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Delhi Police Head Constable 2025-26 12 January 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 18 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Head Constable 2025-26 on 12 January 2026 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Static GK, Polity, Economics, Ancient History, Chemistry, Modern History.

📚 18 questions🗓️ 12 January 2026⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Static GK (5) · Polity (3) · Economics (2) · Ancient History (2) · Chemistry (2) · Modern History (1) · Geography (1) · Medieval History (1) · Current Affairs (1)

Static GK (5)

Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q1. Who is the first Indian woman to win the Booker Prize, and for which novel?

  1. (a) Kiran Desai - The Inheritance of Loss
  2. (b) Arundhati Roy - The God of Small Things
  3. (c) Jhumpa Lahiri - Interpreter of Maladies
  4. (d) Anita Desai - Clear Light of Day
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Arundhati Roy - The God of Small Things

Arundhati Roy - The God of Small Things is correct. Arundhati Roy became the first Indian woman (and the first Indian resident) to win the Booker Prize in 1997 for her debut novel The God of Small Things. The novel is set in Kerala and explores the lives of fraternal twins Rahel and Estha, weaving together themes of caste, family, forbidden love, and the 'Love Laws' of post-colonial India.
• Kiran Desai - The Inheritance of Loss: Kiran Desai won the Booker Prize in 2006 for The Inheritance of Loss — she is the second Indian woman to win, not the first.
• Jhumpa Lahiri - Interpreter of Maladies: This book won the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction (2000), not the Booker Prize.
• Anita Desai - Clear Light of Day: Anita Desai was shortlisted for the Booker Prize three times but never won it.
Space, Defence and Technology · Science and technology missions and schemes

Q2. Which of the following statements about the Vaishvik Bhartiya Vaigyanik (VAIBHAV) Fellowship Programme is incorrect?

  1. (a) VAIBHAV aims to engage the Indian diaspora scientists and researchers globally to contribute to India's scientific and technological development.
  2. (b) The Fellowship provides financial support for Indian-origin scientists to relocate permanently to India within a maximum of five years.
  3. (c) VAIBHAV encourages collaborative research projects between Indian academic institutions and Indian-origin scientists abroad.
  4. (d) The programme is administered by the Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Fellowship provides financial support for Indian-origin scientists to relocate permanently to India within a maximum of five years.

Option 2 is the incorrect statement. The VAIBHAV (Vaishvik Bhartiya Vaigyanik) Fellowship does NOT support permanent relocation to India. It is designed for short-term, part-time engagement — Indian-origin scientists working abroad can collaborate with Indian institutions for a period of up to one month per year (for a maximum of 3 years), without leaving their current positions overseas. The goal is collaborative research, not permanent immigration.
• Option 1 is correct: VAIBHAV indeed aims to leverage the global Indian scientific diaspora for India's technological development.
• Option 3 is correct: The scheme specifically promotes collaborative research between overseas Indian scientists and Indian academic/R&D institutions.
• Option 4 is correct: The programme is administered by the Ministry of Science and Technology, Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of India.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q3. Which of the following dance-instrument pair is correctly matched?

  1. (a) Rouf - Dhol and Nagara
  2. (b) Saila - Rabab and Harmonium
  3. (c) Thiruvathira Kali - Claps and Ilathalam
  4. (d) Sattriya - Mridangam and Manjira
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Thiruvathira Kali - Claps and Ilathalam

Option 3 is correct. Thiruvathira Kali is a graceful group dance performed by women in Kerala, traditionally performed during the Thiruvathira festival (Ardra Darshan). The dance is accompanied by clapping (by the dancers themselves) and the Ilathalam (small brass cymbals), making this a correctly matched pair.
• Option 1 is wrong: Rouf is a traditional folk dance of Kashmir performed by women during festivals like Eid. It is accompanied by singing (no specific instrument); Dhol and Nagara are not the traditional instruments for Rouf.
• Option 2 is wrong: Saila is a folk dance of Chhattisgarh performed during the Kartik month. It is traditionally accompanied by the Mandar (drum); Rabab and Harmonium are not associated with Saila.
• Option 4 is wrong: Sattriya is a classical dance of Assam associated with Vaishnava monasteries (Sattras). It is traditionally accompanied by the Khol (barrel drum) and Taal (cymbals), not Mridangam and Manjira.
Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q4. The BIMSTEC Charter emphasizes which of the following as a foundational goal?

