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RRB Group D 2025-26 18 August 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 44 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Group D 2025-26 on 18 August 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Current Affairs, Biology, Physics, Chemistry, Geography.

📚 44 questions🗓️ 18 August 2026⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Economics (3) · Current Affairs (17) · Biology (7) · Physics (10) · Chemistry (6) · Geography (1)

Economics (3)

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q1. What major financial reform was initiated in the Union Budget 2026 to support small businesses in India?

  1. (a) SME Growth Fund with an outlay of ₹10,000 crore
  2. (b) Increasing GST rates for service providers
  3. (c) Launching export incentives for large corporations
  4. (d) Revising direct tax slabs for salaried employees
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) SME Growth Fund with an outlay of ₹10,000 crore

SME Growth Fund – Union Budget 2026
In the Union Budget 2026-27 (presented 1 February 2026), the Finance Minister announced a dedicatedSME Growth Fund with an outlay of ₹10,000 croreto support small and medium enterprises, aimed at boosting jobs, manufacturing and exports.
This is confirmed by multiple contemporaneous reports (Business Standard, HDFC Securities, IRIS MSME) covering Budget 2026-27's MSME measures.
Correct Answer: SME Growth Fund with an outlay of ₹10,000 crore
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q2. Which of the following initiatives, announced in the Union Budget 2026–27, is intended to transform India's sports ecosystem over the next decade?

  1. (a) Sports Talent Nurturing
  2. (b) National Sports Excellence Programme
  3. (c) Khelo India Mission
  4. (d) Youth Skilling Campaign
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Khelo India Mission

Khelo India Mission – Budget 2026-27
The Union Budget 2026-27 announced the launch of theKhelo India Mission, intended to transform India's sports ecosystem over the next decade, along with ₹500 crore earmarked for promotion of sports goods manufacturing.
Confirmed by PIB and DD News headlines: 'Union Budget 2026–27 Announces Launch of Khelo India Mission to Transform Sports Sector'.
Correct Answer: Khelo India Mission
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Sustainable Development Goals

Q3. In 2026, the Government of India promoted green hydrogen initiatives mainly to support which SDG?

  1. (a) SDG 2 – Zero Hunger
  2. (b) SDG 15 – Life on Land
  3. (c) SDG 7 – Affordable and Clean Energy
  4. (d) SDG 10 – Reduced Inequalities
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) SDG 7 – Affordable and Clean Energy

Green Hydrogen and SDG 7
India's green hydrogen initiatives (e.g., the National Green Hydrogen Mission) are aligned mainly withSDG 7 — Affordable and Clean Energy, which targets increasing the share of renewable and clean energy sources.
This is a well-established mapping in India's official SDG/energy-policy communications and does not depend on a single 2026 event, so no additional search evidence beyond standard SDG-goal alignment was needed.
Correct Answer: SDG 7 – Affordable and Clean Energy

Current Affairs (17)

Sports - Current · Olympics, Asian Games and Commonwealth Games - current

Q4. The 2026 Winter Olympics, officially known as the Milano Cortina 2026 Olympic Winter Games, were held in which country?

  1. (a) Italy
  2. (b) Austria
  3. (c) France
  4. (d) Switzerland
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Italy

Milano Cortina 2026 Winter Olympics
The 2026 Winter Olympics, officially the XXV Olympic Winter Games, were held inItaly, hosted jointly by the cities of Milan and Cortina d'Ampezzo, from 6–22 February 2026.
Correct Answer: Italy
Sports - Current · Records and achievements

Q5. Who became the youngest swimmer to cross the 29-km Palk Strait stretch between Sri Lanka and India under “Mission Samandar” in 2026?

  1. (a) Divyansh Patel
  2. (b) Aditya Verma
  3. (c) Ishank Singh
  4. (d) Aryan Sharma
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ishank Singh

Mission Samandar – Palk Strait swim
Seven-year-oldIshank Singhfrom Ranchi, Jharkhand, became the youngest swimmer to cross the roughly 29-km Palk Strait stretch between Sri Lanka and India in 2026, under the effort named 'Mission Samandar', completing the swim in under 10 hours.
Confirmed by The Bridge, News on Air, The Better India, and Aryan Age (which explicitly names 'Mission Samandar').
Correct Answer: Ishank Singh
Economy, Banking and Business · Mergers, acquisitions and partnerships

Q6. As reported in April 2026, which of the following regulatory authorities signed a comprehensive Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Financial Intelligence Unit–India (FIU-India) to strengthen anti-money laundering efforts in the pension sector?

