physical cleanliness), and Sanskar (cultural values of cleanliness); the 3 pillars reflect the 3 key words in the scheme's name itself.

Correct Answer: 802 — Option (a)
As of 12 March 2025, 802 One Stop Centres (OSCs) are operational across India. About One Stop Centres (OSC): Also known as: Sakhi Centres ; Scheme: One Stop Centre (OSC) Scheme; Launched: April 1, 2015; Ministry: Ministry of Women and Child Development; Objective: To provide integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence — both in private and public spaces; Services provided at OSC: Police assistance; Medical assistance (first aid, medical examination); Legal aid and counseling; Psycho-social counseling; Temporary shelter (short- term — up to 5 days); Multi-sectoral services under one roof — hence 'One Stop' Centre; Who can avail: Women and girls (of any age) affected by violence; Women in distress from domestic violence, sexual assault, acid attacks, trafficking, etc.; Funding: Centrally sponsored scheme — funded 100% by Centre; Implementation: District level — usually co-located with district hospitals; Run under Nirbhaya Fund; Progress: Started with a pilot of 36 OSCs in 2015; Target: One OSC per district; As of 12 March 2025: 802 OSCs operational across India; About Nirbhaya Fund: Created in 2013 after the December 2012 Delhi gang rape case ('Nirbhaya' case); Used to fund schemes for safety and security of women; OSC scheme, CCTNS, safe city projects funded from Nirbhaya Fund.
Option (b) 1102 — Incorrect: As of 12 March 2025, the number of operational One Stop Centres (OSCs) in India is NOT 1,102; the correct number is 802; 1,102 would exceed even the total number of districts in India (approximately 766 districts); the target is one OSC per district and 802 is the verified count as of 12 March 2025.
Option (c) 102 — Incorrect: As of 12 March 2025, the number of operational One Stop Centres is NOT 102; 102 would be far too few — the OSC scheme has been expanding rapidly since 2015; the correct number is 802 OSCs operational as of 12 March 2025.
Option (d) 402 — Incorrect: As of 12 March 2025, the number of operational One Stop Centres is NOT 402; 402 was perhaps an earlier figure; by 12 March 2025, the number had grown to 802 operational OSCs across India; the scheme has been expanding rapidly with Nirbhaya Fund support.

Correct Answer: 59% — Option (a)
Between NFHS-4 and NFHS-5, the use of clean cooking fuel in India increased from 44% to 59%. About this Statistic: NFHS-4: National Family Health Survey - 4 (2015-16); Percentage using clean cooking fuel: 44%; NFHS-5: National Family Health Survey - 5 (2019-21); Percentage using clean cooking fuel: 59%; Increase: From 44% to 59% — an increase of 15 percentage points; This represents a significant improvement largely attributed to the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY); About NFHS: National Family Health Survey: Conducted by: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MOHFW), Government of India; Implementation: International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS), Mumbai; Frequency: Every 4-5 years; Coverage: Health, nutrition, population, and family welfare data; About Clean Cooking Fuel: Clean cooking fuels include: LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas), PNG (Piped Natural Gas), Biogas, Electric stoves, Solar cookers; Unclean/traditional fuels: Firewood, crop residue, cow dung, kerosene; About Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY): Launched: May 1, 2016; By: PM Narendra Modi in Ballia, UP; Objective: Provide LPG connections to BPL (Below Poverty Line) households, especially women; Target: 8 crore LPG connections to BPL women (initial target); Achievement: By 2020, 8 crore connections given; PMUY 2.0: Launched in 2021; Extended to migrants and other deprived categories; Now over 10 crore connections provided; Impact: The significant increase from 44% to 59% in clean cooking fuel usage (NFHS-4 to NFHS-5) is largely credited to PMUY; Health benefits: Reduces indoor air pollution (HAP — Household Air Pollution); Reduces risk of respiratory diseases, especially for women and children.
Option (b) 65% — Incorrect: The use of clean cooking fuel in India between NFHS-4 and NFHS-5 did NOT increase to 65%; the correct figure from NFHS-5 (2019-21) is 59%; while 65% would represent further progress, the actual NFHS-5 data shows 59% — a 15 percentage point increase from NFHS-4's 44%.
Option (c) 71% — Incorrect: The use of clean cooking fuel in India did NOT increase to 71% between NFHS-4 and NFHS-5; the correct figure from NFHS-5 (2019-21) is 59%; 71% would be much higher than the actual recorded figure; while clean cooking fuel access continues to improve, the NFHS-5 recorded percentage is 59%.
Option (d) 75% — Incorrect: The use of clean cooking fuel in India did NOT increase to 75% between NFHS-4 and NFHS-5; the correct figure from NFHS-5 (2019-21) is 59%; while 75% might be a future target or aspiration, the actual NFHS-5 data shows 59%; the question specifically asks about the NFHS-4 to NFHS-5 change.

