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SSC MTS 2025 13 February 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 25 GK / GS questions asked in SSC MTS 2025 on 13 February 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Chemistry, Economics, Biology, Ancient History, Static GK, Physics.

📚 25 questions🗓️ 13 February 2026⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Chemistry (3) · Economics (4) · Biology (1) · Ancient History (1) · Static GK (10) · Physics (2) · Modern History (1) · Current Affairs (1) · Geography (2)

Chemistry (3)

Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures

Q1. Which of the following is an example of homogeneous mixture?

  1. (a) Oil and water
  2. (b) Salt dissolved in water
  3. (c) Salt and sulphur
  4. (d) Sodium chloride and iron fillings
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Salt dissolved in water

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Salt dissolved in water
A homogeneous mixture has a uniform composition throughout, with no visible boundaries between components. When salt (NaCl) dissolves in water, it forms a uniform solution where individual ions are evenly distributed — this is a classic example of a homogeneous mixture.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Oil and water): These do not mix; oil floats on water forming two distinct layers — this is a heterogeneous mixture.
Option 3 (Salt and sulphur ): These two solids can be physically distinguished; it is a heterogeneous mixture.
Option 4 (Sodium chloride and iron fillings): These can be visually separated (and by a magnet); it is a heterogeneous mixture.
Chemistry Miscellaneous · Chemists and their discoveries

Q2. Which of the following compound did Friedrich Wohler synthesize to disprove the theory of the 'vital force'?

  1. (a) Urea
  2. (b) Methane
  3. (c) Ethanol
  4. (d) Ethylene
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Urea

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Urea
In 1828, German chemist Friedrich Wohler synthesized Urea (an organic compound) from ammonium cyanate (an inorganic compound). This was a landmark achievement because it disproved the 'Vital Force Theory' (Vitalism), which held that organic compounds could only be produced by living organisms. Wohler's synthesis of urea proved that organic compounds can be made from inorganic precursors in a laboratory.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Methane): Methane was not used by Wohler to disprove vitalism.
Option 3 (Ethanol): Not the compound synthesized by Wohler for this purpose.
Option 4 (Ethylene): Not the compound associated with Wohler's disproof of the vital force theory.
Periodic Classification of Elements · Mendeleev's periodic table

Q3. Which element was predicted by Dmitri Mendeleev as Eka-Silicon?

  1. (a) Germanium
  2. (b) Gallium
  3. (c) Aluminum
  4. (d) Silicon
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Germanium

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Germanium
Dmitri Mendeleev, in his periodic table (1869), predicted the existence of several undiscovered elements and named them 'Eka' (meaning 'one beyond' in Sanskrit) + the element above them. Eka-Silicon was predicted to be an element with properties similar to Silicon, positioned below Silicon in the periodic table. In 1886, Clemens Winkler discovered Germanium, which matched all of Mendeleev's predictions for Eka-Silicon — confirming the predictive power of the Periodic Table.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Gallium): Gallium corresponds to Mendeleev's 'Eka- Aluminium ', not Eka-Silicon.
Option 3 (Aluminum): Aluminum already existed; it is not Eka-Silicon.
Option 4 (Silicon): Silicon itself was already known; Eka-Silicon referred to the undiscovered element below it.

Economics (4)

Money and Banking · Commercial banks and bank nationalisation

Q4. Which of the following bank was NOT nationalised in 1980?

  1. (a) New Bank of India Limited
  2. (b) Oriental Bank of Commerce Limited
  3. (c) Punjab and Sind Bank Limited
  4. (d) Syndicate Bank
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Syndicate Bank

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Syndicate Bank
In 1980, the Government of India nationalised 6 more commercial banks: Andhra Bank, Corporation Bank, New Bank of India, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Punjab and Sind Bank, and Vijaya Bank. Syndicate Bank was nationalised earlier, in 1969, along with the initial batch of 14 banks. So Syndicate Bank was NOT nationalised in 1980.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (New Bank of India): Was nationalised in 1980. It was later merged with Punjab National Bank in 1993.
Option 2 (Oriental Bank of Commerce): Was nationalised in 1980.
Option 3 (Punjab and Sind Bank): Was nationalised in 1980.
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Poverty - measurement and committees

Q5. In the Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011, how many criteria were there for automatic inclusion of rural households?