  1. (a) Securities and Exchange Board of India
  2. (b) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
  3. (c) Reserve Bank of India
  4. (d) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority

FIU-India and PFRDA MoU
As reported in April 2026, theFinancial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND)signed a comprehensive MoU with thePension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)to strengthen anti-money laundering (AML) and counter-terror financing efforts in the pension sector (NPS).
Confirmed by PIB press release and reports from The Tribune and Indian Masterminds.
Correct Answer: Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Days and themes - current year

Q7. The theme “Rights. Justice. Action. For ALL Women and Girls” is associated with which international observance celebrated in March 2026?

  1. (a) International Youth Day
  2. (b) International Women’s Day
  3. (c) World Social Justice Day
  4. (d) International Day of the Girl Child
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) International Women’s Day

International Women's Day 2026 theme
The theme'Rights. Justice. Action. For ALL Women and Girls'was adopted for International Women's Day, observed on 8 March 2026.
Confirmed by UN Women (ECA/LAC regional offices), WHO Europe, OHCHR, and UN Web TV pages for International Women's Day 2026.
Correct Answer: International Women’s Day
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q8. In February 2026, Prime Minister Modi inaugurated new administrative complexes in New Delhi as part of the Central Vista redevelopment. What are the names of these complexes and which body do they house?

  1. (a) Bharat Bhavan; houses only the Ministry of Defence
  2. (b) Lok Kalyan Marg; houses the Prime Minister’s residence and office
  3. (c) Seva Teerth and Kartavya Bhavan; house PMO, Cabinet Secretariat, and key ministries
  4. (d) Swarna Mandir; houses the Ministry of Finance and RBI
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Seva Teerth and Kartavya Bhavan; house PMO, Cabinet Secretariat, and key ministries

New PMO complexes – Central Vista
On 13 February 2026, PM Modi inauguratedSeva TeerthandKartavya Bhavan 1 & 2in New Delhi, part of the Central Vista redevelopment. These new complexes house the Prime Minister's Office (PMO), the Cabinet Secretariat, and several key ministries, replacing the old South Block/colonial-era offices.
Confirmed by PMIndia.gov.in, ETV Bharat, Business Standard and India TV coverage of the 13 February 2026 inauguration.
Correct Answer: Seva Teerth and Kartavya Bhavan; house PMO, Cabinet Secretariat, and key ministries
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q9. Which country recently joined the Maitri Research Station as part of India’s 45th Antarctic expedition, marking a significant milestone in scientific diplomacy?

  1. (a) Oman
  2. (b) United Arab Emirates
  3. (c) Qatar
  4. (d) Saudi Arabia
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) United Arab Emirates

45th Antarctic Expedition – Maitri Station
As part of India's 45th Antarctic expedition (2026), scientists from theUnited Arab Emirates (UAE)joined India's Maitri Research Station, marking a milestone in India-UAE polar scientific cooperation.
Confirmed by The Tribune, Morung Express, and NCPOR (National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research) news items on 'UAE scientists partner with India for 45th Antarctic Expedition'.
Correct Answer: United Arab Emirates
Environment and Climate - Current · New protected areas and Ramsar sites

Q10. In April 2026, which protected area in Uttar Pradesh was officially designated as India's 99th Ramsar Site for wetland conservation?

  1. (a) Keoladeo National Park
  2. (b) Shekha Jheel Bird Sanctuary
  3. (c) Nal Sarovar Bird Sanctuary
  4. (d) Sultanpur National Park
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Shekha Jheel Bird Sanctuary

India's 99th Ramsar Site
In April 2026, theShekha Jheel Bird Sanctuaryin Uttar Pradesh was officially designated as India's 99th Ramsar Site (wetland of international importance), taking UP's tally of Ramsar sites to 12.
Confirmed by PIB press release (Union Minister Bhupender Yadav's announcement), DD News, and GKToday.
Correct Answer: Shekha Jheel Bird Sanctuary

Q11. Which of the following authors wrote “The Sage who Reimagined Hinduism: The Life, Lessons and Legacy of Sree Narayana Guru”, a book launched in February 2026 that explores the enduring influence of India’s spiritual and reformist traditions?