  1. (a) Regional integration through trade, tech, and transport
  2. (b) Expansion of Western alliances in South Asia
  3. (c) Promoting Chinese Belt and Road goals
  4. (d) Formation of a unified currency block
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Regional integration through trade, tech, and transport

Regional integration through trade, tech, and transport is correct. The BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) Charter, formally adopted in 2022, emphasizes regional integration and cooperation among its seven member states (India, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Nepal, Bhutan). Its foundational goals include promoting trade and investment, connectivity (transport links), technology sharing, energy cooperation, and people-to-people ties across the Bay of Bengal region.
• Expansion of Western alliances in South Asia: BIMSTEC is an independent Asian regional grouping, not an extension of Western alliances like NATO.
• Promoting Chinese Belt and Road goals: China is not a member of BIMSTEC; BIMSTEC operates independently of China's BRI.
• Formation of a unified currency block: BIMSTEC does not aim to create a common currency; it is a multi-sectoral cooperation initiative, not a monetary union.
Sports · Sports bodies and headquarters

Q5. Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully.
Assertion (A): NADA functions under the Ministry of Education.
Reason (R): NADA regulates drug testing and anti-doping measures in Indian sports.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A is false, but R is true.

A is false, but R is true is correct.
• Assertion (A) is FALSE: NADA (National Anti-Doping Agency) does NOT function under the Ministry of Education. NADA was established under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.
• Reason (R) is TRUE: NADA is indeed responsible for regulating drug testing, conducting doping control, educating athletes about anti-doping rules, and implementing WADA (World Anti-Doping Agency) standards in Indian sports.
Since A is false and R is true, the correct answer is option 4.

Polity (3)

Fundamental Rights · Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22)

Q6. Regarding the constitutional framework and judicial scrutiny of preventive detention in India, which of the following statements is correct?

  1. (a) Preventive detention laws violate Article 21 of the Constitution because they allow detention without trial, and the Supreme Court has consistently struck down all such laws as unconstitutional.
  2. (b) Article 22(3) mandates that every person detained preventively must be produced before a magistrate within 48 hours, and this is an absolute safeguard irrespective of exceptions.
  3. (c) The Constitution permits preventive detention under Articles 22(3) to (7), but requires that the detained person must be informed of grounds of detention and allowed to make a representation, and the Supreme Court has upheld these laws subject to procedural safeguards.
  4. (d) Preventive detention laws require prior approval from the Supreme Court before a person can be detained to prevent future crimes.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The Constitution permits preventive detention under Articles 22(3) to (7), but requires that the detained person must be informed of grounds of detention and allowed to make a representation, and the Supreme Court has upheld these laws subject to procedural safeguards.

Option 3 is correct. The Indian Constitution explicitly permits preventive detention under Articles 22(3) to 22(7). While the normal safeguards of Article 22(1) and 22(2) (right to be informed of grounds of arrest, right to consult a lawyer, production before a magistrate within 24 hours) are excluded for preventive detainees under Article 22(3), the Constitution still provides minimum safeguards: the detainee must be informed of the grounds of detention as soon as possible, and must be given an opportunity to make a representation to an Advisory Board. The Supreme Court has consistently upheld preventive detention laws (like COFEPOSA, NSA) subject to compliance with these procedural safeguards.
• Option 1 is wrong: The Supreme Court has NOT struck down all preventive detention laws; it has upheld them as constitutionally valid when procedural safeguards are followed.
• Option 2 is wrong: Article 22(3) actually exempts persons detained under preventive detention laws from the 24-hour magistrate production requirement; the 48-hour provision described is incorrect.
• Option 4 is wrong: There is no requirement of prior Supreme Court approval for preventive detention; the executive government can order detention, subject to review by an Advisory Board.
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Gandhian principles

Q7. Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy is a part of the Gandhian principles?

  1. (a) Equal pay for equal work
  2. (b) Organization of village panchayats
  3. (c) Protection of monuments
  4. (d) Uniform civil code
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Organization of village panchayats

Organization of village panchayats is correct. The Gandhian principles in the Directive Principles of State Policy (Articles 40, 43, 43B, 46, 47, 48) reflect Mahatma Gandhi's vision for India. Article 40 directs the State to organize village panchayats and endow them with powers necessary for self-government — a core principle of Gandhi's concept of Gram Swaraj (village self-rule).
• Equal pay for equal work: This is a Socialist principle under DPSP (Article 39(d)), not a Gandhian principle.
• Protection of monuments: This falls under cultural and educational rights/DPSPs (Article 49), categorized as a liberal-intellectual principle, not Gandhian.
• Uniform civil code: This is a liberal-intellectual principle (Article 44), associated with national integration rather than specifically Gandhian ideology.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q8. Match the Constitutional provision with its effect on Parliament's power over State List subjects:
List I: 1. Art. 249 | 2. Art. 250 | 3. Art. 252 | 4. Art. 253
List II: P. During national emergency | Q. By international agreement | R. On request of 2+ states | S. For national interest

