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SSC GD 2026 8 May 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 19 GK / GS questions asked in SSC GD 2026 on 8 May 2026 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Chemistry, Economics, Medieval History, Modern History, Biology.

📚 19 questions🗓️ 8 May 2026⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Polity (3) · Chemistry (1) · Economics (4) · Medieval History (1) · Modern History (1) · Biology (1) · Ancient History (1) · Static GK (4) · Physics (1) · Geography (2)

Polity (3)

Judiciary · Supreme Court - composition and appointment

Q1. Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?

  1. (a) President
  2. (b) Prime Minister
  3. (c) Vice-President
  4. (d) Law Minister
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) President

Correct Answer: President — Option (a)
Article 124(2) of the Indian Constitution states that the Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President of India. The appointment is made after consultation with such Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts as the President deems necessary. By convention (since the Supreme Court's ruling in the Second Judges Case, 1993, and the Third Judges Case, 1998), the senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed as Chief Justice, based on the collegium system's recommendation. The President acts on the binding advice of the collegium headed by the outgoing Chief Justice.
Option (b) Prime Minister — Incorrect: While the PM heads the Union Cabinet, the appointment of the Chief Justice is made by the President, not the PM directly.
Option (c) Vice-President — Incorrect: The Vice-President's constitutional role relates to presiding over the Rajya Sabha; the CJI appointment is made by the President.
Option (d) Law Minister — Incorrect: The Law Minister may be involved in the process, but the constitutional authority to appoint the CJI rests with the President of India.
Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q2. At the Union level, the Council of Ministers is responsible to:

  1. (a) President
  2. (b) Supreme Court
  3. (c) Lok Sabha
  4. (d) Rajya Sabha
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Lok Sabha

Correct Answer: Lok Sabha — Option (c)
Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution states that the Council of Ministers (at the Union level) shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha). This means the Cabinet must maintain the confidence of the Lok Sabha — if it loses a vote of no-confidence in the Lok Sabha, the entire Council of Ministers must resign. This principle of collective responsibility is a key feature of the Parliamentary system of government in India. The Council of Ministers is NOT responsible to the Rajya Sabha (Upper House) or the President for day-to-day governance.
Option (a) President — Incorrect: While the Council of Ministers is formally appointed by the President, it is constitutionally responsible (collectively) to the Lok Sabha, not the President.
Option (b) Supreme Court — Incorrect: The Supreme Court is the judicial branch; the Council of Ministers (executive) is accountable to the legislature (Lok Sabha), not to the Supreme Court.
Option (d) Rajya Sabha — Incorrect: The Rajya Sabha is the upper house; collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers is specifically to the Lok Sabha (lower house).
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q3. Which of the following is part of the Concurrent List
of the Indian Constitution?
I. Forests II. Banking

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only I

Correct Answer: Only I — Option (a)
The Indian Constitution has three lists — Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. Forests (Statement I) is in the Concurrent List — it was added to the Concurrent List (Entry 17A) by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 (originally it was in the State List). Both Parliament and State Legislatures can make laws on subjects in the Concurrent List. Banking (Statement II) is in the Union List (Entry 45 of the Union List) — only Parliament can legislate on banking. Therefore, only Forests (I) is part of the Concurrent List; Banking (II) is under the Union List.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Banking is in the Union List (not Concurrent); only Forests is in the Concurrent List.
Option (c) Both I and II — Incorrect: Banking is NOT in the Concurrent List; it is exclusively in the Union List.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Forests IS in the Concurrent List (Entry 17A).

Chemistry (1)

Environmental Chemistry · Air pollutants and their sources

Q4. Which AQI (Air Quality Index) category represents 'Good' air quality in India?

  1. (a) 0–50
  2. (b) 51–100
  3. (c) 101–200
  4. (d) 201–300
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 0–50

Correct Answer: 0–50 — Option (a)
India's Air Quality Index (AQI) has six categories: Good (0–50) — Minimal impact; Satisfactory (51–100) — Minor breathing discomfort to sensitive people; Moderate (101–200) — Breathing discomfort to people with lung/heart disease; Poor (201–300) — Breathing discomfort to most people on prolonged exposure; Very Poor (301–400) — Respiratory illness on prolonged exposure; Severe (401–500) — Affects healthy people and seriously impacts those with existing diseases. The 'Good' category (0–50) indicates clean air with minimal health effects on the general population.
Option (b) 51–100 — Incorrect: The AQI range 51–100 represents 'Satisfactory' air quality, not 'Good'.
Option (c) 101–200 — Incorrect: AQI 101–200 represents 'Moderate' air quality, indicating some health concerns.
Option (d) 201–300 — Incorrect: AQI 201–300 represents 'Poor' air quality, causing breathing discomfort to most people.