  1. (a) Adi Shankaracharya
  2. (b) Dr. Shashi Tharoor
  3. (c) C. P. Radhakrishnan
  4. (d) Sree Narayana Guru
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dr. Shashi Tharoor

Book on Sree Narayana Guru
"The Sage Who Reimagined Hinduism: The Life, Lessons, and Legacy of Sree Narayana Guru" was authored byDr. Shashi Tharoorand was launched/released (by the Vice President) around 19 February 2026.
Confirmed by Wikipedia's page for the book, Goodreads, Amazon listing, and News on Air ('VP Radhakrishnan launches book...').
Correct Answer: Dr. Shashi Tharoor

Q12. Who had authored the book ‘The Library Man of India: The Story of P.N. Panicker’ released by Vice President C. P. Radhakrishnan at Uprashtrapati Bhavan in May 2026?

  1. (a) M. T. Vasudevan Nair
  2. (b) P. P. Sathyan
  3. (c) Shashi Tharoor
  4. (d) C. Radhakrishnan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) P. P. Sathyan

Book on P.N. Panicker
'The Library Man of India: The Story of P.N. Panicker' was released by Vice President C.P. Radhakrishnan in May 2026. The book is authored byP.P. Sathyan(with inputs from N. Balagopal and Rajeev Nair).
Confirmed by PIB press release, Amazon/Rupa Publications listings, and ANI/Sansad TV coverage of the May 2026 release.
Correct Answer: P. P. Sathyan
Sports - Current · Records and achievements

Q13. At the indoor athletics meet held in Liévin, France, in February 2026, which athlete broke the women’s indoor 800 metres world record, surpassing a mark that had stood since 2002?

  1. (a) Roisin Willis
  2. (b) Georgia Hunter Bell
  3. (c) Audrey Werro
  4. (d) Keely Hodgkinson
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Keely Hodgkinson

Women's indoor 800m world record
At the World Indoor Tour meet in Liévin, France, in February 2026, Britain'sKeely Hodgkinsonbroke the women's indoor 800m world record, clocking 1:54.87, surpassing the previous mark set in 2002.
Confirmed by World Athletics, Athletics Weekly, LetsRun, and CITIUS Mag coverage of the Liévin 2026 meet.
Correct Answer: Keely Hodgkinson
Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q14. Which government initiative was showcased alongside PRAGATI 2026 through displays of indigenous equipment?

  1. (a) Digital India
  2. (b) National Manufacturing Mission
  3. (c) Startup India
  4. (d) Aatmanirbhar Bharat
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Aatmanirbhar Bharat

PRAGATI 2026 – indigenous equipment display
At Exercise PRAGATI 2026 (held at Umroi, Meghalaya, concluded end-May 2026), the Indian Army, with FICCI and the Army Design Bureau, organised a defence equipment display of indigenous technologies. Reports explicitly state this display 'highlighted India's growing capabilities in defence design, development and manufacturing under theAtmanirbhar Bharatinitiative'.
Confirmed by Organiser and GlobalSecurity.org coverage of Exercise PRAGATI 2026.
Correct Answer: Aatmanirbhar Bharat
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q15. According to the Economic Survey 2025–26 and World Bank assessment, India was ranked among the top five countries globally in which area among low- and middle-income economies?

  1. (a) Gold production
  2. (b) Private investment in infrastructure
  3. (c) Foreign tourist arrivals
  4. (d) Agricultural export growth
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Private investment in infrastructure

World Bank ranking – private infrastructure investment
The Economic Survey 2025-26 cited a World Bank assessment ranking India among thetop five countriesforprivate investment in infrastructureamong low- and middle-income economies.
Confirmed by PIB press release titled 'World Bank Ranks India Among The Top Five Countries In Terms Of Private Investment In Infrastructure Among Low- And Middle-Income Economies', also covered by IBEF and Angel One.
Correct Answer: Private investment in infrastructure
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Research breakthroughs - current

Q16. Which autonomous research institute under the Department of Atomic Energy had conducted the 2026 first-of-its-kind study analysing the impact of climate shocks such as erratic rainfall, floods, droughts, and rising temperatures on poverty across 593 districts in 21 states of India?