  1. (a) 5
  2. (b) 7
  3. (c) 11
  4. (d) 12
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 5

Correct Answer: Option 1 – 5
In the SECC 2011, certain rural households were automatically included in the BPL (Below Poverty Line) category based on 5 criteria for automatic inclusion:
1. Households without shelter (homeless).
2. Destitute households, living on alms.
3. Manual scavenger families.
4. Primitive tribal groups.
5. Legally released bonded labourers .
These households were considered automatically poor regardless of other deprivation criteria.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (7): The SECC used 7 deprivation criteria (for identifying deprived households), but the automatic inclusion criteria numbered 5.
Options 3 (11) and 4 (12): These numbers are incorrect for SECC 2011 automatic inclusion criteria.
Industry and Infrastructure · Make in India, Startup India and PLI

Q6. The National Manufacturing Policy in India was announced in _____.

  1. (a) 2003
  2. (b) 2007
  3. (c) 2011
  4. (d) 2015
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2011

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 2011
The National Manufacturing Policy (NMP) was announced by the Government of India in November 2011. The policy aimed to increase the share of manufacturing in GDP to 25% and create 100 million jobs by 2022. It introduced the concept of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones (NIMZs) to attract investment and boost industrial output.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (2003): The NMP was not announced in 2003.
Option 2 (2007): No National Manufacturing Policy was announced in 2007.
Option 4 (2015): The NMP was announced in 2011; 2015 is associated with the 'Make in India' initiative.

Q7. The disinvestment process of CPSEs (Central Public Sector Enterprises) in India was initiated in the year _____.

  1. (a) 1989
  2. (b) 1987
  3. (c) 1991
  4. (d) 1985
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1991

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 1991
The disinvestment process of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) in India was formally initiated in 1991–92, as part of the New Economic Policy (LPG reforms — Liberalisation , Privatisation , Globalisation ). The government began selling minority stakes in PSUs to generate revenue and improve their efficiency. This was triggered by India's balance of payments crisis and the shift toward a market-oriented economy.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (1989): No formal CPSE disinvestment programme was launched in 1989.
Option 2 (1987): Disinvestment was not initiated in 1987.
Option 4 (1985): No systematic disinvestment policy existed in 1985.

Biology (1)

Diseases, Immunity and Health · Organ donation and transplantation

Q8. Which of the following organ can be transplanted in humans?
I. Bone marrow
II. Cornea

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Both I and II
Statement I is correct: Bone marrow transplantation is a well-established medical procedure used to treat conditions like leukaemia , lymphoma, aplastic anaemia , and other blood disorders. Stem cells from healthy bone marrow are transplanted to restore normal blood cell production.
Statement II is correct: Corneal transplantation (keratoplasty) is one of the most commonly performed and successful transplant procedures. The cornea (clear front part of the eye) is transplanted to restore vision in patients with corneal disease or injury.
Both bone marrow and cornea can be transplanted in humans.

Ancient History (1)

Vedic Period · Vedic literature (Vedas, Brahmanas, Aranyakas, Upanishads)

Q9. In early Hindu philosophy, which concept governed the cycle of life from birth to death to rebirth?

  1. (a) Karma
  2. (b) Yajna
  3. (c) Artha
  4. (d) Dharma
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Karma

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Karma
In early Hindu philosophy, Karma is the concept that governs the cycle of life, death, and rebirth (samsara). Karma refers to the law of cause and effect — one's actions in this life determine the nature of the next birth. Good karma leads to a better rebirth; bad karma results in a lower form of existence. This concept is central to Hindu, Buddhist, and Jain philosophies.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Yajna): Refers to a ritual sacrifice or fire offering; not the governing principle of the life-death-rebirth cycle.
Option 3 (Artha): Refers to worldly prosperity, wealth, and material goals — one of the four Purusharthas (goals of life).
Option 4 (Dharma): Refers to righteous duty, moral law, and ethical conduct; it guides how one should live but does not directly govern the rebirth cycle.

Static GK (10)

Dances · Folk dances by state

Q10. ' Velakali ' is a martial dance performed in which of the following Indian state?

  1. (a) Bihar
  2. (b) Kerala
  3. (c) Punjab
  4. (d) Mizoram
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kerala

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Kerala
Velakali is a traditional martial art dance form from Kerala. It is performed by men who enact a war-like dance using shields and swords, often associated with the Guruvayur temple. The dance depicts ancient warrior traditions and is performed during temple festivals, particularly during the ten-day Utsavam at the Guruvayur Sri Krishna Temple.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Bihar): Bihar is known for Jat-Jatin and Bidesia folk dances; Velakali is not from Bihar.
Option 3 (Punjab): Punjab is known for Bhangra and Giddha ; Velakali is not a Punjab tradition.
Option 4 (Mizoram): Mizoram has its own tribal dance forms like Cheraw; Velakali is not from Mizoram.

