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Elections, Parties and Representation PYQs – Polity, SSC & Railway

27 Elections, Parties and Representation (Polity) questions asked in recent SSC and Railway exams, newest first, with exam, date & shift, answers and solutions.

📚 27 questionsSSC 12 · Railway 15
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 10 September 2026 Shift 2 · Anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule)

Q1. The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985 is considered a landmark in curbing political defections. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the most significant constitutional impact of this amendment?

  1. (a) It inserted the Tenth Schedule in the Constitution, laying down the procedure for the impeachment of the President.
  2. (b) It empowered the President to dismiss Members of Parliament for anti-party activities.
  3. (c) It added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, providing the grounds for disqualification of legislators on grounds of defection.
  4. (d) It gave the Election Commission the final authority to decide on disqualifications under the anti-defection law.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, providing the grounds for disqualification of legislators on grounds of defection.

Answer: Option 3 — It added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, providing the grounds for disqualification of legislators on grounds of defection.
The 52nd Amendment Act, 1985 inserted the Tenth Schedule, the anti-defection law, and amended Articles 101, 102, 190 and 191.
It lays down when an MP or MLA loses the seat for defecting, and the decision rests with the Speaker or Chairman, not the President or the Election Commission.
Revision note — The anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule)
• Added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985, during the government of Rajiv Gandhi, and in force from 1 March 1985.
• A party member is disqualified if he voluntarily gives up membership of that party.
• He is also disqualified if he votes or abstains against the party whip without prior permission and is not pardoned within 15 days.
• An independent member is disqualified if he joins any political party after being elected; a nominated member is disqualified if he joins a party after six months of taking his seat.
• The Speaker of the House, or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, decides the question of disqualification.
• In Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992) the Supreme Court held that this decision is open to judicial review.
• The 91st Amendment Act, 2003 deleted the exemption for a one-third split, leaving only a two-thirds merger as a defence, and capped the Council of Ministers at 15 per cent.
• The Tenth Schedule does not apply to the Speaker or Chairman who gives up party membership on election to that office.
Do not mix these up
• Tenth Schedule vs Twelfth Schedule — the Tenth is the anti-defection law (52nd Amendment, 1985); the Twelfth lists the 18 functions of municipalities (74th Amendment, 1992).
• Split vs merger — the one-third split defence was removed in 2003; only a two-thirds merger now saves a defector from disqualification.
Also asked from this topic: the Schedule added for disqualification on defection (Schedule X); the amendment that introduced the anti-defection law (52nd, 1985); what disqualifies an independent MP (joining a party after election).
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 17 June 2026 Shift 3 · Anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule)

Q2. Which of the following Schedules was added to the Constitution of India, to provide for the disqualification of the members of Parliament and the state legislatures on the ground of defection from one political party to another?

  1. (a) Schedule XII
  2. (b) Schedule X
  3. (c) Schedule IX
  4. (d) Schedule XI
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Schedule X

Anti-Defection Law
Added by:52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985
Provision:Tenth Schedule (Schedule X)deals with disqualification of members on grounds of defection.
Key Point: Prevents elected members from switching parties to gain political advantage.
Answer: Option 2 → Schedule X
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 15 June 2026 Shift 2 · Delimitation and reservation of seats

Q3. Women's Reservation (The Constitution One Hundred Twenty-Eighth Amendment) Bill 2023 passed by the Parliament provides one-third reservation of all seats for women in Lok Sabha, state legislative assemblies and the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi for an initial period of how many years?

  1. (a) 10 Years
  2. (b) 15 Years
  3. (c) 20 Years
  4. (d) 5 Years
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 15 Years

Women's Reservation Bill 2023
(128th Constitutional Amendment)
Key Provisions:
• Reserves 1/3 seats for women in Lok Sabha
• Applies to State Legislative Assemblies
• Includes Delhi Legislative Assembly
Duration:Initial period of15 years
Implementation: After census + delimitation
Answer: Option 2 → 15 Years
SSC GD 2026 – 22 May 2026 Shift 2 · Political parties - recognition and symbols

Q4. Who decides the reserved symbols for national and state-level parties in India?