  1. (a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
  2. (b) National Institute of Science Education and Research
  3. (c) National Environmental Research Institute
  4. (d) Indian Institute of Science Education and Research
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) National Institute of Science Education and Research

NISER climate-poverty study
In 2026, theNational Institute of Science Education and Research (NISER), an autonomous institute under the Department of Atomic Energy, conducted a first-of-its-kind study analysing how climate shocks (erratic rainfall, floods, droughts, rising temperatures) intensify poverty across 593 districts in 21 Indian states.
Confirmed by Vision IAS current affairs, Business Standard ('India's poverty map bends under climate pressure, finds NISER study'), and the underlying Springer Nature 'Discover Sustainability' article.
Correct Answer: National Institute of Science Education and Research
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q17. Which ministry launched the free course “YUVA AI for ALL” under the IndiaAI Mission 2025 in November 2025?

  1. (a) Ministry of Science and Technology
  2. (b) Ministry of Education
  3. (c) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  4. (d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

YUVA AI for ALL
In November 2025, theMinistry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)launched 'YUVA AI for ALL', a free national course under the IndiaAI Mission to help citizens understand Artificial Intelligence, aiming to empower about 10 million people with basic AI skills.
Confirmed by PIB press release and MeitY's own Digital India portal (digitalindia.gov.in), plus News on Air (18 November 2025) and Careers360.
Correct Answer: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q18. In May 2026, DRDO successfully conducted the maiden flight trial of the TARA weapon system. What is the primary function of this indigenous system?

  1. (a) A new class of submarine-launched ballistic missile.
  2. (b) A hypersonic cruise missile for anti-ship operations.
  3. (c) A modular range extension kit to convert unguided munitions into precision-guided weapons.
  4. (d) An advanced drone for high-altitude surveillance.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A modular range extension kit to convert unguided munitions into precision-guided weapons.

DRDO TARA weapon system
On 7 May 2026, DRDO and IAF successfully conducted the maiden flight trial of theTARA (Tactical Advanced Range Augmentation)weapon system off the coast of Odisha. TARA is India's first indigenous glide weapon system — amodular range extension kit that converts unguided munitions into precision-guided weapons.
Confirmed by PIB press release, DRDO's official statement (via X/Twitter), and Drishti IAS ('India's 1st Indigenous Glide Weapon TARA').
Correct Answer: A modular range extension kit to convert unguided munitions into precision-guided weapons.

Q19. The "Viksit Bharat - G RAM G Act, 2025," which became a major policy focus in the Union Budget 2026-27, primarily replaces which previous rural employment guarantee scheme?

  1. (a) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
  2. (b) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
  3. (c) National Rural Health Mission
  4. (d) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

Viksit Bharat – G RAM G Act, 2025
The 'Viksit Bharat – G RAM G Act, 2025' ('Reforming MGNREGA for Viksit Bharat') is the reform legislation that replaces/reforms theMahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), and became a major policy focus highlighted in the Union Budget 2026-27, with a record allocation for rural employment.
Confirmed by PIB press note and the official PDF titled 'Viksit Bharat - G RAM G Act 2025 — Reforming M G NREGA for Viksit Bharat', plus Lukmaan IAS and Edunovations coverage.
Correct Answer: Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q20. Which Indian state hosted the inaugural multinational military exercise PRAGATI in May 2026?

  1. (a) Nagaland
  2. (b) Bihar
  3. (c) Meghalaya
  4. (d) Assam
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Meghalaya

Exercise PRAGATI 2026 host state
The inaugural multinational military exercisePRAGATI 2026, bringing together 12–13 nations, was hosted atUmroi, Meghalaya, concluding around 30–31 May 2026.
Confirmed by GlobalSecurity.org ('MULTILATERAL EXERCISE PRAGATI 2026 CONCLUDES AT UMROI, MEGHALAYA'), Assam Tribune, and Organiser.
Correct Answer: Meghalaya

Biology (7)

Cell - Structure and Function · Cytoskeleton, cell death and cancer cells

Q21. Which of the following cell structures is mainly responsible for providing support and maintaining the shape of eukaryotic cells?

  1. (a) Cell Sap
  2. (b) DNA
  3. (c) Nucleoid
  4. (d) Cytoskeleton
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Cytoskeleton

Cytoskeleton and cell shape
Thecytoskeletonis a network of protein filaments (microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules) that extends throughout the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells.
It provides mechanical support, maintains and determines cell shape, and enables organelle movement and cell motility. Cell sap is the fluid content of the vacuole, DNA carries genetic information, and a nucleoid is the DNA-containing region in prokaryotic cells — none of these provide structural support.
Correct Answer: Cytoskeleton
Nutrition and Digestion · Human digestive system - organs

Q22. If peristaltic movements in the oesophagus were disrupted, what would most likely happen to the food after it is chewed and swallowed?

