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RRB Group D 2025-26 21 August 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 44 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Group D 2025-26 on 21 August 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Static GK, Geography, Economics, Physics, Biology.

📚 44 questions🗓️ 21 August 2026⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Current Affairs (17) · Static GK (1) · Geography (2) · Economics (1) · Physics (8) · Biology (7) · Chemistry (8)

Current Affairs (17)

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q1. According to the QS World University Rankings 2026, which Indian institution emerged as the highest-ranked Indian institute globally by securing the 123rd position and improving from 150th rank in 2025?

  1. (a) Indian Institute of Technology Delhi (IIT Delhi)
  2. (b) Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU)
  3. (c) Indian Institute of Technology Bombay (IIT Bombay)
  4. (d) Indian Institute of Science Bengaluru (IISc Bengaluru)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Indian Institute of Technology Delhi (IIT Delhi)

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Indian Institute of Technology Delhi (IIT Delhi)
Explanation:
Multiple 2026 news sources (Organiser, Careers360, Newsonair.gov.in, IIT Delhi's own press release) confirm that in theQS World University Rankings 2026, IIT Delhi climbed to the123rdglobal position, up from 150th in 2025, making it the highest-ranked Indian institution and topping the India list, ahead of IISc Bengaluru and IIT Bombay.
Important Facts:
• IIT Bombay slipped to around 129th rank in the same edition.
• A record 54 Indian institutions featured in QS World University Rankings 2026, including new entrants like IIT Gandhinagar, KIIT and LPU.
• QS rankings use indicators such as academic reputation, employer reputation, citations per faculty, and international faculty/student ratio.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q2. Who among the following became the champion of the 2026 Australian Open women’s singles tournament after defeating world No. 1 Aryna Sabalenka in the final held at Melbourne Park, Australia?

  1. (a) Coco Gauff
  2. (b) Iga Świątek
  3. (c) Elena Rybakina
  4. (d) Mirra Andreeva
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Elena Rybakina

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Elena Rybakina
Explanation:
Search results (Olympics.com and Wikipedia's '2026 Australian Open – Women's singles' page) confirm thatElena Rybakinadefeated world No. 1Aryna Sabalenkain the final at Melbourne Park to win the 2026 Australian Open women's singles title — her first Australian Open crown and second Grand Slam title overall.
Important Facts:
• Sabalenka had earlier defeated Elina Svitolina in the semifinal to reach the final.
• Rybakina previously won Wimbledon 2022 as her first Grand Slam title.
• Coco Gauff, Iga Świątek and Mirra Andreeva (the other options) did not reach/win this particular final.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q3. Who was appointed as the Chairperson of the Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committee on Science and Technology, Environment, Forests and Climate Change in May 2026?

  1. (a) Om Birla
  2. (b) Dr. Jitendra Singh
  3. (c) Medha Vishram Kulkarni
  4. (d) Sudheer Gupta
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Medha Vishram Kulkarni

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Medha Vishram Kulkarni
Explanation:
Confirmed via Daily Excelsior, ANI, and The Chenab Times (May 2026) — Rajya Sabha MPMedha Kulkarniwas appointed Chairperson of the Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committee on Science and Technology, Environment, Forests and Climate Change in May 2026.
Important Facts:
• Medha Kulkarni is a BJP Rajya Sabha member from Maharashtra.
• Om Birla is the Lok Sabha Speaker, not connected to this particular committee's chairpersonship.
• Dr. Jitendra Singh is the Union Minister of State for Science & Technology, a separate role from the parliamentary committee chair.
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q4. In May 2026, which DRDO laboratory successfully conducted a long-duration test of the Actively Cooled Full Scale Scramjet Combustor, marking a breakthrough in hypersonic missile development?

  1. (a) Research Centre Imarat (RCI)
  2. (b) Defence Electronics Research Laboratory (DLRL)
  3. (c) Defence Research & Development Laboratory (DRDL)
  4. (d) Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Defence Research & Development Laboratory (DRDL)

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Defence Research & Development Laboratory (DRDL)
Explanation:
Confirmed via PIB press release, ANI, The Week, and airforce-technology.com (May 2026) —DRDL, Hyderabadconducted the long-duration (~1,200 second) ground test of the Actively Cooled Full Scale Scramjet Combustor, a major milestone for India's hypersonic missile programme.
Important Facts:
• The test validated the scramjet engine's ability to sustain combustion under active cooling for extended durations.
• DRDL (Defence Research and Development Laboratory) is DRDO's premier missile-technology lab based in Hyderabad.
• Research Centre Imarat (RCI), also in Hyderabad, works on missile guidance/avionics but was not the lab credited for this specific test.
State News · State schemes and events

Q5. Which Indian state signed a Letter of Intent (LoI) with SpaceX’s Starlink in February, 2026, to provide high-speed satellite internet to its remote and tribal regions?

  1. (a) Odisha
  2. (b) Gujarat
  3. (c) Rajasthan
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Gujarat

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Gujarat
Explanation:
Confirmed via ETV Bharat, Business Today, and DD News (February 2026) — theGovernment of Gujaratsigned a Letter of Intent with Elon Musk's SpaceX Starlink to pilot high-speed satellite internet connectivity in remote and tribal areas of the state.
Important Facts:
• Gujarat CM Bhupendra Patel signed the LoI, describing it as boosting the state's Digital India vision.
• This was among the earliest state-level Starlink partnerships in India, alongside the central government's own LoI to Starlink for satcom services.
• The pilot targets connectivity gaps in tribal and remote/hilly regions of Gujarat.
Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q6. Which literary prize was jointly awarded in 2026 to author Yang Shuangzi and translator Lin King for the novel Taiwan Travelogue, marking the first work originally written in Mandarin Chinese to receive the honour?