  1. (a) Supreme Court
  2. (b) President
  3. (c) Election Commission of India
  4. (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Election Commission of India

Correct Answer: Election Commission of India — Option (c)
The Election Commission of India (ECI) decides the reserved symbols for national and state-level political parties. About Election Symbols in India: Legal basis: The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 governs the allotment of election symbols to political parties and candidates in India; It was issued by the Election Commission of India under Article 324 of the Constitution and the Representation of the People Act; Powers of the ECI regarding symbols: Recognition of political parties (national and state parties); Reservation of symbols for recognized parties (exclusive symbols that only that party can use); Allotment of free symbols to unrecognized parties and independent candidates; Settlement of disputes regarding symbols (e.g., when a party splits, ECI decides which faction gets the symbol — as in the famous cases of Shiv Sena and NCP in 2022-23); National Party Status criteria: A party is recognized as a 'National Party' if it secures 6% votes in 4 or more states AND wins 4 Lok Sabha seats, OR wins 2% of Lok Sabha seats from at least 3 states; State Party criteria: 6% votes in a state + 2 state assembly seats, OR 6% of state assembly seats; ECI's constitutional status: The Election Commission of India is an independent constitutional body established under Article 324; Currently a three-member body (Chief Election Commissioner + 2 Election Commissioners).
Option (a) Supreme Court — Incorrect: The Supreme Court does not decide reserved symbols for political parties — that is the exclusive domain of the Election Commission of India; the Supreme Court may adjudicate disputes related to elections but does not allocate symbols.
Option (b) President — Incorrect: The President of India does not decide reserved symbols for political parties; this power rests with the Election Commission of India under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968.
Option (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha — Incorrect: The Speaker of Lok Sabha handles matters related to the anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule of the Constitution) and conduct of parliamentary proceedings — the Speaker does NOT decide reserved symbols for political parties; that is ECI's function.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 9 May 2026 Shift 1 · Delimitation and reservation of seats

Q5. Which post-100th Amendment is the most recent and aims to reserve seats for women, with certain transitional and delimitation requirements before it becomes fully operational?

  1. (a) 103rd Amendment
  2. (b) 106th Amendment
  3. (c) 104th Amendment
  4. (d) 105th Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 106th Amendment

Topic: Constitutional Amendments - Women's Reservation
106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023
Provides33% reservation for womenin Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
Passed in September 2023, received Presidential assent.
Key Feature:Implementation after delimitation exercise and census.
Most recent post-100th Amendment with transitional requirements.
Note:103rd = EWS quota, 104th = SC/ST quota extension, 105th = State powers restoration.
Answer: Option 2 → 106th Amendment
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 8 May 2026 Shift 1 · Anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule)

Q6. The Anti-Defection Law was introduced through which Constitutional Amendment?

  1. (a) 52nd Amendment
  2. (b) 73rd Amendment
  3. (c) 44th Amendment
  4. (d) 61st Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 52nd Amendment

Anti-Defection Law
Introduced through52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985
AddedTenth Scheduleto the Constitution
Prevents elected members from defecting to other parties
Disqualification decided by Speaker/Chairman
Answer: Option 1 → 52nd Amendment
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 7 May 2026 Shift 3 · Delimitation and reservation of seats

Q7. The 106ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment inserted which of the following new Articles in the Constitution?

  1. (a) 325A, 327A
  2. (b) 371A, 371B
  3. (c) 339A, 341B
  4. (d) 330A, 332A
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 330A, 332A

106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023
Topic: Reservation for Women in Legislatures
Key Facts:
• InsertedArticle 330A- Reservation of seats for women in Lok Sabha
• InsertedArticle 332A- Reservation of seats for women in State Legislative Assemblies
• Provides 33% reservation for women in Parliament and State Assemblies
• Also known as Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam
Answer: Option 4 → 330A, 332A
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 25 March 2026 Shift 3 · Delimitation and reservation of seats

Q8. According to the Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act, 2023, what proportion of seats to be filled by direct election in the House of the People (Lok Sabha) is to be reserved for women?

  1. (a) One-quarter of the seats
  2. (b) One-half of the seats
  3. (c) One-third of the seats
  4. (d) Two-thirds of the seats
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) One-third of the seats

Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023
Also known asNari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam.
Provides reservation ofone-third (33%)seats for women in:
• Lok Sabha (House of the People)
• State Legislative Assemblies
Implementation after delimitation exercise and census.
Answer: Option 3 → One-third of the seats
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 24 March 2026 Shift 2 · Anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule)

Q9. In which year was the 52nd Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution, which introduced the Anti‑Defection Law to prevent elected representatives from switching political parties, passed?