  1. (a) Saliva would increase
  2. (b) Starch would be broken down more quickly
  3. (c) Food would be digested faster
  4. (d) Food would not move efficiently to the stomach
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Food would not move efficiently to the stomach

Peristalsis in the oesophagus
Peristalsis refers to the rhythmic, wave-like muscular contractions that push the food bolus down the oesophagus into the stomach.
If these movements were disrupted, the food would not be propelled efficiently towards the stomach, since the oesophagus does not rely on gravity alone (this is why swallowing works even upside down under normal conditions).
Correct Answer: Food would not move efficiently to the stomach
Diversity and Classification of Living Organisms · Basis and hierarchy of classification

Q23. A clinical botanist is required to identify a plant to its family. Which of the following taxonomic ranks is immediately higher than family in the classification hierarchy?

  1. (a) Genus
  2. (b) Order
  3. (c) Cultivar
  4. (d) Species
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Order

Taxonomic hierarchy
The standard taxonomic hierarchy (from broad to specific) is: Kingdom > Phylum/Division > Class >Order> Family > Genus > Species.
The rank immediately above Family is Order. Genus and Species are ranks below Family, and Cultivar is not a formal rank in this hierarchy (it applies to cultivated plant varieties).
Correct Answer: Order
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Excretory system - kidney and nephron

Q24. What is the main purpose of making urine in animals?

  1. (a) Digest and absorb food
  2. (b) Store energy for future use
  3. (c) Produce hormones
  4. (d) Remove harmful metabolic wastes
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Remove harmful metabolic wastes

Purpose of urine formation
Urine formation is the excretory function of the kidneys, by which nitrogenous and other harmful metabolic wastes (like urea, uric acid, excess salts and water) are filtered from the blood and removed from the body.
Correct Answer: Remove harmful metabolic wastes
Plant Physiology and Morphology · Transport in plants (xylem, phloem)

Q25. Why do plants need a specialized transportation system for water and minerals?

  1. (a) Because diffusion alone is insufficient for large distances in tall plants
  2. (b) Because diffusion does not occur in plants
  3. (c) Because plants have high energy needs like animals
  4. (d) Because plants move and need rapid transport throughout the body
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Because diffusion alone is insufficient for large distances in tall plants

Need for a transport system in plants
Diffusion is a slow process that is effective only over very short distances. Tall plants need to move water and minerals from roots to leaves over long distances, which diffusion alone cannot achieve fast enough.
Hence plants have a specialized vascular system (xylem and phloem) for efficient long-distance transport.
Correct Answer: Because diffusion alone is insufficient for large distances in tall plants
Ecology and Environment · Trophic levels and the 10 percent law

Q26. Which group of organisms depends solely and directly on producers for food?

  1. (a) Herbivores
  2. (b) Omnivores
  3. (c) Carnivores
  4. (d) Decomposers
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Herbivores

Dependence on producers
Herbivores are organisms that eat only plants (producers), so they depend solely and directly on producers for food. Omnivores eat both plants and animals, carnivores eat other animals, and decomposers break down dead organic matter.
Correct Answer: Herbivores

Q27. Complete the analogy.Ribosomes : Protein Synthesis :: Mitochondria : __________.

  1. (a) DNA Replication
  2. (b) Energy Production
  3. (c) Cell Division
  4. (d) Waste Removal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Energy Production

Analogy: cell organelles and their functions
Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis. Similarly, mitochondria are the 'powerhouse of the cell', responsible for aerobic respiration and generating ATP (energy production).
Correct Answer: Energy Production

Physics (10)

Electricity · Resistance, resistivity and their factors

Q28. When the length of a wire is doubled while keeping material and area of cross-section constant, what happens to its resistance?

  1. (a) The resistance becomes half
  2. (b) The resistance becomes twice as much
  3. (c) The resistance becomes four times as much
  4. (d) The resistance remains unchanged
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The resistance becomes twice as much

Resistance and wire length
Resistance of a wire is given byR = ρL/A, where ρ is resistivity, L is length, and A is the cross-sectional area.
Since R is directly proportional to L, doubling the length (keeping material and area constant) doubles the resistance.
Correct Answer: The resistance becomes twice as much
Motion · Uniform circular motion

Q29. Which of the following best describes the motion of a car traveling at a constant speed around a circular track?

