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SSC GD 2026 6 May 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 19 GK / GS questions asked in SSC GD 2026 on 6 May 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Physics, Static GK, Chemistry, Biology, Medieval History.

📚 19 questions🗓️ 6 May 2026⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Polity (4) · Physics (1) · Static GK (3) · Chemistry (1) · Biology (2) · Medieval History (1) · Economics (2) · Ancient History (1) · Current Affairs (2) · Modern History (1) · Geography (1)

Polity (4)

Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Comptroller and Auditor General

Q1. Which constitutional body audits the accounts of the Union and states?

  1. (a) Finance Commission
  2. (b) Comptroller and Auditor General
  3. (c) NITI Aayog
  4. (d) Union Public Service Commission
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Comptroller and Auditor General

Correct Answer: Comptroller and Auditor General — Option (b)
The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is a constitutional authority established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution. The CAG is appointed by the President of India and is responsible for auditing the accounts of the Union Government and all State Governments. The CAG ensures that public money is spent in accordance with laws and regulations, reports are submitted to Parliament/State Legislature, and financial accountability is maintained. The CAG is often called the 'guardian of public purse'.
Option (a) Finance Commission — Incorrect: The Finance Commission (Article 280) is constituted every five years to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and States; it does not audit accounts.
Option (c) NITI Aayog — Incorrect: NITI Aayog is a policy think-tank and advisory body, not a constitutional body; it does not audit government accounts.
Option (d) Union Public Service Commission — Incorrect: UPSC (Article 315) conducts civil service examinations and advises on recruitment matters; it has no role in auditing government accounts.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Financial Emergency (Article 360)

Q2. Which type of emergency has never been proclaimed in India?

  1. (a) National Emergency
  2. (b) President's Rule
  3. (c) Financial Emergency
  4. (d) None of the above
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Financial Emergency

Correct Answer: Financial Emergency — Option (c)
The Indian Constitution provides for three types of emergency : (1) National Emergency under Article 352, (2) President's Rule (State Emergency) under Article 356, and (3) Financial Emergency under Article 360. While National Emergency has been proclaimed three times (1962, 1971, 1975) and President's Rule has been imposed in several states numerous times, Financial Emergency under Article 360 has NEVER been proclaimed in India since independence. It can be proclaimed when the financial stability or credit of India or any part thereof is threatened.
Option (a) National Emergency — Incorrect: National Emergency HAS been proclaimed three times — in 1962 (China war), 1971 (Pakistan war), and 1975 (internal disturbance under Indira Gandhi).
Option (b) President's Rule — Incorrect: President's Rule (Article 356) HAS been imposed hundreds of times in various states since independence.
Option (d) None of the above — Incorrect: Financial Emergency has indeed never been proclaimed, making Option (c) the correct answer.
State Government · Advocate General

Q3. Who has the power to appoint the Advocate General of a State?

  1. (a) Chief Minister
  2. (b) State Legislature
  3. (c) Governor
  4. (d) President
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Governor

Correct Answer: Governor — Option (c)
Under Article 165 of the Indian Constitution, the Governor of each state appoints the Advocate General of the State. The Advocate General is the highest law officer of the state, analogous to the Attorney General of India at the central level. The person appointed must be qualified to be a judge of a High Court. The Advocate General holds office during the pleasure of the Governor and advises the state government on legal matters.
Option (a) Chief Minister — Incorrect: While the Chief Minister may recommend a name, the constitutional power to appoint the Advocate General vests in the Governor under Article 165.
Option (b) State Legislature — Incorrect: The State Legislature has no role in appointing the Advocate General; this is an executive appointment made by the Governor.
Option (d) President — Incorrect: The President appoints the Attorney General of India (Article 76), not the Advocate General of a State. State-level appointment is by the Governor.