Correct Answer: Neither I nor II — Option (d)
Both statements are INCORRECT — the definitions of anaerobic and aerobic respiration are swapped in both statements. About Respiration types: Aerobic Respiration: Definition: Respiration that occurs IN THE PRESENCE OF OXYGEN; Products: CO₂ + H₂O + Energy (ATP); Location: Mitochondria; More efficient — produces 36-38 ATP per glucose molecule; Equation: C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + 38 ATP; Examples: Most cells in our body use aerobic respiration; Anaerobic Respiration: Definition: Respiration that occurs IN THE ABSENCE OF OXYGEN; Products vary by organism: In muscles (during intense exercise): Lactic acid + Energy (small amount); In yeast/microbes: Ethanol + CO₂ + Energy (small amount); Less efficient — produces only 2 ATP per glucose molecule; Equation (in muscles): C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₃H₆O₃ (lactic acid) + 2 ATP; Examples: Yeast (fermentation), some bacteria, muscle cells during strenuous exercise; Evaluation of statements: Statement I — 'Anaerobic — Presence of oxygen' — WRONG: Anaerobic means WITHOUT oxygen (prefix 'an' = without); anaerobic respiration occurs in the ABSENCE of oxygen; Statement II — 'Aerobic — Absence of oxygen' — WRONG: Aerobic means WITH oxygen (prefix 'aero' = air/oxygen); aerobic respiration requires the PRESENCE of oxygen; Both statements have the oxygen conditions REVERSED; Therefore, NEITHER I NOR II is correct; Key memory tip: 'Aerobic' = 'Aero' = Air = With oxygen; 'Anaerobic' = 'Ana' = Against/Without = Without oxygen.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Statement I is INCORRECT — 'Anaerobic — Presence of oxygen' is WRONG; anaerobic respiration occurs in the ABSENCE of oxygen (prefix 'an' = without); in fact, ' an ' before 'aerobic' means 'without air/oxygen'; both statements are wrong, so 'Only I' cannot be the answer.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Statement II is INCORRECT — 'Aerobic — Absence of oxygen' is WRONG; aerobic respiration requires the PRESENCE of oxygen (prefix 'aero' = air = oxygen); aerobic respiration uses oxygen to completely oxidize glucose into CO₂ and water; both statements have the oxygen conditions reversed, so 'Only II' cannot be the answer.
Option (c) Both I and II — Incorrect: BOTH statements are incorrect; Statement I wrongly says anaerobic occurs in presence of oxygen (it occurs in ABSENCE); Statement II wrongly says aerobic occurs in absence of oxygen (it occurs in PRESENCE); both definitions are exactly reversed; the correct pairing is: Aerobic = presence of oxygen; Anaerobic = absence of oxygen.

Correct Answer: Samudragupta — Option (c)
Samudragupta became the ruler of the Gupta Empire after Chandragupta I. About the Gupta Dynasty — Succession: Chandragupta I (c. 319-335 CE): Founded the Gupta Era (320 CE); Married Kumaradevi of the Lichchhavi clan (a politically significant matrimonial alliance); First powerful Gupta ruler to use the title ' Maharajadhiraja ' (great king of kings); Established Gupta Empire's foundation; Samudragupta (c. 335-375 CE): SON and successor of Chandragupta I; Called the 'Napoleon of India' by historian V.A. Smith; Conducted extensive military campaigns across India; Ashvamedha Yajna (horse sacrifice) performed; His military exploits recorded in the Allahabad Prasasti (pillar inscription) composed by his court poet Harishena; Four types of policy towards rulers he conquered: Aryavarta (north India): Uprooted kings; Forest kingdoms: Made subordinate; South India ( Dakshinapatha ): Captured then released; Frontier kingdoms: Made tributary; Chandragupta II / Vikramaditya (c. 375-415 CE): SON and successor of Samudragupta; Also known as Vikramaditya; Extended empire to northwestern India (captured Malwa, Gujarat, Saurashtra from Western Satraps/Shaka rulers); Chinese traveller Fa Hien (Faxian) visited during his reign; The 'Golden Age' of India — Navaratnas at his court; Gupta succession order: Sri Gupta → Ghatotkacha → Chandragupta I → Samudragupta → Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) → Kumaragupta I → Skandagupta → (Later minor kings) → Budhagupta .
Option (a) Kumaragupta II — Incorrect: Kumaragupta II was NOT the immediate successor of Chandragupta I; Kumaragupta II was a LATER Gupta ruler who came after Skandagupta (a later period in the Gupta dynasty); the immediate successor of Chandragupta I was Samudragupta (his son).
Option (b) Budhagupta — Incorrect: Budhagupta was NOT the immediate successor of Chandragupta I; Budhagupta was a much LATER Gupta ruler (c. 476-495 CE) who ruled during the decline of the Gupta Empire; the Gupta succession after Chandragupta I was: Samudragupta → Chandragupta II → Kumaragupta I → Skandagupta → (later kings including Budhagupta ); the immediate successor of Chandragupta I was Samudragupta.
Option (d) Chandragupta II — Incorrect: Chandragupta II was NOT the immediate successor of Chandragupta I; Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) was the GRANDSON of Chandragupta I; the succession was: Chandragupta I → Samudragupta (son) → Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya, grandson); the immediate successor of Chandragupta I was Samudragupta.