Economics (4)

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Human Development Index and UNDP

Q5. In the Human Development Index (HDI), the Education Index is measured using:

  1. (a) Mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling
  2. (b) Enrolment ratio and dropout ratio
  3. (c) Literacy rate and school enrolment ratio
  4. (d) Adult literacy rate and teacher-student ratio
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling

Correct Answer: Mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling — Option (a)
The Human Development Index (HDI), published by UNDP, measures three dimensions: Health (Life expectancy at birth), Education (Education Index), and Standard of Living (GNI per capita). The Education Index is calculated using two indicators: (1) Mean Years of Schooling (MYS) — the average number of years of education received by people aged 25 and older; (2) Expected Years of Schooling (EYS) — the number of years of schooling a child of school-entry age can expect to receive if prevailing age-specific enrolment rates persist throughout the child's life. The Education Index = geometric mean of both normalized indicators.
Option (b) Enrolment ratio and dropout ratio — Incorrect: These are education statistics but are NOT the indicators used in the HDI Education Index; HDI uses Mean Years and Expected Years of Schooling.
Option (c) Literacy rate and school enrolment ratio — Incorrect: These were used in the OLD HDI formula (before 2010); the revised HDI (post-2010) uses Mean Years of Schooling and Expected Years of Schooling.
Option (d) Adult literacy rate and teacher-student ratio — Incorrect: Teacher-student ratio is not an HDI component; adult literacy rate was part of the old HDI formula, not the current one.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Economic systems (capitalist, socialist, mixed)

Q6. What is another name for a market economy?

  1. (a) Communism
  2. (b) Feudalism
  3. (c) Capitalism
  4. (d) Socialism
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Capitalism

Correct Answer: Capitalism — Option (c)
A market economy is also known as Capitalism. In a market economy (capitalist system), the means of production (factories, resources, businesses) are privately owned, and economic decisions regarding investment, production, income distribution, and prices are made through the free market mechanism of supply and demand — with minimal government intervention. Key features include private property rights, free enterprise, profit motive, competition, and consumer sovereignty. Examples include the United States, United Kingdom, and most developed economies.
Option (a) Communism — Incorrect: In communism, the means of production are collectively owned (state-owned), and there is no private property or market mechanism; it is the opposite of a market economy.
Option (b) Feudalism — Incorrect: Feudalism is a medieval socio-economic system based on land ownership and obligations between lords and serfs; it is not synonymous with market economy.
Option (d) Socialism — Incorrect: In socialism, key industries are owned by the state or community, and production is planned for social benefit rather than profit; it differs from a market (capitalist) economy.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q7. The theme of Swachhata Hi Seva Abhiyan 2024 was:

  1. (a) Swabhaav Swachhata, Sanskaar Swachhata
  2. (b) Swachhata Se Samridhi
  3. (c) Plastic Mukt Bharat
  4. (d) Har Ghar Swachhata
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Swabhaav Swachhata, Sanskaar Swachhata

Correct Answer: Swabhaav Swachhata, Sanskaar Swachhata — Option (a)
The theme of the Swachhata Hi Seva (SHS) Abhiyan 2024 was ' Swabhaav Swachhata , Sanskaar Swachhata ' (Cleanliness as Nature, Cleanliness as Culture). The campaign was observed from September 14 to October 2, 2024 (Gandhi Jayanti), as part of the larger Swachh Bharat Mission. The theme emphasizes making cleanliness an inherent personal behaviour ( Swabhaav = innate nature) and a cultural value ( Sanskaar = cultural instinct) — going beyond mere campaigns to embed cleanliness as a way of life in Indian society.
Option (b) Swachhata Se Samridhi — Incorrect: This ('Prosperity through Cleanliness') was a theme for the Swachhata Hi Seva Abhiyan in earlier years, not 2024.
Option (c) Plastic Mukt Bharat — Incorrect: 'Plastic-Free India' was a theme focused on eliminating single-use plastics; it was not the theme for Swachhata Hi Seva Abhiyan 2024.
Option (d) Har Ghar Swachhata — Incorrect: 'Cleanliness in Every Home' is a broader Swachh Bharat campaign message, not specifically the 2024 Swachhata Hi Seva Abhiyan theme.
Agriculture and Food Security · Agricultural policies and missions