  1. (a) 1975
  2. (b) 1980
  3. (c) 1990
  4. (d) 1985
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1985

52nd Amendment Act - Anti-Defection Law
Key Facts:
• Passed in1985during Rajiv Gandhi's tenure
• Added10th Scheduleto the Constitution
• Prevents elected members from defecting to other parties
• Disqualification on grounds of defection
Answer: Option 4 → 1985
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 17 March 2026 Shift 2 · Anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule)

Q10. Which action attracts disqualification of an independent MP under the Anti-Defection Law introduced by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985?

  1. (a) Joining any political party after their election
  2. (b) Remaining neutral during debates
  3. (c) Supporting a coalition government
  4. (d) Voting differently from party whip
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Joining any political party after their election

Added10th Scheduleto Constitution to prevent defection.
For Independent MPs:
If an independent member joins any political party after election, they are disqualified.
Options 2 & 3: No disqualification for independent MPs.
Option 4: Applies only to party members, not independents.
Answer: Option 1 → Joining any political party after their election
SSC MTS 2025 – 18 February 2026 Shift 2 · Delimitation and reservation of seats

Q11. In Lok Sabha, how many seats were reserved for Scheduled Tribes?

  1. (a) 54
  2. (b) 56
  3. (c) 47
  4. (d) 84
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 47

The correct answer is option 3.
In the Lok Sabha, 47 seats are reserved for Scheduled Tribes (STs) as per the Delimitation Commission provisions. These reserved constituencies ensure adequate political representation for tribal communities in Parliament.
Option 1 is incorrect: 54 does not correspond to the number of ST-reserved seats in Lok Sabha.
Option 2 is incorrect: 56 is not the correct figure for ST reserved seats.
Option 4 is incorrect: 84 is the number of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes (SCs) in Lok Sabha, not for Scheduled Tribes.
SSC MTS 2025 – 9 February 2026 Shift 1 · Election facts and firsts

Q12. The total number of women contesting general elections in the country has increased to _____ in 2024.

  1. (a) 10%
  2. (b) 14%
  3. (c) 16%
  4. (d) 21%
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 10%

Correct Answer: 1 (10%)
In the 2024 Indian General Elections (Lok Sabha), approximately 797 women candidates contested out of a total of around 8,360 candidates, which amounts to approximately 10% of all contesting candidates. This represented a new high in terms of women's participation in Indian electoral politics.
Option 2 (14%) is incorrect.
Option 3 (16%) is incorrect - the candidate chose this wrong option.
Option 4 (21%) is incorrect.
SSC MTS 2025 – 9 February 2026 Shift 2 · Delimitation and reservation of seats

Q13. In Lok Sabha, how many seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes?

  1. (a) 84
  2. (b) 54
  3. (c) 56
  4. (d) 92
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 84

Correct Answer: 1 – 84.
As per the Delimitation Order, 84 seats out of 543 in the Lok Sabha are reserved for Scheduled Castes (SC). This reservation is based on the proportion of SC population in various constituencies as per the Constitution of India (Article 330).
Option 2 (54) is incorrect.
Option 3 (56) is incorrect – the candidate had selected this wrongly.
Option 4 (92) is incorrect – 47 seats are reserved for Scheduled Tribes (ST), not 92 for SC.

Q14. Regarding the Delimitation Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct and aligns with the constitutional provisions and Supreme Court interpretations related to its powers and functioning?

  1. (a) The Delimitation Commission's orders are subject to judicial review, and the Supreme Court can modify its decisions if they violate principles of equality under Article 14.
  2. (b) The Delimitation Commission is a constitutional body appointed every 5 years to ensure proportional representation in Parliament and State Assemblies, and its orders take effect only after Presidential assent.
  3. (c) The Delimitation Commission's orders are final and binding, cannot be challenged in any court, and are implemented as per the schedule laid down in the delimitation order.
  4. (d) The Constitution mandates that the Delimitation Commission must fix equal population for every parliamentary and assembly constituency, without exceptions for special provisions like Scheduled Tribes or geographical considerations.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The Delimitation Commission's orders are final and binding, cannot be challenged in any court, and are implemented as per the schedule laid down in the delimitation order.

Option 3 is correct. Under the Delimitation Commission Act and Article 327 of the Constitution, the orders of the Delimitation Commission are final and cannot be questioned in any court of law. The Supreme Court has consistently held that delimitation orders have constitutional protection from judicial review (as affirmed in Meghraj Kothari v. Delimitation Commission). Orders are directly notified in the Gazette and come into force on the date specified therein.
• Option 1 is wrong: Delimitation orders are explicitly immune from judicial review — this is one of their most distinctive constitutional features.
• Option 2 is wrong: The Delimitation Commission is a statutory (not constitutional) body, not appointed every 5 years on a fixed schedule; delimitation exercises are conducted after each census as directed by Parliament, and orders do not require Presidential assent.
• Option 4 is wrong: The Delimitation Commission accommodates exceptions — constituencies are reserved for Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes, and geographical considerations affect delimitation in hilly/remote areas.