Q11. ' Phagun Madai' festival is celebrated on the eve of which major festival?

  1. (a) Makar Sankranti
  2. (b) Holi
  3. (c) Diwali
  4. (d) Lohri
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Holi

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Holi
Phagun Madai is a tribal festival celebrated in Chhattisgarh, particularly by the Gondi tribes. It is held in the month of Phagun (February-March) on the eve of Holi. It is a grand fair-like celebration where tribal communities gather to worship, engage in cultural activities, and celebrate the arrival of spring before Holi.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Makar Sankranti): Makar Sankranti is celebrated in January; Phagun Madai falls in Phagun month (February-March), which is tied to Holi.
Option 3 (Diwali): Diwali is celebrated in October-November; Phagun Madai is not associated with Diwali.
Option 4 ( Lohri ): Lohri is a Punjabi harvest festival in January; it is not related to Phagun Madai.
Space, Defence and Technology · ISRO - history and centres

Q12. The Indian Institute of Space Science and Technology was founded in which of the following year?

  1. (a) 1972
  2. (b) 1995
  3. (c) 2007
  4. (d) 2014
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2007

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 2007
The Indian Institute of Space Science and Technology (IIST) was established in 2007 in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala. It is the first university in Asia dedicated to space science and technology, functioning under the Department of Space, Government of India. IIST offers undergraduate, postgraduate, and doctoral programmes in space-related fields.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (1972): IIST was not established in 1972.
Option 2 (1995): IIST was not established in 1995.
Option 4 (2014): IIST was established in 2007, not 2014.
Sports · Trophies and cups

Q13. Thomas Cup, a Badminton Championship, was first held in _____.

  1. (a) 1966
  2. (b) 1944
  3. (c) 1948
  4. (d) 1941
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1948

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 1948
The Thomas Cup is an international men's badminton team championship. It was first held in 1948–1949, named after Sir George Thomas, a former All England champion and president of the International Badminton Federation. Malaya (Malaysia) won the first edition. The Thomas Cup is held every two years and is considered the 'World Cup' of men's badminton.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (1966): The Thomas Cup was already established by this time; it was not first held in 1966.
Option 2 (1944): The inaugural Thomas Cup was held in 1948, not 1944.
Option 4 (1941): The Thomas Cup was not held in 1941.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q14. Who is the author of the book 'Serious Men', which won The Hindu Literary Prize?

  1. (a) Ashwin Sanghi
  2. (b) Deepti Naval
  3. (c) Manu Joseph
  4. (d) Amit Varma
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Manu Joseph

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Manu Joseph
Manu Joseph is an Indian journalist and author. His debut novel 'Serious Men' (2010) won The Hindu Literary Prize. The book is a satirical novel about social class and ambition in India, centred around a man from a lower caste who navigates the world of an elite scientific institution in Mumbai.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Ashwin Sanghi): Known for historical fiction thrillers like Chanakya's Chant; not the author of Serious Men.
Option 2 (Deepti Naval): An actress and poet; not the author of Serious Men.
Option 4 (Amit Varma): A journalist and author known for 'My Friend Sancho'; not the author of Serious Men.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q15. Duration of a handball game is _____ minutes.

  1. (a) 50
  2. (b) 40
  3. (c) 60
  4. (d) 70
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 60

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 60
A standard handball game (as per IHF — International Handball Federation rules) consists of two halves of 30 minutes each, making the total duration 60 minutes. There is a 15-minute halftime break. In case of a draw in knockout rounds, extra time and penalty shootouts may follow.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (50 minutes): This is not the official duration of a handball match.
Option 2 (40 minutes): This is not the official duration of a handball match.
Option 4 (70 minutes): This is not the standard duration; 70 minutes applies to some other games but not handball.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q16. Who is the author of the book named 'Welcome to Paradise',
a collection of short stories about women facing love, marriage, and loneliness?

