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Delhi Police Head Constable 2025-26 7 January 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 19 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Head Constable 2025-26 on 7 January 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Static GK, Polity, Current Affairs, Economics, Geography, Physics.

📚 19 questions🗓️ 7 January 2026⏰ Shift 2
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Static GK (7) · Polity (1) · Current Affairs (2) · Economics (4) · Geography (1) · Physics (1) · Chemistry (1) · Ancient History (1) · Medieval History (1)

Static GK (7)

Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q1. Which classical dance form is traditionally performed by male monks in monasteries, and integrates Vaishnavite themes from Bhagavata Purana?

  1. (a) Kathak
  2. (b) Manipuri
  3. (c) Sattriya
  4. (d) Kuchipudi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sattriya

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Sattriya
Sattriya is a classical dance form of Assam, originally performed by male monks (Vaishnavite monks called Bhakats) inside monasteries known as Satras. It was founded by the saint-scholar Srimanta Sankardeva in the 15th century. It integrates Vaishnavite themes drawn from the Bhagavata Purana, using devotional music, drama, and dance to propagate the Vaishnava faith.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Kathak): Kathak is a classical dance from North India, not performed in monasteries and does not specifically integrate Vaishnavite themes from Bhagavata Purana in the same monastic tradition.
Option 2 (Manipuri): Manipuri is a classical dance of Manipur. While it has Vaishnavite influences, it is not performed by male monks in monasteries.
Option 4 (Kuchipudi): Kuchipudi is a classical dance from Andhra Pradesh. It was historically performed by Brahmin males but is not specifically performed in monasteries by monks.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q2. Amrita Pritam is often regarded as a feminist icon in Indian literature. What was her most iconic work reflecting the trauma of Partition and a woman's inner voice?

  1. (a) Agnipath
  2. (b) Pinjar
  3. (c) Jhansi Ki Rani
  4. (d) Toba Tek Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Pinjar

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Pinjar
'Pinjar' (meaning 'The Skeleton') is Amrita Pritam's most celebrated novel, written in Punjabi in 1950. It portrays the trauma of Partition through the story of Pooro, a Hindu woman abducted before Partition and forced to live as a Muslim man's wife. The novel explores themes of loss of identity, suffering, resilience, and the inner voice of women during one of history's most violent episodes.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Agnipath): 'Agnipath' is a poem by Harivansh Rai Bachchan, not by Amrita Pritam.
Option 3 (Jhansi Ki Rani): This is a famous poem by Subhadra Kumari Chauhan, not by Amrita Pritam.
Option 4 (Toba Tek Singh): This is a famous short story by Saadat Hasan Manto, not by Amrita Pritam. It also deals with Partition but is a different author's work.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q3. Which of the following features are part of the Perupalem Beach Festival?

  1. (a) Folk music and dance
  2. (b) Coastal weapon exhibitions
  3. (c) Political rallies
  4. (d) Forest parades
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Folk music and dance

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Folk music and dance
The Perupalem Beach Festival is held at Perupalem beach in Andhra Pradesh. It is a cultural and tourism event that showcases the rich heritage of coastal Andhra. The festival is characterised by folk music, traditional dances, local cuisine, and cultural performances. It promotes local art forms and tourism along the coastline.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Coastal weapon exhibitions): Weapon exhibitions are not a feature of this cultural beach festival.
Option 3 (Political rallies): The festival is a cultural tourism event, not a political gathering.
Option 4 (Forest parades): Perupalem is a beach festival, not a forest or wildlife event.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q4. Which of the following statements correctly describes Chronicle of a Corpse Bearer?

  1. (a) It is a fantasy novel set in ancient Persia.
  2. (b) It explores the life of a marginalized Parsi corpse bearer in Mumbai.
  3. (c) It narrates the rise of a political leader during India's freedom struggle.
  4. (d) It is a modern retelling of a Hindu mythological epic.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It explores the life of a marginalized Parsi corpse bearer in Mumbai.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – It explores the life of a marginalized Parsi corpse bearer in Mumbai
'Chronicle of a Corpse Bearer' is a novel written by Cyrus Mistry, an Indian Parsi author. The novel is set in Mumbai and tells the story of Phiroze Elchidana, a young Parsi man who falls in love and marries a girl from the khandhia (corpse-bearer) community — the lowest caste among Parsis who carry bodies to the Tower of Silence (Dokhma). The novel explores themes of caste discrimination within the Parsi community, love, and marginalisation. It won the DSC Prize for South Asian Literature.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Fantasy set in ancient Persia): The novel is realistic fiction set in modern Mumbai, not a fantasy novel.
Option 3 (Political leader during freedom struggle): The novel is not about a political figure or the freedom struggle.
Option 4 (Hindu mythological retelling): The novel is about the Parsi community and does not retell Hindu mythology.
Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q5. QUAD is a strategic forum involving India and which three other countries?