Q4. The Goods and Services Tax Council is chaired by:

  1. (a) Prime Minister
  2. (b) NITI Aayog CEO
  3. (c) RBI Governor
  4. (d) Finance Minister of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Finance Minister of India

Correct Answer: Finance Minister of India — Option (d)
The GST Council is a constitutional body established under Article 279A of the Indian Constitution. It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister of India. The Council comprises the Finance Ministers of all State Governments and Union Territories as members, along with the Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue. The GST Council makes recommendations on matters related to GST rates, exemptions, threshold limits, and administrative procedures. Decisions are taken by a three-fourths majority.
Option (a) Prime Minister — Incorrect: The Prime Minister does not chair the GST Council. The Finance Minister of India is the Chairman of the GST Council.
Option (b) NITI Aayog CEO — Incorrect: The NITI Aayog CEO has no role in the GST Council; it is a policy body, not a tax regulatory body.
Option (c) RBI Governor — Incorrect: The RBI Governor is the head of India's central bank and has no role in chairing the GST Council.

Physics (1)

Sound and Waves · Range of hearing, infrasonic and ultrasonic sound

Q5. What is the frequency range of sound that can be heard by the human ear?

  1. (a) 2 Hz to 200 Hz
  2. (b) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
  3. (c) 200 Hz to 2000 Hz
  4. (d) 2000 Hz to 20,000 Hz
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz

Correct Answer: 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz — Option (b)
The human ear can detect sound waves in the frequency range of 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz (20 kHz). This range is called the audible range or sonic range. Sound below 20 Hz is called infrasound (e.g., produced by earthquakes, large animals like elephants), and sound above 20,000 Hz is called ultrasound (e.g., used in medical imaging, by bats and dolphins). The human ear is most sensitive to frequencies between 1,000 Hz and 4,000 Hz.
Option (a) 2 Hz to 200 Hz — Incorrect: 2 Hz falls in the infrasound range (below human hearing); 200 Hz is within the audible range but the upper limit of human hearing is 20,000 Hz, not 200 Hz.
Option (c) 200 Hz to 2000 Hz — Incorrect: While this range falls within human hearing, it does not represent the full audible range, which begins at 20 Hz (not 200 Hz).
Option (d) 2000 Hz to 20,000 Hz — Incorrect: This range misses the lower portion of human hearing (20 Hz to 2000 Hz), which is where most speech and low-pitched sounds are heard.

Static GK (3)

Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q6. Which of the following is NOT a work written by William Wordsworth?

  1. (a) The Excursion
  2. (b) Intimations of Immortality
  3. (c) Hyperion
  4. (d) Michael
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Hyperion

Correct Answer: Hyperion — Option (c)
'Hyperion' is a poem written by John Keats, not William Wordsworth. Keats began writing 'Hyperion' in 1818 and left it unfinished; it deals with the fall of the Titans and the rise of the Olympian gods. All other options are genuine works of William Wordsworth: 'The Excursion' (1814) is a long philosophical poem; 'Ode: Intimations of Immortality from Recollections of Early Childhood' (1807) is one of his greatest odes; and 'Michael' (1800) is a pastoral poem about a shepherd.
Option (a) The Excursion — Incorrect as an answer: 'The Excursion' (1814) IS a work by William Wordsworth, so it cannot be the NOT option.
Option (b) Intimations of Immortality — Incorrect as an answer: 'Ode: Intimations of Immortality' IS one of Wordsworth's most celebrated poems.
Option (d) Michael — Incorrect as an answer: 'Michael: A Pastoral Poem' (1800) IS a work by William Wordsworth about a shepherd and his son.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q7. Neeraj Chopra won his first-ever gold medal in javelin at the Asian Games in which year and city?