  1. (a) Chetan Bhagat
  2. (b) Twinkle Khanna
  3. (c) Sudha Murty
  4. (d) Shruti Hemani
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Twinkle Khanna

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Twinkle Khanna
Twinkle Khanna, the Indian author and former actress (also known by her pen name Mrs. Funnybones ), wrote 'Welcome to Paradise' — a collection of short stories exploring the lives of women dealing with love, marriage, and loneliness. The book is part of her successful career as a writer known for humorous and insightful observations on everyday Indian life.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Chetan Bhagat): Chetan Bhagat is known for novels like '2 States' and '5 Point Someone'; not the author of Welcome to Paradise.
Option 3 (Sudha Murty): Sudha Murty is a well-known author, but Welcome to Paradise is not her book.
Option 4 (Shruti Hemani): Not associated with this book.
Monuments and Heritage · Monuments - builders and locations

Q17. The approximate height of the India Gate is _____.

  1. (a) 56 m
  2. (b) 42 m
  3. (c) 30 m
  4. (d) 65 m
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 42 m

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 42 m
India Gate, located in New Delhi, is a war memorial built in honour of soldiers who died in World War I and the Third Anglo-Afghan War. It was designed by Sir Edwin Lutyens and inaugurated in 1931. The approximate height of India Gate is 42 metres (about 138 feet).
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (56 m): Incorrect; India Gate is approximately 42 m tall.
Option 3 (30 m): Too short; the actual height is 42 m.
Option 4 (65 m): Too tall; India Gate stands at approximately 42 m.
Monuments and Heritage · UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India

Q18. Which of the following is NOT a UNESCO World Heritage Site in India?

  1. (a) Hill Forts of Rajasthan
  2. (b) Mountain Railways of India
  3. (c) India Gate
  4. (d) The Jantar Mantar, Jaipur
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) India Gate

Correct Answer: Option 3 – India Gate
India Gate is a war memorial in New Delhi and is NOT a UNESCO World Heritage Site. While it is a prominent national monument, it has not been inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List.
The other options ARE UNESCO World Heritage Sites:
Option 1 (Hill Forts of Rajasthan): Inscribed in 2013, includes forts like Chittorgarh, Kumbhalgarh, Ranthambore, etc.
Option 2 (Mountain Railways of India): Inscribed in phases (1999, 2005, 2008), includes Darjeeling Himalayan Railway, Nilgiri Mountain Railway, and Kalka-Shimla Railway.
Option 4 (The Jantar Mantar, Jaipur): Inscribed in 2010 as an astronomical instrument site.
National Symbols, Firsts and Superlatives · First in India - persons

Q19. Who was the first Defence Minister of independent India?

  1. (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  2. (b) C. Rajagopalachari
  3. (c) Baldev Singh
  4. (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Baldev Singh

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Baldev Singh
Sardar Baldev Singh was the first Defence Minister of independent India, serving from 1947 to 1952. He was a prominent Sikh political leader who played a key role in the independence movement and was part of India's first Cabinet under Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru. He oversaw the critical early phase of building the Indian armed forces during Partition and the Kashmir conflict.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Dr. Rajendra Prasad): He was the first President of India, not the Defence Minister.
Option 2 (C. Rajagopalachari): He served as the last Governor-General of India and later as Chief Minister of Madras; not the first Defence Minister.
Option 4 (Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel): He was the first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister of India; not the Defence Minister.

Physics (2)

Gravitation · Universal law of gravitation and G

Q20. Why do objects fall towards the Earth?

  1. (a) Due to the Earth's rotation
  2. (b) Due to the Earth's magnetic field
  3. (c) Due to the force of gravity
  4. (d) Due to air pressure
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Due to the force of gravity

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Due to the force of gravity
Objects fall towards the Earth because of gravitational force. According to Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation, every object with mass attracts every other object with mass. The Earth, having a very large mass, exerts a strong gravitational pull on objects near it, causing them to accelerate downward (towards the Earth's centre ) at approximately 9.8 m/s².
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Earth's rotation): Rotation actually creates a centrifugal effect that slightly reduces the pull at the equator; it does not cause objects to fall.
Option 2 (Earth's magnetic field): Magnetic fields act on magnetic materials; they do not cause all objects to fall.
Option 4 (Air pressure): Air pressure acts in all directions and does not cause objects to fall towards Earth.
Human Eye and the Colourful World · Scattering of light (blue sky, red sunset, Tyndall effect)

Q21. In which natural setting can the Tyndall effect be observed?