  1. (a) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S
  2. (b) 1-S, 2-P, 3-R, 4-Q
  3. (c) 1-Q, 2-R, 3-S, 4-P
  4. (d) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1-S, 2-P, 3-R, 4-Q

1-S, 2-P, 3-R, 4-Q is correct.
• Art. 249 – S (For national interest): If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by 2/3rd majority that it is necessary in the national interest, Parliament can legislate on State List subjects.
• Art. 250 – P (During national emergency): Parliament gets power to legislate on any matter in the State List during a National Emergency proclaimed under Article 352.
• Art. 252 – R (On request of 2+ states): If two or more state legislatures pass resolutions requesting Parliament to legislate on a State List subject, Parliament can do so.
• Art. 253 – Q (By international agreement): Parliament can legislate on State List subjects to implement any treaty, agreement, or convention with foreign nations or international organizations.
• Option 1 (1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S) is wrong: Art. 249 is for national interest (S), not emergency (P).
• Option 3 and 4 are wrong due to incorrect article-purpose pairings.

Economics (2)

Money and Banking · Banking terms and instruments

Q9. In the context of India's banking sector in 2025, a persistently high Credit-Deposit (CD) ratio, especially in certain regional rural banks and public sector banks, is observed. Which of the following best explains the macroeconomic and institutional implications of such a trend?

  1. (a) A high CD ratio implies excessive capital adequacy, leading to underutilization of funds and inflationary risks.
  2. (b) A high CD ratio indicates that banks are lending less and maintaining liquidity buffers, which boosts deposit growth.
  3. (c) A high CD ratio may indicate over-aggressive lending relative to mobilized deposits, raising concerns about asset-liability mismatches, liquidity risk, and long-term financial stability.
  4. (d) A high CD ratio has no real macroeconomic consequence as it is an internal operational metric of bank profitability.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A high CD ratio may indicate over-aggressive lending relative to mobilized deposits, raising concerns about asset-liability mismatches, liquidity risk, and long-term financial stability.

Option 3 is correct. The Credit-Deposit (CD) ratio measures the proportion of deposits that a bank has lent out. A persistently high CD ratio (e.g., above 75–80%) signals that a bank is lending out more relative to its deposit base — often aggressively. This raises concerns about: (1) asset-liability mismatch — long-term loans funded by short-term deposits; (2) liquidity risk — insufficient liquid assets to meet sudden withdrawal demands; and (3) financial stability — heightened vulnerability to NPAs (non-performing assets) and bank runs.
• Option 1 is wrong: A high CD ratio does not imply excessive capital adequacy; it implies the opposite — funds are being heavily deployed, leaving less liquidity buffer.
• Option 2 is wrong: A high CD ratio indicates banks are lending MORE, not less; a low CD ratio would indicate conservative lending and higher liquidity buffers.
• Option 4 is wrong: The RBI monitors CD ratios specifically because of their macroeconomic implications for systemic financial stability; it is not merely an internal metric.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q10. Which of the following was a key feature of globalization reforms introduced in India after 1991?

  1. (a) Replacing dollar with rupee in exports
  2. (b) Increased role of multinational corporations
  3. (c) Nationalizing export houses
  4. (d) Restricting FDI to below 25% in all sectors
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Increased role of multinational corporations

Increased role of multinational corporations is correct. Post-1991 globalization reforms in India included liberalizing FDI norms, reducing import duties, removing licensing restrictions, and opening multiple sectors to foreign investment. This led to a significant increase in the entry and role of multinational corporations (MNCs) in sectors like automobiles, consumer goods, telecom, IT, retail, and pharmaceuticals — fundamentally transforming India's economic landscape.
• Replacing dollar with rupee in exports: India does not replace the dollar with the rupee in international trade settlements; the US dollar remains the dominant global trade currency.
• Nationalizing export houses: This is the opposite of globalization reforms; 1991 reforms moved toward privatization and liberalization, not nationalization.
• Restricting FDI to below 25% in all sectors: Post-1991 reforms progressively raised FDI limits to 49%, 74%, 100% in various sectors — not restricted them.