  1. (a) 2014, Incheon
  2. (b) 2018, Jakarta
  3. (c) 2022, Hangzhou
  4. (d) 2010, Guangzhou
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2018, Jakarta

Correct Answer: 2018, Jakarta — Option (b)
Neeraj Chopra won his first Asian Games gold medal in javelin throw at the 2018 Asian Games held in Jakarta, Indonesia. He threw 88.06 metres to win the gold medal and set a new Games record. This was before his historic Olympic gold at Tokyo 2020. Neeraj had first gained national attention at the 2016 South Asian Games and the 2018 Commonwealth Games (Gold, Gold Coast) before his Asian Games triumph.
Option (a) 2014, Incheon — Incorrect: Neeraj Chopra did not participate in the 2014 Asian Games in Incheon, South Korea; he was still in his early career.
Option (c) 2022, Hangzhou — Incorrect: At the 2022 Asian Games (held in 2023 in Hangzhou), Neeraj Chopra won gold again, but this was NOT his first — his first Asian Games gold was at Jakarta 2018.
Option (d) 2010, Guangzhou — Incorrect: Neeraj Chopra was only 12 years old in 2010; he certainly did not compete in javelin at the Guangzhou Asian Games.

Q8. 'Kambala' festival is celebrated in which of the following Indian states?

  1. (a) Karnataka
  2. (b) Gujarat
  3. (c) Assam
  4. (d) Tripura
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Karnataka

Correct Answer: Karnataka — Option (a)
Kambala is a traditional buffalo race festival celebrated in the coastal districts of Karnataka (particularly in Dakshina Kannada and Udupi districts). In Kambala, pairs of buffaloes run through a muddy paddy field track, guided by their handlers. The festival is held during the winter months (November to March) and has been a centuries-old tradition of the Tulu-speaking community ( Tuluvas ) of coastal Karnataka. It gained national attention in 2017 when Srinivas Gowda's buffaloes covered 100m in 9.55 seconds, comparable to Usain Bolt's speed.
Option (b) Gujarat — Incorrect: Gujarat is known for festivals like Navratri (Garba/Dandiya) and Uttarayan (Kite Festival); Kambala is not associated with Gujarat.
Option (c) Assam — Incorrect: Assam celebrates festivals like Bihu; Kambala is a buffalo racing tradition of coastal Karnataka, not Assam.
Option (d) Tripura — Incorrect: Tripura celebrates Garia Puja and Ker Puja; Kambala is specific to coastal Karnataka.

Chemistry (1)

Environmental Chemistry · Air pollutants and their sources

Q9. Which of the following meteorological factors can reduce Air Quality Index (AQI) temporarily?

  1. (a) High humidity without rain
  2. (b) Calm wind
  3. (c) Temperature inversion
  4. (d) Rain
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Rain

Correct Answer: Rain — Option (d)
Rain is a natural air purifier that temporarily reduces the Air Quality Index (AQI) by washing pollutants — including PM2.5, PM10, dust, and gases — out of the atmosphere through wet deposition. Raindrops capture particulate matter and bring them to the ground, leading to a significant but temporary improvement in air quality. This is why AQI values often drop sharply during and immediately after rainfall episodes.
Option (a) High humidity without rain — Incorrect: High humidity without rain can actually WORSEN AQI by helping particles absorb moisture and grow larger, increasing haze and particulate concentration.
Option (b) Calm wind — Incorrect: Calm (low) wind allows pollutants to accumulate near the source without dispersal, which WORSENS AQI rather than improving it.
Option (c) Temperature inversion — Incorrect: Temperature inversion (warm air above cold air) traps pollutants near the ground, severely WORSENING AQI — it is one of the main causes of smog episodes.

Biology (2)

Diseases, Immunity and Health · Drug and alcohol abuse

Q10. What are anabolic steroids primarily used for by athletes who misuse them?

  1. (a) Increase endurance
  2. (b) Enhance flexibility
  3. (c) Build muscle mass
  4. (d) Reduce fatigue
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Build muscle mass