  1. (a) Sunlight passing through a window
  2. (b) Sunlight passing through the canopy of a dense forest
  3. (c) A rainbow after a rainstorm
  4. (d) Light reflected from a mirror
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sunlight passing through the canopy of a dense forest

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Sunlight passing through the canopy of a dense forest
The Tyndall effect is the scattering of light by colloidal particles (particles larger than molecules but not visible to the naked eye). In a dense forest, sunlight passes through the canopy and becomes visible as beams of light due to the scattering by dust, water droplets, and small particles in the air. This is the classic natural observation of the Tyndall effect.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Sunlight through a window): Plain window glass does not contain colloidal particles to scatter light; Tyndall effect is not typically observed here.
Option 3 (Rainbow after a rainstorm): A rainbow is caused by refraction and reflection of light in raindrops — it is a different phenomenon (dispersion of light), not Tyndall effect.
Option 4 (Light reflected from a mirror): Reflection from a mirror is specular reflection, not related to Tyndall effect.

Modern History (1)

Q22. After which of the following wars was the Peshwa removed and sent to Bithur ?

  1. (a) First Anglo-Maratha War
  2. (b) Second Anglo-Maratha War
  3. (c) Third Anglo-Maratha War
  4. (d) Fourth Anglo-Maratha War
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Third Anglo-Maratha War

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Third Anglo-Maratha War
The Third Anglo-Maratha War (1817–1818) resulted in the complete defeat of the Maratha Confederacy. Peshwa Baji Rao II, the last Peshwa, surrendered to the British. After the war, he was exiled to Bithur (near Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh), where he lived on a British pension. This effectively ended the Peshwa's power and the Maratha Confederacy.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (First Anglo-Maratha War, 1775–1782): Ended with the Treaty of Salbai ; the Peshwa was not exiled.
Option 2 (Second Anglo-Maratha War, 1803–1805): Resulted in territorial losses but Peshwa retained his position.
Option 4 (Fourth Anglo-Maratha War): There was no Fourth Anglo-Maratha War; the Maratha power ended with the Third.

Current Affairs (1)

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Research breakthroughs - current

Q23. In November 2024, IL-35-mediated immunotherapy has been developed as a new treatment for which type of diabetes?

  1. (a) Type I
  2. (b) Type III
  3. (c) Type V
  4. (d) Type VII
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Type I

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Type I
In November 2024, researchers developed IL-35-mediated immunotherapy as a new treatment approach for Type I Diabetes (also called insulin-dependent or juvenile diabetes). Type I Diabetes is an autoimmune disease where the immune system destroys insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas. IL-35 (Interleukin-35) is an anti-inflammatory cytokine that can suppress the immune attack on beta cells, offering a potential disease-modifying treatment rather than just insulin replacement.
Why other options are wrong:
Options 2 (Type III), 3 (Type V), 4 (Type VII): These are not standard medical classifications of diabetes. The mainstream types are Type I and Type II. The IL-35 immunotherapy specifically targets the autoimmune mechanism in Type I Diabetes.

Geography (2)

Geography Miscellaneous · Nicknames of places

Q24. Which of the following port is known as the "Queen of the Arabian Sea"?

  1. (a) Cochin port
  2. (b) Paradip
  3. (c) Visakhapatnam port
  4. (d) Tuticorin port
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Cochin port

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Cochin port
Cochin (Kochi) port in Kerala is historically known as the 'Queen of the Arabian Sea'. It is one of India's finest natural harbours and has been a major trading centre for centuries, with historical connections to Arab, Chinese, Portuguese, Dutch, and British traders. Kochi's strategic location on the southwest coast makes it a key gateway to the Arabian Sea.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Paradip): Located in Odisha on the Bay of Bengal; not associated with the Arabian Sea.
Option 3 (Visakhapatnam): Located in Andhra Pradesh on the Bay of Bengal; known as the 'Jewel of the East Coast'.
Option 4 (Tuticorin): Located in Tamil Nadu; it is an important port on the Gulf of Mannar, not the Arabian Sea.
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Metallic minerals and mines

Q25. As per Indian Minerals Yearbook 2023, the largest consumer of zinc is the ________ Industry.

  1. (a) Galvanising
  2. (b) Textile
  3. (c) Pharmaceutical
  4. (d) Plastic
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Galvanising

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Galvanising
According to the Indian Minerals Yearbook 2023, the Galvanising industry is the largest consumer of zinc. Galvanising is the process of applying a protective zinc coating to steel or iron to prevent corrosion (rusting). Approximately 50% of all zinc produced globally is used for galvanising . In India, the construction and infrastructure sectors drive high demand for galvanised steel.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Textile): The textile industry is not a major consumer of zinc.
Option 3 (Pharmaceutical): Zinc is used in some medicines and supplements, but it is not the largest consumer sector.
Option 4 (Plastic): Zinc is not a significant input in plastic manufacturing.
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