Q15. To encourage higher voter turnout, the Election Commission of India (ECI) appointed cricket legend Sachin Tendulkar to what role for the 2024 elections?

  1. (a) Chief Election Commissioner
  2. (b) Brand Ambassador
  3. (c) National Icon
  4. (d) Security Advisor
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) National Icon

The correct answer is (c) National Icon.
The Election Commission of India appointed cricket legend Sachin Tendulkar as a 'National Icon' (not merely Brand Ambassador) to encourage higher voter turnout for the 2024 General Elections. National Icons are appointed by ECI to inspire citizens, especially youth, to participate in the democratic process.
(a) Chief Election Commissioner: A constitutional appointee heading the ECI; Sachin Tendulkar was appointed as a symbolic figure, not as CEC.
(b) Brand Ambassador: While the term is sometimes used loosely, ECI's formal designation for Sachin Tendulkar and other celebrities is 'National Icon,' which carries a specific mandate to promote voter awareness.
(d) Security Advisor: This is a completely different role related to security advisory; not applicable to Sachin Tendulkar's ECI appointment.

Q16. Which of the following constitutional amendments is known for introducing the "Anti-Defection Law"?

  1. (a) 44th Amendment, 1978
  2. (b) 52nd Amendment, 1985
  3. (c) 61st Amendment, 1989
  4. (d) 73rd Amendment, 1992
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 52nd Amendment, 1985

The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985, introduced the Anti-Defection Law by adding the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution. It disqualifies legislators who defect from their party (by voluntarily giving up membership or voting against party directions). Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: The 44th Amendment (1978) restored fundamental rights curtailed during the Emergency, including restoring the right to property as a legal right; it did not introduce the Anti-Defection Law.
Option 3 is wrong: The 61st Amendment (1989) lowered the voting age from 21 to 18 years; it had nothing to do with anti-defection provisions.
Option 4 is wrong: The 73rd Amendment (1992) gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions by adding Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule; it did not deal with political defections.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 6 December 2025 Shift 1 · Anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule)

Q17. Which schedule of the Constitution contains provisions for the disqualification of legislators under the anti-defection law?

  1. (a) Eleventh Schedule
  2. (b) Eighth Schedule
  3. (c) Tenth Schedule
  4. (d) Ninth Schedule
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tenth Schedule

The correct answer is Tenth Schedule . The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, also known as the Anti-Defection Law , was added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985 . It provides the grounds on which legislators (both MPs and MLAs) can be disqualified on the basis of defection. A member is disqualified if they voluntarily give up the membership of the party, or if they vote/abstain against the direction of the party without prior permission. The power to decide disqualification lies with the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha/State Legislative Assembly , depending on the case. This law was enacted to curb political instability caused by frequent defections and to strengthen democracy by ensuring party discipline.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 14 November 2025 Shift 1 · Electoral system and universal adult franchise

Q18. The minimum age to vote in Indian State Legislative Election is ________.

  1. (a) 16 years
  2. (b) 18 years
  3. (c) 21 years
  4. (d) 25 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 18 years

The minimum age to vote in any election in India — including State Legislative Assembly elections — is 18 years. This was set by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988, which lowered the voting age from 21 to 18 years. 16 years is the voting age in some countries but not India; 21 years is the age for contesting Lok Sabha/State Assembly elections; 25 years is for contesting Rajya Sabha elections.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 2 September 2025 Shift 2 · Anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule)

Q19. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) It provides for disqualification of members on grounds of defection.
  2. (b) It defines the distribution of powers between the Union and States.
  3. (c) It contains provisions regarding Official Languages.
  4. (d) It deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It provides for disqualification of members on grounds of defection.

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 2 September 2025 Shift 3 · Representation of the People Acts

Q20. To be eligible for membership of a State Legislature, a candidate must meet which of the following qualifications as laid down in the Representation of the People Act, 1951?