  1. (a) USA, China, Japan
  2. (b) USA, Japan, Australia
  3. (c) USA, Russia, Australia
  4. (d) UK, Japan, Australia
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) USA, Japan, Australia

Correct Answer: Option 2 – USA, Japan, Australia
QUAD (Quadrilateral Security Dialogue) is a strategic grouping of four Indo-Pacific democracies:
1. India
2. United States of America (USA)
3. Japan
4. Australia
The QUAD was first established in 2007 by Japanese PM Shinzo Abe and was revived in 2017. It promotes a free, open, and prosperous Indo-Pacific. The group cooperates on areas including maritime security, infrastructure, climate, vaccines, critical technologies, and cyber security.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (USA, China, Japan): China is not part of QUAD; in fact, QUAD is seen partly as a counterbalance to China's influence.
Option 3 (USA, Russia, Australia): Russia is not a member of QUAD.
Option 4 (UK, Japan, Australia): UK is not a member of QUAD; it is part of a separate grouping called AUKUS (with USA and Australia).
Awards and Honours · Sports awards (Khel Ratna, Arjuna, Dronacharya, Dhyan Chand)

Q6. The Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy is awarded for excellence in which of the following?

  1. (a) Coaching
  2. (b) Teamwork
  3. (c) University
  4. (d) Sportsmanship
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) University

Correct Answer: Option 3 – University (Best Performing University in Sports)
The Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy is awarded annually by the Ministry of Education, Government of India, to the best overall performing university in inter-university sports tournaments conducted by the Association of Indian Universities (AIU). It is the highest sports award given to a university in India. The trophy is named after Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, India's first Education Minister.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Coaching): The trophy is not awarded for coaching excellence; it goes to the best performing university institution.
Option 2 (Teamwork): Teamwork is a quality, not a category for this award.
Option 4 (Sportsmanship): While sportsmanship is valued, this specific trophy is for overall best performing university in sports.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q7. Which is accurate regarding India's chess ranking?

  1. (a) India is among the top global chess nations.
  2. (b) India never hosted a global chess event.
  3. (c) India has no grandmasters.
  4. (d) India ranks below 50 in FIDE.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) India is among the top global chess nations.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – India is among the top global chess nations
India is one of the strongest chess nations in the world. D. Gukesh became the youngest World Chess Champion in December 2024, defeating Ding Liren. India has produced numerous Grandmasters, including Viswanathan Anand (5-time World Champion), Praggnanandhaa, Arjun Erigaisi, and others. India won the Chess Olympiad Gold Medal in both the Open and Women's categories in 2024. India consistently ranks among the top nations in FIDE (International Chess Federation) rankings.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (India never hosted a global chess event): Incorrect. India has hosted major chess events including the Chess Olympiad 2022 in Chennai.
Option 3 (India has no grandmasters): Completely false. India has over 85 Grandmasters as of 2025, making it one of the countries with the most GMs in the world.
Option 4 (India ranks below 50 in FIDE): Incorrect. India ranks among the top nations in FIDE, not below 50.

Polity (1)

Judiciary · Landmark judgments

Q8. In the landmark case R.C. Poudyal v. Union of India (1994), the Supreme Court of India dealt with which of the following key constitutional issues related to the integration of Sikkim into the Indian Union?