Q8. The National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA) functions under which of the following ministries?

  1. (a) Ministry of Cooperation
  2. (b) Ministry of Jal Shakti
  3. (c) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare
  4. (d) Ministry of Earth Sciences
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare

Correct Answer: Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare — Option (c)
The National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA) was established in 2006 and functions under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare ( MoAFW ), Government of India. NRAA was set up to provide focused attention and policy advice for the development of rainfed areas in India. India has approximately 68% of its net sown area under rainfed agriculture (dependent on monsoon, not irrigation). NRAA coordinates integrated watershed development programmes , promotes sustainable agricultural practices in rainfed regions, and helps reduce regional imbalances in agricultural productivity.
Option (a) Ministry of Cooperation — Incorrect: The Ministry of Cooperation (established 2021) deals with the cooperative sector; NRAA functions under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare.
Option (b) Ministry of Jal Shakti — Incorrect: Jal Shakti Ministry handles water resources and sanitation; NRAA (focused on rainfed agriculture) is under the Agriculture Ministry.
Option (d) Ministry of Earth Sciences — Incorrect: The Ministry of Earth Sciences handles meteorology, seismology, and ocean sciences; NRAA is under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare.

Medieval History (1)

Delhi Sultanate · Lodi dynasty

Q9. Who was the founder of the Lodi dynasty, the last ruling dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate?

  1. (a) Sikandar Lodi
  2. (b) Ibrahim Lodi
  3. (c) Bahlol Lodi
  4. (d) Nasir-ud-Din Lodi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bahlol Lodi

Correct Answer: Bahlol Lodi — Option (c)
Bahlul Khan Lodi ( Bahlol Lodi ) was the founder of the Lodi dynasty (1451–1526 CE), the last ruling dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate. He replaced the Sayyid dynasty by assuming the throne of Delhi in 1451 CE. Bahlol Lodi was an Afghan nobleman who consolidated his power and restored the prestige of the Delhi Sultanate. The Lodi dynasty ended with the defeat of Ibrahim Lodi (the last Sultan) by Babur at the First Battle of Panipat in 1526 CE, which marked the beginning of the Mughal Empire.
Option (a) Sikandar Lodi — Incorrect: Sikandar Lodi was the second ruler of the Lodi dynasty and son of Bahlol Lodi ; he was not the founder.
Option (b) Ibrahim Lodi — Incorrect: Ibrahim Lodi was the last ruler of the Lodi dynasty, defeated by Babur at Panipat (1526); he was not the founder.
Option (d) Nasir-ud-Din Lodi — Incorrect: Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah was the last Sayyid Sultan (not Lodi); the founder of the Lodi dynasty was Bahlol Lodi .

Modern History (1)

Gandhian Era · Simon Commission and Nehru Report

Q10. Why was the Simon Commission (1927) boycotted?

  1. (a) Because it did not include any Indian members
  2. (b) Because it recommended provincial autonomy
  3. (c) Because it proposed independent dominion status
  4. (d) Because it abolished separate electorates
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Because it did not include any Indian members

Correct Answer: Because it did not include any Indian members — Option (a)
The Simon Commission (officially the Indian Statutory Commission), appointed in 1927 under Sir John Simon, was boycotted by Indians because all seven of its members were British — NOT A SINGLE INDIAN was included. Indians felt deeply insulted that a commission to review India's constitutional progress and recommend future reforms did not include any Indian member. The Indian National Congress, under the leadership of Lala Lajpat Rai, Jawaharlal Nehru, and others, organized massive protests wherever the Commission went. The famous slogan 'Simon Go Back' was raised. Lala Lajpat Rai was fatally injured in a lathi charge during a protest.
Option (b) Because it recommended provincial autonomy — Incorrect: The boycott was based on the composition of the Commission (all-British, no Indians), not its recommendations.
Option (c) Because it proposed independent dominion status — Incorrect: The Commission did not propose full independence; the boycott reason was the exclusion of Indian members.
Option (d) Because it abolished separate electorates — Incorrect: The Simon Commission did not abolish separate electorates; the boycott was specifically due to the absence of Indian representation.