  1. (a) The car moves with uniform motion as its velocity remains constant in both magnitude and direction.
  2. (b) The car experiences non-uniform motion because it moves along a curved path at constant speed.
  3. (c) The car moves with uniform circular motion because its speed is constant, but its direction changes continuously.
  4. (d) The car moves in a straight line at constant speed since its direction never changes.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The car moves with uniform circular motion because its speed is constant, but its direction changes continuously.

Motion on a circular track
A car moving at constant speed on a circular track has a constantly changing direction of motion, even though its speed (magnitude of velocity) does not change.
Since velocity is a vector, a change in direction means velocity is changing — this is calleduniform circular motion: constant speed, continuously changing direction.
Correct Answer: The car moves with uniform circular motion because its speed is constant, but its direction changes continuously.
Work, Energy and Power · Power and its units (watt, horsepower)

Q30. A factory manager is comparing two machines that perform the same task. Machine A takes more time to complete the task than Machine B. Based on the definition of power, which factor should the manager consider to determine which machine is more powerful?

  1. (a) The rate at which each machine does work
  2. (b) The mass of each machine
  3. (c) The amount of energy used by each machine
  4. (d) The total work done by each machine
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The rate at which each machine does work

Definition of power
Power is defined as therate of doing work, i.e., Power = Work done / Time taken.
Since both machines perform the same task (same work), the one that takes less time has a higher rate of doing work, hence is more powerful. The relevant factor is therefore the rate at which each machine does work, not the total work, mass, or energy consumed alone.
Correct Answer: The rate at which each machine does work
Sources of Energy · Conventional sources and fossil fuels

Q31. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option:Assertion (A): Coal was formed from trees and plants buried under earth millions of years ago.Reason (R): Heat and pressure over time converted the remains of plants into coal.

  1. (a) A is false, but R is true.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  4. (d) A is true, but R is false.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Assertion and Reason: formation of coal
Assertion (A): Coal was formed from trees and plants buried under the earth millions of years ago — this is a true, well-established geological fact.
Reason (R): Over millions of years, under high heat and pressure, the buried plant remains underwent slow carbonization to form coal — this is also true and correctly explains how (A) happened.
Since R correctly explains the process described in A, both are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Correct Answer: Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Electric generator and Fleming's right-hand rule

Q32. In a generator, what would be the result if the coil is rotated at double the original speed in the same magnetic field?

  1. (a) The resistance of the coil will halve
  2. (b) The induced potential difference will be twice as large
  3. (c) The direction of current will reverse
  4. (d) The magnetic field strength will double
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The induced potential difference will be twice as large

Effect of rotation speed on induced EMF
In an AC generator, the induced EMF (potential difference) is proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux, which depends on the speed of rotation of the coil: EMF ∝ Angular speed (for fixed field and coil area).
Doubling the rotational speed doubles the rate at which the coil cuts magnetic field lines, so the induced potential difference becomes twice as large.
Correct Answer: The induced potential difference will be twice as large
Work, Energy and Power · Numericals on work, energy and power

Q33. A force of 7 N acts on an object, displacing it through 8 m in the direction of the force. What is the work done?

  1. (a) 15 J
  2. (b) 1 J
  3. (c) 56 J
  4. (d) 27 J
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 56 J

Work done by a force
Work done, W = Force × displacement (when force and displacement are in the same direction).
W = 7 N × 8 m =56 J.
Correct Answer: 56 J
Light - Refraction and Lenses · Numericals on refraction and lenses

Q34. An object is placed 15 cm from a concave lens of focal length 10 cm. What is the nature and position of the image formed by the lens?

  1. (a) The image is real, upright and 8 cm from the lens on the same side as the object
  2. (b) The image is virtual, upright and 6 cm from the lens on the same side as the object
  3. (c) The image is virtual, inverted and 12 cm from the lens on the opposite side to the object
  4. (d) The image is real, inverted and 20 cm from the lens on the opposite side to the object
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The image is virtual, upright and 6 cm from the lens on the same side as the object

Image formed by a concave (diverging) lens
• Concave lens: focal length f = -10 cm (sign convention), object distance u = -15 cm
• Lens formula: 1/v - 1/u = 1/f
• 1/v = 1/f + 1/u = -1/10 + (-1/15) = -3/30 - 2/30 = -5/30 = -1/6
• v = -6 cm
A concave lens always forms a virtual, erect, and diminished image on the same side as the object. Here the image forms 6 cm from the lens on the same side as the object.
Correct Answer: The image is virtual, upright and 6 cm from the lens on the same side as the object
Sound and Waves · Reflection of sound, echo and reverberation

Q35. Which of the following best describes the effect of excessive reverberation in a large auditorium during a speech?