Correct Answer: Build muscle mass — Option (c)
Anabolic steroids are synthetic derivatives of testosterone. When misused by athletes, their primary purpose is to build muscle mass (muscle hypertrophy) rapidly. Anabolic steroids promote protein synthesis in muscle cells, leading to faster muscle growth and increased strength. This allows athletes to train harder and recover faster. However, their misuse is banned in sports by WADA due to serious health risks including liver damage, cardiovascular problems, hormonal imbalance, and psychological effects.
Option (a) Increase endurance — Incorrect: Endurance is primarily increased through EPO (erythropoietin), which boosts red blood cell production. Anabolic steroids are specifically used for muscle mass and strength, not aerobic endurance.
Option (b) Enhance flexibility — Incorrect: Anabolic steroids do not enhance flexibility. Flexibility is improved through stretching and yoga-type training, not pharmacological agents.
Option (d) Reduce fatigue — Incorrect: While stronger muscles may indirectly delay fatigue, 'reducing fatigue' is not the primary reason athletes misuse anabolic steroids; building muscle mass is the main goal.
Nutrition and Digestion · Minerals - sources, functions and deficiency

Q11. Which element is required by the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine?

  1. (a) Calcium
  2. (b) Iodine
  3. (c) Sodium
  4. (d) Potassium
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Iodine

Correct Answer: Iodine — Option (b)
The thyroid gland requires iodine to produce its hormones — thyroxine (T4, containing 4 iodine atoms) and triiodothyronine (T3, containing 3 iodine atoms). Iodine is absorbed from the diet through the bloodstream and actively taken up by the thyroid gland. Deficiency of iodine leads to hypothyroidism and goitre (enlargement of the thyroid gland). This is why table salt is iodized — to prevent iodine deficiency disorders (IDD).
Option (a) Calcium — Incorrect: Calcium is required by the parathyroid gland (for regulating blood calcium levels) and for bone health, but it is not an ingredient of thyroxine. Iodine is the essential element for thyroid hormone synthesis.
Option (c) Sodium — Incorrect: Sodium is an electrolyte important for nerve function and fluid balance; it is not required for thyroxine production.
Option (d) Potassium — Incorrect: Potassium is essential for heart function and cellular metabolism; it has no role in the synthesis of thyroid hormones.

Medieval History (1)

Mughal Empire · Aurangzeb

Q12. Aurangzeb's long Deccan campaigns mainly aimed at subduing:

  1. (a) The Rajputs
  2. (b) The Marathas
  3. (c) The Afghans
  4. (d) The Portuguese
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Marathas

Correct Answer: The Marathas — Option (b)
Aurangzeb spent the last 25 years of his reign (1682–1707) in the Deccan, primarily to subdue the Marathas under Chhatrapati Shivaji's successors. After Shivaji's death (1680), Aurangzeb captured Sambhaji (Shivaji's son) and had him executed in 1689. Despite capturing Bijapur (1686) and Golconda (1687), the Maratha guerrilla warfare exhausted the Mughal treasury and army. Aurangzeb died in Ahmednagar in 1707 without achieving his goal. The Deccan campaigns are considered a major factor in the decline of the Mughal Empire.
Option (a) The Rajputs — Incorrect: Aurangzeb did have conflicts with some Rajput chiefs (especially Mewar and Marwar in the 1670s), but his long Deccan campaigns (1682–1707) were specifically aimed at the Marathas.
Option (c) The Afghans — Incorrect: The Afghans were not the primary target of Aurangzeb's Deccan campaigns; Afghan tribal conflicts were more relevant to earlier Mughal rulers.
Option (d) The Portuguese — Incorrect: The Portuguese were a coastal trading power; Aurangzeb's Deccan campaigns were not against the Portuguese.

Economics (2)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Skill development and employment schemes

Q13. Which of the following is a target group for PM-DAKSH Scheme
as seen in news in July 2025?
I. Scheduled Caste II. Other Backward Caste

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
PM-DAKSH (Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi) Yojana is a skill development scheme implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. The scheme targets multiple marginalized groups: Scheduled Castes (SC), Other Backward Classes (OBC), Economically Backward Classes (EBC), De-notified/Nomadic/Semi-Nomadic Tribes (DNT), Safai Karamcharis, and Sanitation Workers. Both Scheduled Caste and Other Backward Caste communities are covered under PM-DAKSH, making 'Both I and II' the correct answer.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: PM-DAKSH covers not only Scheduled Castes but also Other Backward Castes and other marginalized communities.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: PM-DAKSH covers both Scheduled Castes and Other Backward Castes, not just OBC.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Both Scheduled Castes and Other Backward Castes are explicitly listed as target groups under PM-DAKSH.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Deficits (fiscal, revenue, primary)