Ancient History (2)

Post-Mauryan Period · Satavahanas

Q11. What does the archaeological site of Chandravalli in Karnataka reveal?

  1. (a) It was a major Mauryan fort known for its stone sculptures.
  2. (b) It contains medieval Jain manuscripts and paintings.
  3. (c) It reveals 3000-year-old settlements with Satavahana connections.
  4. (d) It is known for Gupta period Buddhist monasteries.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It reveals 3000-year-old settlements with Satavahana connections.

Option 3 is correct. Chandravalli is an important archaeological site located in Chitradurga district, Karnataka. Excavations at Chandravalli have revealed ancient settlements dating back to about 3,000 years ago (Iron Age/Early Historic period). The site shows evidence of habitation linked to the Satavahana period, including pottery, coins, and structural remains associated with the Satavahana dynasty — providing insights into early historic settlements in the Deccan region.
• Option 1 is wrong: Chandravalli is not primarily known as a Mauryan fort with stone sculptures; Mauryan remains are more prominently associated with sites in northern India.
• Option 2 is wrong: Chandravalli does not contain medieval Jain manuscripts and paintings; it is an Early Historic/Iron Age site.
• Option 4 is wrong: Chandravalli is not associated with Gupta period Buddhist monasteries; Gupta-era Buddhist sites are more concentrated in northern and eastern India.
Mauryan Empire · Chandragupta Maurya

Q12. Who was the founder of the Maurya Empire?

  1. (a) Ashoka
  2. (b) Chandragupta Maurya
  3. (c) Kanishka
  4. (d) Samudragupta
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Chandragupta Maurya

Chandragupta Maurya is correct. Chandragupta Maurya founded the Maurya Empire around 322 BCE after overthrowing the last Nanda ruler (Dhana Nanda) with the guidance of his mentor Chanakya (Kautilya). He united the Indian subcontinent into the first large pan-Indian empire and defeated the Greek general Seleucus Nicator. He later abdicated and became a Jain monk, fasting to death (Sallekhana) in Shravanabelagola, Karnataka.
• Ashoka: The grandson of Chandragupta Maurya; he expanded the empire but did not found it.
• Kanishka: A great Kushan emperor (c. 127 CE); not related to the Maurya Empire.
• Samudragupta: The greatest ruler of the Gupta Empire (c. 335–375 CE); a separate dynasty entirely from the Mauryas.

Chemistry (2)

Structure of Atom · Bohr's model

Q13. According to Bohr's atomic theory, the angular momentum of an electron in a stable orbit is restricted to which of the following?

  1. (a) h
  2. (b) h/π
  3. (c) h/2π
  4. (d) 2πh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) h/2π

h/2π is correct. Bohr's second postulate states that the angular momentum of an electron in a permitted (stable) orbit is an integral multiple of h/2π, where h is Planck's constant. Mathematically: L = nh/2π (where n = 1, 2, 3, ... is the principal quantum number). This means the angular momentum is 'restricted to' integral multiples of the quantum unit h/2π (also written as ħ, the reduced Planck constant).
• h: Planck's constant alone does not represent the quantum of angular momentum in Bohr's model; the unit is h/2π.
• h/π: This value (2ħ) is not the Bohr quantization unit; the correct divisor is 2π, not π.
• 2πh: This is greater than h, not less; angular momentum in atomic orbitals is a very small quantity (of order 10⁻³⁴ J·s), making 2πh an incorrect and physically oversized option.
Environmental Chemistry · Air pollutants and their sources

Q14. What main pollutant is used for AQI calculation in Delhi as of January 2025?

  1. (a) PM10
  2. (b) SO2
  3. (c) PM2.5
  4. (d) Ozone
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) PM2.5

PM2.5 is correct. In Delhi, PM2.5 (fine particulate matter with diameter less than 2.5 micrometres) is the dominant pollutant driving the Air Quality Index (AQI) calculations, especially during winter months. PM2.5 originates from vehicle emissions, stubble burning in neighboring states, construction dust, and industrial activity. It is the most health-hazardous pollutant in Delhi's context, capable of penetrating deep into the lungs and bloodstream.
• PM10: Also monitored in Delhi, but PM2.5 is the primary driver of Delhi's dangerously high AQI readings, particularly in winter.
• SO2: Sulfur dioxide levels in Delhi are relatively lower and not the dominant AQI pollutant.
• Ozone: Ground-level ozone is a pollutant monitored in AQI, but it peaks in summer, not winter; PM2.5 dominates Delhi's AQI concerns in January.