  1. (a) It improves the quality of music by making it sharper and more distinct.
  2. (b) It causes spoken words to overlap and become unclear to the audience.
  3. (c) It allows the audience to hear sound for a shorter duration than intended.
  4. (d) It increases the volume of the speaker's voice for everyone present.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It causes spoken words to overlap and become unclear to the audience.

Excessive reverberation
Reverberation is the persistence of sound due to repeated reflections. When reverberation is excessive (as in a poorly designed large auditorium), successive spoken syllables/words overlap with reflected sound of previous ones before dying out.
This overlapping makes speech unclear and difficult for the audience to understand, which is why auditoriums use sound-absorbing materials to control reverberation time.
Correct Answer: It causes spoken words to overlap and become unclear to the audience.
Motion · Numericals on motion

Q36. A runner moves 60 meters north and then 80 meters south in 20 seconds. Which statement is correct about her average speed and average velocity?

  1. (a) Average speed is greater than average velocity
  2. (b) Average speed is less than average velocity
  3. (c) Average speed is zero
  4. (d) Average speed equals average velocity
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Average speed is greater than average velocity

Average speed vs average velocity
• Total distance travelled = 60 m + 80 m = 140 m; Time = 20 s
• Average speed = 140/20 = 7 m/s
• Net displacement = 80 m south − 60 m north = 20 m south
• Average velocity = 20/20 = 1 m/s (south)
Since 7 m/s > 1 m/s, average speed is greater than average velocity.
Correct Answer: Average speed is greater than average velocity
Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Concave mirror - image formation and uses

Q37. A car driver uses a rear-view mirror to observe vehicles behind. If the mirror were replaced with a concave mirror of the same size, which of the following is the most likely consequence for the image of a car far behind?

  1. (a) The image would always be virtual, erect, and magnified
  2. (b) The image would always be virtual, inverted, and diminished
  3. (c) The image would always be virtual, erect, and diminished
  4. (d) The image would appear inverted and could be larger or smaller depending on the position
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The image would appear inverted and could be larger or smaller depending on the position

Concave mirror as a rear-view mirror
Ordinary rear-view mirrors are convex, giving a wider field of view with a virtual, erect, diminished image at all distances — which is why convex mirrors are preferred.
A concave mirror behaves very differently depending on the object's distance relative to its focal length and centre of curvature: it can produce a real, inverted image that is magnified, same-sized, or diminished depending on exact position, and only produces a virtual erect image when the object is very close (within the focal length).
For a car far behind at varying distances, a concave mirror would generally give an inverted image whose size (larger or smaller) changes depending on how far the car is — making it unreliable and inconsistent, unlike the convex mirror's uniform virtual, erect, diminished image.
Correct Answer: The image would appear inverted and could be larger or smaller depending on the position

Chemistry (6)

Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Valency and chemical formulae

Q38. The importance of valency in forming chemical formulae lies in:

  1. (a) Predicting the energy released during compound formation
  2. (b) Measuring the reactivity rate of atoms in gaseous condition
  3. (c) Determining how atoms of elements combine with each other
  4. (d) Identifying the molecular geometry using bonding angles only
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Determining how atoms of elements combine with each other

Role of valency
Valency is the combining capacity of an atom, determined by the number of electrons in its outermost shell that it can lose, gain, or share.
It is used to determine how many atoms of one element combine with atoms of another element to form a chemical compound, which allows us to write correct chemical formulae (e.g., using the criss-cross method).
Correct Answer: Determining how atoms of elements combine with each other
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Suspensions and colloids

Q39. Which of the following is a correct property of a colloidal solution?

  1. (a) The solute can be separated by filtration.
  2. (b) The particles scatter a beam of light.
  3. (c) The solute settles down after some time.
  4. (d) The solute particles are invisible under a microscope.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The particles scatter a beam of light.