Q14. Which of the following is NOT a way to finance a budgetary deficit?
I. Borrowings II. Taxation

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: Neither I nor II — Option (d)
A budgetary deficit occurs when the government's expenditure exceeds its revenue. The standard ways to finance a budgetary deficit include: Borrowings (domestic and external — government bonds, Treasury bills), Taxation (increasing tax revenue), Deficit financing (printing money), and Drawing down reserves. Both Statement I (Borrowings) and Statement II (Taxation) ARE genuine ways to finance a budgetary deficit. Since the question asks which is NOT a way to finance a deficit, and both I and II ARE valid methods, the answer is 'Neither I nor II' — meaning neither statement qualifies as 'NOT a way to finance a deficit'.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Borrowings IS a standard method of financing a budgetary deficit (government borrows from markets via bonds); it should NOT be excluded.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Taxation IS a way to finance a budgetary deficit by increasing government revenue; it should NOT be excluded.
Option (c) Both I and II — Incorrect: Both borrowings and taxation are valid deficit financing methods; claiming both are NOT ways is incorrect.

Ancient History (1)

Post-Gupta Period · Pallavas

Q15. Which Pallava king defeated and killed Pulakesin II?

  1. (a) Dhruva
  2. (b) Parantaka I
  3. (c) Narasimhavarman I
  4. (d) Amoghavarsha I
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Narasimhavarman I

Correct Answer: Narasimhavarman I — Option (c)
Narasimhavarman I (630–668 CE), also known as ' Mamalla ' (great wrestler), was the greatest Pallava ruler. He defeated and killed Pulakesin II of the Chalukya dynasty of Vatapi (Badami) around 642 CE, avenging his father Mahendravarman I's defeat. After this victory, Narasimhavarman I captured and destroyed the Chalukya capital Vatapi (Badami) and assumed the title ' Vatapikonda ' (conqueror of Vatapi). He also built the famous Shore Temple and rock-cut rathas at Mahabalipuram.
Option (a) Dhruva — Incorrect: Dhruva was a Rashtrakuta king (late 8th century), not a Pallava king; he is not associated with defeating Pulakesin II.
Option (b) Parantaka I — Incorrect: Parantaka I was a later Pallava/Chola king (9th–10th century), who lived after Pulakesin II's time; he did not defeat Pulakesin II.
Option (d) Amoghavarsha I — Incorrect: Amoghavarsha I was a Rashtrakuta king (9th century) known for literature and Jainism; he had no connection to Pulakesin II.

Current Affairs (2)

Art, Culture and Events - Current · Festivals and cultural events - current

Q16. The 3-day International Bird Festival 2025 was organised at ___ from 16 to 18 February 2025.

  1. (a) Prayagraj
  2. (b) Bhopal
  3. (c) Patna
  4. (d) Bhagalpur
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Prayagraj

Correct Answer: Prayagraj — Option (a)
The 3-day International Bird Festival 2025 was organised at Prayagraj (Uttar Pradesh) from 16 to 18 February 2025. The festival was held in connection with the Maha Kumbh 2025, which coincided with Prayagraj being a hub for migratory birds along the Ganga-Yamuna-Sarswati confluence. The event brought together ornithologists, bird watchers, and nature enthusiasts to celebrate avian biodiversity and raise awareness about bird conservation.
Option (b) Bhopal — Incorrect: Bhopal is known for the Upper Lake and bird watching, but the International Bird Festival 2025 (February 16–18) was held at Prayagraj, not Bhopal.
Option (c) Patna — Incorrect: Patna has the Gandhi Setu and is near bird sanctuaries, but the 2025 International Bird Festival was organized at Prayagraj.
Option (d) Bhagalpur — Incorrect: Bhagalpur in Bihar is famous for the Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary, but the International Bird Festival 2025 was held at Prayagraj.
International Affairs and Summits · Global events and elections

Q17. Operation Gideon's Chariots is associated with which of the following countries?