Biology (1)

Q11. In the aerobic breakdown of pyruvate (in mitochondria), which of the following is produced?

  1. (a) Lactic acid + energy
  2. (b) Carbon dioxide + water + energy
  3. (c) Ethanol + carbon dioxide + energy
  4. (d) Lactic acid + energy + carbon dioxide
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Carbon dioxide + water + energy

Correct Answer: Carbon dioxide + water + energy — Option (b)
In aerobic respiration, pyruvate (produced from glucose during glycolysis in the cytoplasm) is transported into the mitochondria, where it undergoes aerobic breakdown (oxidative decarboxylation → Krebs cycle → Electron Transport Chain). The complete aerobic oxidation of pyruvate produces: Carbon dioxide (CO₂) — released as a waste gas; Water (H₂O) — produced when hydrogen combines with oxygen; Energy (ATP) — approximately 36–38 ATP molecules per glucose. The overall reaction: C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + Energy (ATP).
Option (a) Lactic acid + energy — Incorrect: Lactic acid is produced during ANAEROBIC respiration in muscle cells (when oxygen is insufficient), not aerobic breakdown in mitochondria.
Option (c) Ethanol + carbon dioxide + energy — Incorrect: Ethanol and CO₂ are produced during anaerobic fermentation by yeast (alcoholic fermentation), not aerobic mitochondrial breakdown.
Option (d) Lactic acid + energy + carbon dioxide — Incorrect: This is a mix of anaerobic (lactic acid) and aerobic (CO₂) products; complete aerobic breakdown produces CO₂, H₂O, and energy — not lactic acid.

Ancient History (1)

Post-Mauryan Period · Sangam Age - Cheras, Cholas, Pandyas

Q12. Which city was the capital of the Pandya kings?

  1. (a) Ujjain
  2. (b) Vaishali
  3. (c) Amaravati
  4. (d) Madurai
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Madurai

Correct Answer: Madurai — Option (d)
Madurai (in present-day Tamil Nadu) was the capital of the ancient Pandya kingdom. The Pandyas were one of the three great Tamil dynasties (along with the Cholas and Cheras) that ruled South India for thousands of years. Madurai, also called 'Koodal' or 'Malligai Maanagar ', was an important centre of Tamil culture, literature, and the famous Sangam literary academy (Tamil Sangam). The Meenakshi Amman Temple in Madurai is a testament to Pandya architecture and patronage. The Pandyas ruled from around the 4th century BCE to the 14th century CE.
Option (a) Ujjain — Incorrect: Ujjain was the capital of the Avanti Mahajanapada and later important under the Gupta and Paramara dynasties; it is in present-day Madhya Pradesh, not a Pandya capital.
Option (b) Vaishali — Incorrect: Vaishali (in present-day Bihar) was the capital of the Licchavi republic and is associated with Mahavira and Buddha; it was not a Pandya capital.
Option (c) Amaravati — Incorrect: Amaravati (in present-day Andhra Pradesh) was the capital of the Satavahana dynasty and is famous for its Buddhist stupa; it was not the Pandya capital.

Static GK (4)

Q13. Which festival of Mizoram is celebrated as thanksgiving after clearing forests for Jhum (shifting) cultivation?