Properties of colloidal solutions
Colloidal particles are intermediate in size between true solutions and suspensions. They are large enough to scatter a beam of light passing through them — this is known as theTyndall effect, a defining property of colloids.
Colloidal particles cannot be separated by ordinary filtration, do not settle on standing, and while individually invisible to the naked eye, they can be seen using an ultramicroscope (not a regular microscope) via light scattering.
Correct Answer: The particles scatter a beam of light.
Acids, Bases and Salts · Common salts - preparation and uses (baking soda, washing soda, bleaching powder, plaster of Paris)

Q40. A doctor is preparing a cast for a fractured arm. Why is Plaster of Paris preferred over cement or lime for this purpose?

  1. (a) It is more colorful
  2. (b) It is heavier than cement
  3. (c) It produces heat when mixed with water
  4. (d) It sets quickly and forms a hard, supportive mass
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It sets quickly and forms a hard, supportive mass

Plaster of Paris for casts
Plaster of Paris (calcium sulphate hemihydrate) when mixed with water sets quickly into a hard, solid mass (gypsum), forming a rigid support that conforms to the shape of the limb before hardening.
This quick-setting, hardening property makes it ideal for supporting a fractured bone, unlike cement or lime which set too slowly or are unsuitable for direct skin contact.
Correct Answer: It sets quickly and forms a hard, supportive mass
Chemical Reactions and Equations · Oxidation, reduction and redox reactions

Q41. Why do oxidation and reduction reactions always occur together in chemical changes?

  1. (a) Reaction must be balanced
  2. (b) One substance loses what another gains
  3. (c) Products must be neutral
  4. (d) Energy conservation law demands it
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) One substance loses what another gains

Why oxidation and reduction occur together
Oxidation is the loss of electrons and reduction is the gain of electrons. In any redox reaction, the electrons lost by one substance (oxidation) must be exactly gained by another substance (reduction) — electrons cannot simply disappear.
This is why oxidation and reduction always occur simultaneously, as complementary halves of the same electron-transfer process — what one substance loses, another gains.
Correct Answer: One substance loses what another gains
Metals and Non-metals · Corrosion and its prevention (galvanisation, etc.)

Q42. Why does galvanisation protect iron even when the zinc layer is damaged?

  1. (a) Zinc increases iron hardness
  2. (b) Zinc reacts faster with water
  3. (c) Zinc prevents oxygen contact
  4. (d) Zinc corrodes preferentially
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Zinc corrodes preferentially

Galvanisation and sacrificial protection
Galvanisation coats iron with a layer of zinc. Zinc is more reactive than iron, so even if the zinc coating is scratched or damaged exposing the iron underneath, the zinc continues to corrode (oxidise) preferentially instead of the iron.
This is known assacrificial/cathodic protection— the zinc acts as a sacrificial anode, protecting the iron from rusting even after the coating is damaged.
Correct Answer: Zinc corrodes preferentially
Carbon and its Compounds · Ethanol and ethanoic acid

Q43. Which property of alcohol makes it suitable for use as an alternative fuel in vehicles?

  1. (a) It is heavier than petrol.
  2. (b) It has a lower boiling point than water.
  3. (c) It is a gaseous fuel.
  4. (d) It burns cleanly, producing less smoke and harmful gases.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It burns cleanly, producing less smoke and harmful gases.

Alcohol as an alternative fuel
Alcohol (ethanol) is considered a cleaner alternative fuel because it undergoes more complete combustion, producing less smoke and fewer harmful pollutants (like carbon monoxide and particulate matter) compared to conventional fuels.
Correct Answer: It burns cleanly, producing less smoke and harmful gases.

Geography (1)

Environment and Protected Areas · Biodiversity hotspots

Q44. A wildlife reserve in the Western Ghats is losing forest cover rapidly. Which statement best explains why this region is a global conservation priority?

  1. (a) It is a dry desert ecosystem that has few species
  2. (b) It is a vast region with only widely distributed species
  3. (c) It is a biodiversity hotspot with many endemic species
  4. (d) It is a crucial path used by migratory birds
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It is a biodiversity hotspot with many endemic species

Western Ghats as a conservation priority
The Western Ghats is recognized as one of the world's biodiversity hotspots, characterized by extremely high species richness and a large number of endemic species (species found nowhere else).
This combination of high endemism and habitat loss makes it a global conservation priority, not because it is a desert or purely a migratory bird corridor.
Correct Answer: It is a biodiversity hotspot with many endemic species
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