  1. (a) India
  2. (b) Israel
  3. (c) Turkey
  4. (d) UAE
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Israel

Correct Answer: Israel — Option (b)
Operation Gideon's Chariots (also referred to as Operation Gideon Chariots) is a military operation associated with Israel. It was an Israeli military operation conducted as part of Israel's ongoing operations in Gaza and the broader conflict in the region. The operation name draws from the biblical story of Gideon, a judge of ancient Israel, reflecting Israel's tradition of naming military operations after biblical figures and events. The operation was part of Israel's military campaign in 2025.
Option (a) India — Incorrect: India has its own set of military operation names (Operation Sindoor , Operation Brahma, etc.); Operation Gideon's Chariots is an Israeli operation.
Option (c) Turkey — Incorrect: Turkey conducts its own military operations (such as Operation Claw-Lock in northern Iraq); Gideon's Chariots is an Israeli operation.
Option (d) UAE — Incorrect: The UAE is not associated with Operation Gideon's Chariots; this is specifically an Israeli military operation.

Modern History (1)

Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · Partition of Bengal and Swadeshi Movement

Q18. Who delivered a speech in Bombay on January 15, 1908, declaring that the purpose of national education was to awaken the spirit of nationalism among students?

  1. (a) Rabindranath Tagore
  2. (b) Sri Aurobindo Ghose
  3. (c) Lala Lajpat Rai
  4. (d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sri Aurobindo Ghose

Correct Answer: Sri Aurobindo Ghose — Option (b)
Sri Aurobindo Ghose delivered a famous speech in Bombay on January 15, 1908, articulating that the purpose of national education was to awaken the spirit of nationalism among Indian students. During the Swadeshi Movement era (1905–1911), Aurobindo was a leading nationalist who believed that education should not merely produce clerks for the British administration but should instill patriotism, cultural pride, and the spirit of self-rule. He was also associated with the Bengal National College (Calcutta) as its first Principal.
Option (a) Rabindranath Tagore — Incorrect: Rabindranath Tagore also had views on national education and founded Visva-Bharati (Shantiniketan), but the specific 1908 Bombay speech was by Sri Aurobindo.
Option (c) Lala Lajpat Rai — Incorrect: Lala Lajpat Rai was a prominent leader of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio, associated with Punjab; the 1908 Bombay speech is attributed to Sri Aurobindo.
Option (d) Mahatma Gandhi — Incorrect: In January 1908, Gandhi was still in South Africa leading the Satyagraha movement; the Bombay speech was delivered by Sri Aurobindo.

Geography (1)

India - Population and Census · Religious and linguistic composition (census data)

Q19. The ___ religious group saw the highest decadal population growth rate in India between the 2001 and 2011 censuses.

  1. (a) Sikh
  2. (b) Muslim
  3. (c) Buddhist
  4. (d) Hindu
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Muslim

Correct Answer: Muslim — Option (b)
According to the Census of India 2011, the Muslim population recorded the highest decadal growth rate (24.6%) among all major religious groups in India between 2001 and 2011. The growth rates for other communities during the same period were: Hindu — 16.8%, Sikh — 8.4%, Buddhist — 6.1%, Christian — 15.5%, Jain — 5.4%. The Muslim population grew from 13.43% of India's population in 2001 to 14.23% in 2011. However, it should be noted that Muslim population growth rate has been declining over successive censuses.
Option (a) Sikh — Incorrect: The Sikh community had the lowest decadal growth rate (8.4%) among major religious groups in the 2001–2011 period.
Option (c) Buddhist — Incorrect: The Buddhist community had a growth rate of 6.1%, which was among the lowest, not the highest.
Option (d) Hindu — Incorrect: The Hindu community had a decadal growth rate of 16.8%, lower than the Muslim growth rate of 24.6% during 2001–2011.
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