  1. (a) Dree
  2. (b) Losar
  3. (c) Chapchar Kut
  4. (d) Behdienkhlam
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chapchar Kut

Correct Answer: Chapchar Kut — Option (c)
Chapchar Kut is Mizoram's most popular spring festival, celebrated after the clearing of jungle (bamboo, shrubs) for Jhum (shifting) cultivation. ' Chapchar ' means 'the time when jungle clearing for Jhum is completed' and 'Kut' means 'festival'. It is celebrated in March with traditional Mizo music, dance (especially Cheraw — the bamboo dance), and feasting. The festival is a thanksgiving for the hard work of clearing the jungle and an anticipation of a good harvest. It is now celebrated at the state level with great enthusiasm across Mizoram.
Option (a) Dree — Incorrect: Dree festival is the most important festival of the Apatani tribe of Arunachal Pradesh, celebrated in July for good harvest; it is not a Mizoram festival.
Option (b) Losar — Incorrect: Losar is the Tibetan/Buddhist New Year festival celebrated in Ladakh, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and Himachal Pradesh; it is not specifically a Mizoram festival.
Option (d) Behdienkhlam — Incorrect: Behdienkhlam is the most important festival of the Pnar (Jaintia) tribe of Meghalaya, celebrated to drive away evil spirits; it is not a Mizoram festival.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q14. In which Olympics did Michael Phelps win a record 8 gold medals?

  1. (a) 2016
  2. (b) 2008
  3. (c) 2012
  4. (d) 2004
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2008

Correct Answer: 2008 — Option (b)
Michael Phelps won a record 8 gold medals at the Beijing Olympics 2008, surpassing Mark Spitz's record of 7 gold medals at a single Olympics (Munich 1972). Phelps won gold in: 400m Individual Medley, 4×100m Freestyle Relay, 200m Freestyle, 200m Butterfly, 4×200m Freestyle Relay, 200m Individual Medley, 100m Butterfly, and 4×100m Medley Relay. Phelps is the most decorated Olympian of all time with 23 gold medals and 28 total medals across four Olympics (2000, 2004, 2008, 2012).
Option (a) 2016 — Incorrect: At Rio 2016, Phelps won 5 gold and 1 silver medals; his record 8 gold medals were at Beijing 2008.
Option (c) 2012 — Incorrect: At London 2012, Phelps won 4 gold and 2 silver medals; the 8-gold record was at Beijing 2008.
Option (d) 2004 — Incorrect: At Athens 2004, Phelps won 6 gold and 2 bronze medals; the record 8 gold medals were won at Beijing 2008.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q15. Who is the author of the book 'Annihilation of Caste'?

  1. (a) B.R. Ambedkar
  2. (b) Dadabhai Naoroji
  3. (c) Tarak Nath Das
  4. (d) Chittaranjan Das
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) B.R. Ambedkar

Correct Answer: B.R. Ambedkar — Option (a)
Annihilation of Caste was written by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in 1936. It was originally prepared as a speech to be delivered at the annual conference of the Jat-Pat- Todak Mandal (a Hindu social reform organization in Lahore), but the speech was cancelled because the organizers objected to its radical content. Ambedkar then published it as a pamphlet. The book is a powerful critique of the caste system in Hindu society, arguing that caste is not merely a social division but a system rooted in Hindu religious texts that must be completely annihilated for true social equality. It remains one of the most significant works on social justice in Indian intellectual history.
Option (b) Dadabhai Naoroji — Incorrect: Dadabhai Naoroji wrote 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India' (presenting the Drain Theory); he did not write 'Annihilation of Caste'.
Option (c) Tarak Nath Das — Incorrect: Tarak Nath Das was a Bengali revolutionary and academic; he did not write 'Annihilation of Caste'.
Option (d) Chittaranjan Das — Incorrect: Chittaranjan Das ( Deshbandhu ) was a prominent freedom fighter and lawyer; he did not write 'Annihilation of Caste'.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q16. Which of the following has never won an Olympic medal?

  1. (a) P.V. Sindhu
  2. (b) Sania Mirza
  3. (c) Saina Nehwal
  4. (d) Mary Kom
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sania Mirza

Correct Answer: Sania Mirza — Option (b)
Sania Mirza, the renowned Indian tennis player, has never won an Olympic medal despite participating in multiple Olympics. While she has achieved great success in professional tennis (winning 6 Grand Slam doubles titles), the Olympic medal has eluded her. In contrast: P.V. Sindhu won Silver at Rio 2016 and Bronze at Tokyo 2020 (Badminton); Saina Nehwal won Bronze at London 2012 (Badminton) — India's first women's singles badminton Olympic medal; Mary Kom won Bronze at London 2012 (Boxing — Women's Flyweight) — India's first women's boxing Olympic medal.
Option (a) P.V. Sindhu — Incorrect: P.V. Sindhu has won 2 Olympic medals (Silver at Rio 2016, Bronze at Tokyo 2020) in Badminton.
Option (c) Saina Nehwal — Incorrect: Saina Nehwal won a Bronze medal in Badminton at the London 2012 Olympics.
Option (d) Mary Kom — Incorrect: Mary Kom won a Bronze medal in Women's Flyweight Boxing at the London 2012 Olympics.