  1. (a) Whether Article 371F violates the principle of secularism by allowing special legal protections to the Buddhist monastic institutions of Sikkim.
  2. (b) Whether the reservation of a seat in the Sikkim Legislative Assembly exclusively for the Sangha (monastic community) violates the principles of universal adult franchise and equality under the Constitution.
  3. (c) Whether the President's power to notify Sikkim as a state under Article 2 was constitutionally valid without the need for a constitutional amendment under Article 368.
  4. (d) Whether the provisions of Article 371F, granting legislative supremacy to the Sikkim Assembly, are in violation of the doctrine of separation of powers.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Whether the reservation of a seat in the Sikkim Legislative Assembly exclusively for the Sangha (monastic community) violates the principles of universal adult franchise and equality under the Constitution.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Reservation of a seat for the Sangha in the Sikkim Legislative Assembly
In R.C. Poudyal v. Union of India (1994), the Supreme Court examined whether Article 371F, which provides special protections for Sikkim's integration into India, was constitutionally valid. A key issue was whether reserving a seat in the Sikkim Legislative Assembly exclusively for the Sangha (Buddhist monastic community) violated the constitutional principles of universal adult franchise and equality under Articles 14, 15, and 326 of the Constitution. The Court upheld the provision as a valid special arrangement for Sikkim's unique historical and social circumstances.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1: While secularism and Buddhist institutions were related topics, the core issue was about the reserved seat and adult franchise — not a general secularism challenge.
Option 3: The validity of the President's power under Article 2 was not the main focus of this case.
Option 4: Separation of powers in relation to Article 371F's legislative supremacy was not the central constitutional question addressed.

Current Affairs (2)

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q9. According to the Global Gender Gap Report 2024 published by the World Economic Forum, which of the following statements is TRUE?

  1. (a) The global gender gap has fully closed in the Education and Health dimensions, achieving 100% parity in both.
  2. (b) The projected timeline to achieve full gender parity has shortened to approximately 120 years due to rapid recent progress.
  3. (c) The Political Empowerment gender gap remains the most persistent globally, with progress so slow it would take nearly 170 years to close.
  4. (d) India ranks among the top 10 globally in Economic Participation and Opportunity, reflecting significant strides in women's labour force inclusion.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The Political Empowerment gender gap remains the most persistent globally, with progress so slow it would take nearly 170 years to close.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Political Empowerment gender gap would take nearly 170 years to close
According to the Global Gender Gap Report 2024 (WEF), the Political Empowerment sub-index shows the widest and most persistent gap globally. Progress is extremely slow, and at the current rate, it would take approximately 169 years to fully close the political empowerment gender gap. This dimension measures women's representation in parliament, as ministers, and as heads of state.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1: The Education & Health dimensions have achieved near parity, but NOT 100% parity in both simultaneously.
Option 2: The overall projected timeline as per the 2024 report is approximately 134 years, not 120 years.
Option 4: India does NOT rank in the top 10 globally in Economic Participation and Opportunity; India's overall ranking remains low (129th out of 146 countries in 2024).
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q10. Where was the 57th Senior National Kho-Kho Championship (2024-25) held?

  1. (a) Puri, Odisha
  2. (b) Ahmedabad, Gujarat
  3. (c) Mumbai, Maharashtra
  4. (d) Panaji, Goa
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Puri, Odisha

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Puri, Odisha
The 57th Senior National Kho-Kho Championship (2024-25) was held in Puri, Odisha. Kho-Kho is a traditional Indian tag sport and one of the oldest sports on the Indian subcontinent. The national championship is organised by the Kho-Kho Federation of India (KKFI).
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Ahmedabad, Gujarat): Ahmedabad was not the venue for this championship.
Option 3 (Mumbai, Maharashtra): Mumbai was not the host city for the 57th edition.
Option 4 (Panaji, Goa): Panaji was not the venue for this event.

Economics (4)

Industry and Infrastructure · Make in India, Startup India and PLI

Q11. Which of the following best reflects a critical economic challenge in the implementation of the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan,
particularly in achieving long-term self-reliance across key sectors?