  1. (a) Pay income tax in the State
  2. (b) Be an elector (voter) in any State assembly constituency
  3. (c) Be a permanent resident of the State for 15 years
  4. (d) Have at least a graduate degree
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Be an elector (voter) in any State assembly constituency

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 28 August 2025 Shift 3 · Anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule)

Q21. Which of the following subjects is addressed by the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Panchayati Raj system
  2. (b) Emergency powers and procedures
  3. (c) Provisions related to anti-defection
  4. (d) Official languages
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Provisions related to anti-defection

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 19 August 2025 Shift 1 · Electoral system and universal adult franchise

Q22. Which Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years in India?

  1. (a) Eighty-sixth Amendment Act, 2002
  2. (b) Forty-fourth Amendment Act, 1978
  3. (c) Fifty-second Amendment Act, 1985
  4. (d) Sixty-first Amendment Act, 1988
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sixty-first Amendment Act, 1988

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 13 August 2025 Shift 2 · Anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule)

Q23. The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution is related to the:

  1. (a) recognition of languages
  2. (b) protection of land reform laws
  3. (c) disqualification on grounds of defection
  4. (d) distribution of seats in the Lok Sabha
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) disqualification on grounds of defection

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 13 August 2025 Shift 2 · Delimitation and reservation of seats

Q24. Which Article of the Indian Constitution was amended by the 106ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act to provide for women’s reservation in the Legislative Assembly of Delhi?

  1. (a) Article 332A
  2. (b) Article 243D
  3. (c) Article 239AA
  4. (d) Article 330A
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 239AA

Q25. Which constitutional authority decides on the disqualification of a Member of State Legislature under the Anti-Defection Law?

  1. (a) Chief Justice of High Court
  2. (b) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
  3. (c) Election Commission
  4. (d) Governor
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
Under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law, 52nd Constitutional Amendment 1985), the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly is the sole deciding authority for disqualification of members on grounds of defection. Similarly, the Chairman decides for the Legislative Council. Judicial review of the Speaker's decision is available through High Courts and the Supreme Court.
Option 1 (Chief Justice of High Court): Has no role in anti-defection proceedings at the initial decision stage.
Option 3 (Election Commission): Decides on disqualifications under Articles 103/192 (at time of election) — not for defection cases under the Tenth Schedule.
Option 4 (Governor): Decides disqualification of state legislators under Article 192 on EC's advice; not for defection cases.

Q26. Which constitutional authority decides on the disqualification of a Member of State Legislature under the Anti-Defection Law?

  1. (a) Chief Justice of High Court
  2. (b) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
  3. (c) Election Commission
  4. (d) Governor
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
Under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law, added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment, 1985) of the Indian Constitution, the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) is the decision-making authority for disqualification of members of the State Legislature on grounds of defection. Similarly, the Chairman decides for Rajya Sabha/Legislative Council members, and the Speaker of Lok Sabha for Parliament members.
Option 1 (Chief Justice of High Court): Has no role in Anti-Defection proceedings; judicial review of the Speaker's decision is possible but courts generally defer to the Speaker.
Option 3 (Election Commission): Decides disqualifications under Article 103 (for Parliament) and 192 (for State Legislatures) on grounds of disqualifications at time of election (not defection).
Option 4 (Governor): Decides disqualification of State Legislature members under Article 192 on the Election Commission's opinion, but NOT for defection cases.
RRB JE CBT-1 2024-25 – 18 December 2024 Shift 2 · Electoral system and universal adult franchise

Q27. Which of the following articles deals with elections to the House of the People and to the legislative assemblies of state to be on the basis of adult suffrage?

  1. (a) 352
  2. (b) 326
  3. (c) 340
  4. (d) 318
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 326

Answer: Option 2 — 326
Article 326 says elections to the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies are held on the basis of adult suffrage.
Every citizen aged 18 years or more who is not otherwise disqualified can vote.
Revision note — Elections in the Constitution (Part XV)
• Part XV, Articles 324–329, deals with elections.
• Article 324 — the Election Commission: superintendence, direction and control of elections.
• Article 325 — one general electoral roll for each constituency; no one excluded on religion, race, caste or sex.
• Article 326 — adult suffrage; the 61st Amendment Act, 1988 cut the voting age from 21 to 18.
• Article 327 / 328 — Parliament / State Legislature may make laws on elections.
• Article 329 — courts barred from interfering in electoral matters.
Do not mix these up
• Article 352 vs 326 — 352 is National Emergency; 340 is the Backward Classes Commission; 318 is about Public Service Commission members.
Also asked from this topic: the amendment that lowered the voting age from 21 to 18 (61st Amendment, 1988); the minimum voting age for State Legislative Assembly elections (18 years).

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