Physics (1)

Sound and Waves · Human ear and sound production

Q17. What is the primary function of a hearing aid?

  1. (a) To reduce noise
  2. (b) To convert sound waves into light signals
  3. (c) To amplify sound for clear hearing
  4. (d) To change the frequency of sound
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To amplify sound for clear hearing

Correct Answer: To amplify sound for clear hearing — Option (c)
A hearing aid is an electroacoustic device designed primarily to amplify sound for people with hearing loss (partial deafness). It works by: (1) A microphone picks up environmental sounds and converts them to electrical signals; (2) An amplifier increases the strength of these electrical signals; (3) A speaker (receiver) converts the amplified electrical signals back to sound waves and delivers them to the ear canal. Modern digital hearing aids can also filter background noise, but their PRIMARY function is amplification — making sounds louder and clearer for the user.
Option (a) To reduce noise — Incorrect: While some advanced hearing aids have noise-reduction features, this is a secondary function; the primary purpose is amplification of sound.
Option (b) To convert sound waves into light signals — Incorrect: Converting sound to light is not the function of a hearing aid; it converts sound to electrical signals and back to amplified sound.
Option (d) To change the frequency of sound — Incorrect: Hearing aids do not primarily change the frequency (pitch) of sounds; they amplify sound intensity to compensate for hearing loss.

Geography (2)

India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q18. According to the Census 2011, Rajasthan — the largest state by area — constitutes only _____ of India's total population.

  1. (a) 5.5%
  2. (b) 2.5%
  3. (c) 1.5%
  4. (d) 7.5%
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 5.5%

Correct Answer: 5.5% — Option (a)
According to Census 2011, Rajasthan has a population of approximately 6.89 crore (68.9 million), which constitutes about 5.66% of India's total population of 121.09 crore. Despite being the largest state by area (342,239 sq km — about 10.4% of India's total area), Rajasthan has a relatively small share of population due to the large arid and semi-arid Thar Desert region covering much of the western and northwestern parts of the state. The population density of Rajasthan (200 persons/sq km) is lower than the national average (382 persons/sq km).
Option (b) 2.5% — Incorrect: 2.5% would be too low for Rajasthan's population; it is approximately 5.5% of India's total.
Option (c) 1.5% — Incorrect: 1.5% is too low; Rajasthan's population share is approximately 5.5% of India's total.
Option (d) 7.5% — Incorrect: 7.5% would overstate Rajasthan's population share; the correct figure is approximately 5.5%.
World Geography · Countries and international boundaries

Q19. The Philadelphi Corridor (Gaza) is situated on the border of Gaza and _____.

  1. (a) Iran
  2. (b) Turkey
  3. (c) UAE
  4. (d) Egypt
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Egypt

Correct Answer: Egypt — Option (d)
The Philadelphi Corridor (also called the Philadelphia Route or Salah al-Din Corridor) is a narrow strip of land approximately 14 km long and 100 metres wide along the southern border between the Gaza Strip and Egypt (specifically bordering the Sinai Peninsula). It gained significant international attention during the Israel-Hamas conflict (2023–2025) as a critical route that was reportedly used for smuggling weapons and supplies into Gaza through tunnels. Control over this corridor became a key issue in ceasefire negotiations between Israel and Hamas, with Israel insisting on maintaining control of the corridor.
Option (a) Iran — Incorrect: Iran does not share a border with Gaza; the Philadelphi Corridor is on the Gaza-Egypt border.
Option (b) Turkey — Incorrect: Turkey does not share a border with Gaza; it is in Anatolia, far from the Gaza Strip.
Option (c) UAE — Incorrect: UAE is in the Arabian Peninsula; it does not share a border with Gaza. The Philadelphi Corridor borders Egypt.
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