  1. (a) Excessive reliance on foreign direct investment (FDI) to fund domestic innovation
  2. (b) Overproduction in agriculture due to Atmanirbhar Bharat policies
  3. (c) Increase in India's trade surplus with China
  4. (d) Full substitution of imported medical devices within two years of the policy's launch
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Excessive reliance on foreign direct investment (FDI) to fund domestic innovation

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Excessive reliance on FDI to fund domestic innovation
A key criticism and challenge in the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan (Self-Reliant India Mission) is that while it aims to promote self-reliance and reduce import dependency, India continues to heavily rely on Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) to fund domestic innovation and manufacturing. This creates a paradox: the goal of self-reliance is undermined when the innovation and capital base itself depends on foreign investment, particularly in critical sectors like electronics, semiconductors, defence, and pharmaceuticals.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Overproduction in agriculture): Atmanirbhar Bharat does not specifically cause overproduction in agriculture; this is not a documented challenge.
Option 3 (Trade surplus with China): India actually has a large trade DEFICIT with China, not a surplus. This deficit is one of the problems Atmanirbhar Bharat aims to address.
Option 4 (Full substitution of medical devices in two years): This is not a stated goal or outcome of the policy; full substitution within two years was not achieved or promised.
Money and Banking · NPAs and banking reforms (Narasimham, SARFAESI, IBC)

Q12. In the context of India's Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) regime in 2025, which of the following best explains the challenges faced by the IBC framework despite improvements
in resolution timelines, and why is there a growing emphasis on balancing creditor rights with debtor revival?

  1. (a) The IBC has completely eliminated the need for alternative dispute resolution mechanisms by providing swift liquidation only.
  2. (b) Despite faster resolution, challenges persist due to limited availability of skilled insolvency professionals, judicial backlog, and complex multi-layered debt structures, necessitating reforms to promote timely revival alongside creditor protection.
  3. (c) The IBC allows unrestricted write-offs of bad debts by creditors, which leads to reckless lending practices by banks and NBFCs.
  4. (d) The IBC framework mandates government ownership of all insolvent enterprises, reducing private sector participation in resolution processes.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Despite faster resolution, challenges persist due to limited availability of skilled insolvency professionals, judicial backlog, and complex multi-layered debt structures, necessitating reforms to promote timely revival alongside creditor protection.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Challenges persist due to shortage of insolvency professionals, judicial backlog, and complex debt structures
Despite improvements in resolution timelines under the IBC, 2025 saw continued challenges:
1. Shortage of skilled Insolvency Professionals (IPs) to handle complex cases.
2. Judicial backlog at the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) causing delays.
3. Complex multi-layered debt structures making resolution difficult.
4. Rising liquidations instead of revival, raising concerns about job losses and creditor-debtor balance.
These issues have led to calls for reforms to ensure debtor revival alongside creditor protection.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1: IBC has NOT eliminated alternative dispute resolution; it works alongside other mechanisms.
Option 3: IBC does not allow unrestricted write-offs; creditors must follow a structured resolution process.
Option 4: IBC promotes private sector resolution through Committee of Creditors — it does NOT mandate government ownership.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q13. Which of the following measures was taken to reform the external sector in 1991?

  1. (a) Introduction of capital account convertibility
  2. (b) Replacement of Import Substitution by Export Promotion
  3. (c) Complete deregulation of foreign investment
  4. (d) Withdrawal from the WTO
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Replacement of Import Substitution by Export Promotion

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Replacement of Import Substitution by Export Promotion
In 1991, as part of the New Economic Policy (LPG reforms), India shifted its external sector strategy from Import Substitution (producing domestically what was previously imported, with heavy tariffs and quotas) to Export Promotion (liberalising trade, reducing tariffs, devaluing the rupee to make exports competitive, and integrating with global markets). This was a fundamental change in India's trade policy.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Capital account convertibility): Full capital account convertibility was NOT introduced in 1991. India maintains partial convertibility on the capital account even today.
Option 3 (Complete deregulation of foreign investment): Foreign investment was liberalised significantly but NOT completely deregulated. Sectoral caps and conditions remained.
Option 4 (Withdrawal from WTO): India did not withdraw from WTO. In fact, India was a founding member of WTO in 1995 and supports multilateral trade.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Deficits (fiscal, revenue, primary)

Q14. Which among the following correctly denotes the Primary Deficit?

  1. (a) Revenue Expenditure minus Revenue Receipts
  2. (b) Sum of the net increase in holdings of treasury bills of the RBI and its contributions to the market borrowing of the government
  3. (c) Budgetary Deficit plus Government market borrowings and liabilities
  4. (d) Fiscal Deficit minus Interest Payments
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Fiscal Deficit minus Interest Payments

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Fiscal Deficit minus Interest Payments
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments
It represents the gap between the government's total expenditure (excluding interest payments) and its total receipts. It shows how much the government is borrowing to meet current expenditure other than interest obligations. A zero primary deficit means the government borrows only to service past debt.
Key Deficits:
• Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts
• Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – Total Receipts (excluding borrowings)
• Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments
• Monetised Deficit = Net RBI credit to the government
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Revenue Exp – Revenue Receipts): This is the formula for Revenue Deficit, not Primary Deficit.
Option 2 (RBI treasury bills + market borrowing): This describes Monetised Deficit.
Option 3 (Budgetary Deficit + market borrowings): This is close to the formula for Fiscal Deficit, not Primary Deficit.