Correct Answer: Government of India Act 1935 — Option (a)
The Government of India Act 1935 provided for Provincial Autonomy. About the Government of India Act 1935 and Provincial Autonomy: Key feature: PROVINCIAL AUTONOMY — the most important feature of the Act; Under this Act, provinces were given autonomous status — meaning they could govern themselves without interference from the Governor General in most matters; Governors were required to act on the advice of the Provincial Council of Ministers (responsible government at provincial level); The Act abolished 'Dyarchy' in the provinces (introduced by the 1919 Act) and gave full responsible government at provincial level; Implementation: Part relating to Provinces implemented in 1937; Part relating to All-India Federation was NEVER implemented (because Princely States refused to join); Congress contested the 1937 elections and formed governments in 7 out of 11 provinces; Other features of the 1935 Act: Proposed an All-India Federation (of British India provinces + Princely States) — never implemented; Introduced a Federal Court (established 1937, replaced by Supreme Court in 1950); Created Reserve Bank of India (RBI) — established 1935; Established Public Service Commissions at federal and provincial levels; Gave vote to more people (35 million could vote); Introduced federal list, provincial list, and concurrent list (three-tier distribution of powers); About other Acts: Government of India Act 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms): Introduced DYARCHY in provinces (division of provincial subjects into 'reserved' subjects administered by Governor and 'transferred' subjects administered by Ministers); NOT provincial autonomy; Government of India Act 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms): Introduced communal/separate electorates for Muslims; NOT provincial autonomy; Government of India Act 1861: Restarted the legislative councils abolished after 1857 Mutiny; Not related to provincial autonomy.
Option (b) Government of India Act 1919 — Incorrect: The Government of India Act 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms) did NOT introduce Provincial Autonomy; it introduced DYARCHY — a system of dual government where provincial subjects were divided into 'reserved' subjects (Governor's executive control) and 'transferred' subjects (Ministers' control); Dyarchy was actually criticized for NOT giving real autonomy; Provincial Autonomy was introduced by the Government of India Act 1935.
Option (c) Government of India Act 1909 — Incorrect: The Government of India Act 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms) did NOT introduce Provincial Autonomy; it is primarily known for introducing communal representation/separate electorates for Muslims (first time); it slightly enlarged the legislative councils and added elected non-official members; Provincial Autonomy was introduced much later by the Government of India Act 1935.
Option (d) Government of India Act 1861 — Incorrect: The Government of India Act 1861 did NOT introduce Provincial Autonomy; it restored Legislative Councils that had been abolished after the 1857 Mutiny; it enabled Indians to be nominated to Legislative Councils for the first time; it decentralized some power to provinces but NOT provincial autonomy; Provincial Autonomy was a feature of the much later Government of India Act 1935.

Correct Answer: 121 districts — Option (a)
The Northeast District SDG Index 2023-24 included 121 districts from the Northeast region. About Northeast District SDG Index 2023-24: Developed by: Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region ( MDoNER ) and NITI Aayog; Purpose: Track and monitor progress of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) at the district level in Northeastern states; Coverage: 121 districts across 8 northeastern states: Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura; Significance: First of its kind district-level SDG index for a specific region (Northeast India); Helps identify districts that are 'Aspirants', 'Performers', 'Front Runners', or 'Achievers'; Enables targeted interventions for SDG achievement; About Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): 17 SDGs adopted by UN General Assembly in September 2015; Part of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development; India has been mapping its progress on SDGs; NITI Aayog releases the SDG India Index (national level); About the Northeast Region: 8 states: Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura; Often called the 'Seven Sisters + One Brother'; Special challenges: Geographical isolation, border areas, tribal populations, connectivity issues; Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region ( MDoNER ): Dedicated ministry for northeastern development; Acts as a facilitator for NE states in accessing Central funds and schemes.
Option (b) 100 — Incorrect: The Northeast District SDG Index 2023-24 did NOT include 100 districts; it included 121 districts from all 8 northeastern states (Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura); 100 would fall short of the actual number covered.
Option (c) 101 — Incorrect: The Northeast District SDG Index 2023-24 did NOT include 101 districts; it included 121 districts; 101 is close to the actual number but incorrect; the index was specifically developed to cover all 121 districts across the 8 northeastern states for comprehensive SDG monitoring.
Option (d) 141 — Incorrect: The Northeast District SDG Index 2023-24 did NOT include 141 districts; it included 121 districts; 141 would exceed the actual number of districts in the Northeast region; the 8 northeastern states together have 121 districts that were included in the SDG Index 2023-24.