Modern History (1)

Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Leaders of tribal movements

Q15. Who among the following tribal leaders was falsely implicated and executed by the British despite being peaceful?

  1. (a) Tileswari Koch
  2. (b) Laxman Nayak
  3. (c) Arun Chandra Guha
  4. (d) Lala Hansraj
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Laxman Nayak

Laxman Nayak is correct. Laxman Nayak was a tribal leader from Odisha (Koraput district) who was a prominent freedom fighter associated with the Quit India Movement (1942). Despite being a peaceful activist, he was falsely implicated by the British in a murder case, tried, and executed by hanging in 1943. He is revered as a martyr and the pride of the tribal communities of Odisha.
• Tileswari Koch: A brave tribal woman freedom fighter from Assam who participated in the 1942 movement; she was shot by British forces, not executed after false implication.
• Arun Chandra Guha: A freedom fighter and later Indian politician; not specifically known as a tribal leader falsely implicated and executed.
• Lala Hansraj: Not prominently known as a tribal leader falsely implicated by the British.

Geography (1)

India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Textile and other industries

Q16. What key factor has driven the movement of India's sugar industry from the northern to the southern states in recent decades?

  1. (a) Increased demand for sugar in southern India.
  2. (b) Longer crushing season and higher sugar content in southern sugarcane.
  3. (c) Abundant availability of cheap labor in southern states.
  4. (d) Better transportation networks for sugar mills in the south.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Longer crushing season and higher sugar content in southern sugarcane.

Option 2 is correct. Southern states like Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Andhra Pradesh have become dominant in sugar production due to two key advantages of sugarcane grown there: (1) Longer crushing season — the tropical climate allows sugarcane to grow year-round, giving 7–8 months of crushing compared to 4–5 months in the north; (2) Higher sucrose content — southern varieties of sugarcane (co-varieties) have a higher sugar recovery rate (sugar recovery of ~11–12% vs ~9–10% in the north), making mills more productive and profitable.
• Increased demand for sugar in southern India: Sugar is produced for national distribution, not just local demand; this alone would not shift the industry.
• Abundant availability of cheap labor: Both northern and southern states have agricultural labor; this is not the primary driver of the industry shift.
• Better transportation networks: Infrastructure improvements exist throughout India; transportation advantage is not the dominant factor in the southward shift.

Medieval History (1)

Delhi Sultanate · Lodi dynasty

Q17. Which Lodi ruler is credited with founding the city of Agra and introducing a new standardized land measurement system known as 'Sikandari Gaj'?

  1. (a) Daulat Khan Lodi
  2. (b) Sikandar Lodi
  3. (c) Bahlul Lodi
  4. (d) Ibrahim Lodi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sikandar Lodi

Sikandar Lodi is correct. Sikandar Lodi (reign 1489–1517 CE) was the most capable ruler of the Lodi dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate. He founded the city of Agra in 1504 and made it his capital. He also introduced the Sikandari Gaj (Sikandari yard), a standardized unit of measurement (approximately 32 inches) used for measuring agricultural land and textiles — an important administrative reform for revenue assessment.
• Daulat Khan Lodi: A governor of Punjab during the Lodi period, not a sultan; not associated with founding Agra.
• Bahlul Lodi: The founder of the Lodi dynasty (reign 1451–1489); Agra was founded after his time, by Sikandar.
• Ibrahim Lodi: The last Lodi sultan (1517–1526), defeated and killed by Babur at the First Battle of Panipat (1526); he did not found Agra.

Current Affairs (1)

Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q18. Where was the National Inter-State Senior Athletics Championships 2024 held?

  1. (a) Warangal, Telangana
  2. (b) Mumbai, Maharashtra
  3. (c) Panaji, Goa
  4. (d) Panchkula, Haryana
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Panchkula, Haryana

Panchkula, Haryana is correct. The National Inter-State Senior Athletics Championships 2024 were held at Panchkula, Haryana. This annual championship is organized by the Athletics Federation of India (AFI) and serves as a key selection event for India's national athletics teams for major international competitions.
• Warangal, Telangana: Not the venue for the 2024 National Inter-State Senior Athletics Championships.
• Mumbai, Maharashtra: Not the host city for this particular 2024 championship.
• Panaji, Goa: Not associated with this athletics championship in 2024.
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