Geography (1)

Atmosphere and Climate · Climate change and global warming

Q15. Which of the following statements best describes the Common Carbon Metric (CCM) and its significance in international climate governance and urban sustainability assessments?

  1. (a) The Common Carbon Metric is a voluntary carbon trading mechanism under the Paris Agreement's Article 6, primarily designed for measuring national emissions from the agriculture sector.
  2. (b) Developed by the World Bank, the Common Carbon Metric is a monetary tool to evaluate carbon pricing and determine penalties for non-compliance under the Kyoto Protocol.
  3. (c) The Common Carbon Metric, developed by UNEP and partners, is a standardized methodology for measuring and reporting greenhouse gas emissions from buildings, promoting comparability and transparency in urban carbon accounting.
  4. (d) The Common Carbon Metric is a regional index designed by ASEAN to measure cumulative emissions from transportation and heavy industry in Southeast Asia for inclusion in Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The Common Carbon Metric, developed by UNEP and partners, is a standardized methodology for measuring and reporting greenhouse gas emissions from buildings, promoting comparability and transparency in urban carbon accounting.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – CCM is a UNEP-developed standardized methodology for GHG emissions from buildings
The Common Carbon Metric (CCM) was developed by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) Sustainable Buildings and Climate Initiative (SBCI), along with partners. It is a standardized methodology specifically designed to measure and report greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions from building operations. Its purpose is to promote comparability and transparency in urban carbon accounting — enabling cities and countries to consistently track and reduce building-related emissions.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Paris Agreement Article 6 / agriculture): The CCM is not a carbon trading mechanism and is not focused on agriculture emissions.
Option 2 (World Bank / Kyoto Protocol): The CCM was developed by UNEP, not the World Bank. It is not a monetary penalty tool under the Kyoto Protocol.
Option 4 (ASEAN regional index for transport/industry): The CCM is global, not regional, and focuses on buildings — not transportation or heavy industry.

Physics (1)

Modern Physics and Electronics · Nuclear fission, fusion and reactors

Q16. In terms of energy efficiency and by-products, how does nuclear fusion differ from fission?

  1. (a) Fusion releases less energy than fission but is easier to control.
  2. (b) Fusion releases more energy than fission and produces fewer long-lived radioactive wastes.
  3. (c) Fission uses hydrogen isotopes, while fusion uses heavy uranium atoms.
  4. (d) Fission reactions require plasma temperatures, while fusion does not.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Fusion releases more energy than fission and produces fewer long-lived radioactive wastes.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Fusion releases more energy and produces fewer long-lived radioactive wastes
Nuclear Fusion combines light nuclei (e.g., deuterium and tritium — hydrogen isotopes) to form a heavier nucleus, releasing enormous amounts of energy — far more per unit mass than fission. Fusion also produces significantly fewer long-lived radioactive by-products compared to fission, making it a cleaner energy source in theory.
Nuclear Fission splits heavy nuclei (like uranium-235 or plutonium-239) and produces considerable long-lived radioactive waste.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Fusion releases less energy): Incorrect. Fusion releases MORE energy per unit mass than fission.
Option 3 (Fission uses hydrogen, fusion uses uranium): This is completely reversed. Fusion uses hydrogen isotopes (deuterium/tritium); fission uses heavy atoms like uranium.
Option 4 (Fission requires plasma temperatures): This is reversed. Fusion requires extremely high plasma temperatures (millions of degrees). Fission does not require plasma temperatures.

Chemistry (1)

Environmental Chemistry · Air pollutants and their sources

Q17. In the 2024 AQI (Air Quality Index) reports, several Indian cities were listed among the most polluted globally. Which of the following accurately reflects the AQI's assessment criteria and India's environmental challenge?

  1. (a) AQI evaluates only ozone levels.
  2. (b) AQI reports on green cover expansion.
  3. (c) AQI assesses multiple pollutants like PM2.5, PM10, NO2, CO, and SO2, with Indian metros frequently exceeding safe levels.
  4. (d) AQI includes carbon tax performance.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) AQI assesses multiple pollutants like PM2.5, PM10, NO2, CO, and SO2, with Indian metros frequently exceeding safe levels.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – AQI assesses multiple pollutants including PM2.5, PM10, NO2, CO, and SO2
India's AQI (Air Quality Index), as defined by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), evaluates eight pollutants:
PM2.5, PM10, NO2 (Nitrogen Dioxide), SO2 (Sulphur Dioxide), CO (Carbon Monoxide), O3 (Ozone), NH3 (Ammonia), and Pb (Lead).
Indian metro cities like Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, and Lucknow frequently exceed safe AQI levels, especially during winter months due to crop stubble burning, vehicular emissions, and industrial pollution.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Only ozone): AQI does not evaluate only ozone; it covers eight pollutants.
Option 2 (Green cover expansion): AQI does not measure green cover; it measures air pollution levels.
Option 4 (Carbon tax performance): AQI is not a carbon tax metric; it is an air quality measurement tool.

Ancient History (1)

Vedic Period · Vedic literature (Vedas, Brahmanas, Aranyakas, Upanishads)

Q18. The famous philosophical discussions between Nachiketa and Yama are found in which Upanishad?

  1. (a) Kena Upanishad
  2. (b) Katha Upanishad
  3. (c) Mundaka Upanishad
  4. (d) Chandogya Upanishad
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Katha Upanishad

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Katha Upanishad
The Katha Upanishad (also called Kathopanishad) contains the famous dialogue between Nachiketa, a young boy, and Yama, the god of death. Nachiketa seeks the knowledge of life after death and the nature of the Atman (soul). Yama initially tries to dissuade him with worldly gifts but eventually imparts the highest knowledge of Brahman and the immortal Self. This is one of the most profound philosophical discourses in Indian philosophy.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Kena Upanishad): Kena deals with the nature of Brahman and the relationship between Brahman and the human senses — not the Nachiketa-Yama dialogue.
Option 3 (Mundaka Upanishad): Mundaka deals with the knowledge of Brahman and the two types of knowledge (Para and Apara) — not the Nachiketa story.
Option 4 (Chandogya Upanishad): Chandogya is one of the largest Upanishads, dealing with Udgitha (Om chanting), Sama Veda teachings, and concepts like 'Tat Tvam Asi' — not the Nachiketa-Yama dialogue.

Medieval History (1)

Vijayanagara and Bahmani Kingdoms · Vijayanagara dynasties and rulers

Q19. Which of the following statements about the Vijayanagara and Bahmani kingdoms is accurate?

  1. (a) Vijayanagara rulers avoided maritime trade to preserve internal stability.
  2. (b) Bahmani rule remained centralized and politically stable throughout its history.
  3. (c) Krishnadevaraya of Vijayanagara was a celebrated patron of art and literature.
  4. (d) The 1565 Battle of Talikota led to the revival of a unified Bahmani state.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Krishnadevaraya of Vijayanagara was a celebrated patron of art and literature.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Krishnadevaraya was a celebrated patron of art and literature
Krishnadevaraya (1509–1529 CE) was the most powerful ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire. He was a great warrior and an outstanding patron of art, literature, and culture. He himself was a poet and authored 'Amuktamalyada' in Telugu. His court had the 'Ashtadiggajas' — eight celebrated Telugu poets. His reign is considered the golden age of Telugu literature.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Vijayanagara avoided maritime trade): This is incorrect. Vijayanagara actively engaged in maritime trade, especially through ports like Bhatkal, which were crucial for importing Arabian horses for their cavalry.
Option 2 (Bahmani rule remained centralized and stable): The Bahmani Sultanate was frequently politically unstable and eventually fragmented into five Deccan Sultanates (Bijapur, Golconda, Ahmadnagar, Bidar, Berar) by the early 16th century.
Option 4 (Battle of Talikota revived unified Bahmani state): The 1565 Battle of Talikota destroyed Vijayanagara, not revived the Bahmani state. The Bahmani kingdom had already broken up by then.
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