  1. (a) Pulitzer Prize for Fiction
  2. (b) Women's Prize for Fiction
  3. (c) International Booker Prize
  4. (d) Nobel Prize in Literature
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) International Booker Prize

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – International Booker Prize
Explanation:
Confirmed via Euronews, The Booker Prizes official site, CBC Books, and Focus Taiwan (May 2026) —Yang Shuang-ziand translatorLin Kingwon theInternational Booker Prize 2026for 'Taiwan Travelogue,' the first novel originally written in Mandarin Chinese to win the prize.
Important Facts:
• The prize (£50,000) is split equally between author and translator.
• Yang Shuang-zi used her acceptance speech to pay tribute to Taiwanese literature.
• The International Booker Prize (distinct from the Booker Prize for English-language fiction) honours a book translated into English and published in the UK/Ireland.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National elections and census updates

Q7. Who won the Rahuri seat in the Maharashtra by-election 2026?

  1. (a) Sharad Pawar
  2. (b) Sunil Tatkare
  3. (c) Akshay Kardile
  4. (d) Devendra Fadnavis
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Akshay Kardile

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Akshay Kardile
Explanation:
Confirmed via India TV News, Lokmat, and OneIndia — BJP'sAkshay Kardilewon the Rahuri assembly seat in the Maharashtra by-election 2026, part of the same round of bypolls in which Sunetra Pawar won Baramati.
Important Facts:
• Kardile reportedly led by around 41,000 votes during the counting.
• The Rahuri by-election was held alongside the high-profile Baramati bypoll in 2026.
• Sharad Pawar, Sunil Tatkare and Devendra Fadnavis (other options) are senior leaders but were not candidates in this seat.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q8. In April 2026, what was the name of the Cyber Security Awareness Training Programme launched by C-DAC, Hyderabad and Reliance Foundation to enable one million women across rural India to participate safely in the digital ecosystem?

  1. (a) Digital Suraksha Abhiyan
  2. (b) Cyber Sakhi Bharat
  3. (c) e-SafeHER
  4. (d) SafeNet Women
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) e-SafeHER

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – e-SafeHER
Explanation:
Confirmed via Reliance Foundation's official site, PIB press release, and Telecom Talk (April 2026) — Reliance Foundation andC-DAC (under MeitY)launched'e-SafeHER', a cyber security awareness training programme, aiming to create one million 'Cyber Sakhis' across rural India.
Important Facts:
• The programme targets training completion by 2029 per some reports.
• It is aimed specifically at enabling rural women to participate safely in the digital ecosystem.
• C-DAC (Centre for Development of Advanced Computing) operates under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q9. In which state did Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurate Kaynes Semicon Plant in March 2026 to strengthen India’s semiconductor ecosystem?

  1. (a) Andhra Pradesh
  2. (b) Gujarat
  3. (c) Uttar Pradesh
  4. (d) Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Gujarat

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Gujarat
Explanation:
Confirmed via The Tribune, ANI, and PMIndia.gov.in (March/April 2026) — PM Narendra Modi inaugurated theKaynes SemiconOSAT (semiconductor assembly/test) plant atSanand, Gujarat, worth about ₹3,300 crore, boosting India's semiconductor ecosystem.
Important Facts:
• Sanand, Gujarat, has emerged as a hub for India's semiconductor push, also hosting Micron's assembly/test facility.
• The plant marked the start of commercial production for Kaynes Semicon.
• PM Modi also inaugurated other projects in Gujarat during the same visit, per news reports.
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q10. Where was the 29th National Federation Senior Athletics Championships scheduled to be held in May 2026?

  1. (a) Bhubaneswar
  2. (b) Patna
  3. (c) Patiala
  4. (d) Ranchi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ranchi

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Ranchi
Explanation:
Confirmed via the Athletics Federation of India's official website and Wikipedia's '2026 National Federation Cup Senior Athletics Championships' page — the 29th National Senior Athletics Federation Competition (National Federation Senior Athletics Championships) 2026 was held inRanchi, Jharkhand, starting 22 May 2026.
Important Facts:
• This is India's premier annual senior-level national athletics competition, organized by the Athletics Federation of India.
• The event featured multiple days of track and field competition with published start lists/schedules.
• Other cities listed (Bhubaneswar, Patna, Patiala) have hosted various national sporting events but not this particular 2026 edition.

Q11. In April 2026, the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026, proposed increasing the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha to which of the following limits?

  1. (a) 650 members including Union Territories
  2. (b) 850 members including Union Territories
  3. (c) 750 members including Union Territories
  4. (d) 950 members including Union Territories
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 850 members including Union Territories

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – 850 members including Union Territories
Explanation:
Confirmed via InsightsonIndia (title: '131st Constitutional Amendment: Lok Sabha Expansion to 850') and other April 2026 current-affairs sources — the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026, proposed increasing the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha to850 membersincluding representation from Union Territories.
Important Facts:
• The Bill was introduced alongside the Delimitation Bill, 2026, and Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026.
• Reports indicate the Bill was later rejected/defeated in the Lok Sabha and the delimitation bill withdrawn, but the question only asks what was originally proposed.
• The Bill was also linked to provisions on women's reservation in the expanded Lok Sabha.
International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q12. Which international platform did India host in New Delhi in November 2025 to reaffirm its commitment to "Inclusive Disaster Risk Data Governance" and regional cooperation for disaster resilience?

  1. (a) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
  2. (b) The Asian and Pacific Centre for Development of Disaster Information Management (APDIM)
  3. (c) The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI)
  4. (d) The World Economic Forum (WEF)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Asian and Pacific Centre for Development of Disaster Information Management (APDIM)

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – The Asian and Pacific Centre for Development of Disaster Information Management (APDIM)
Explanation:
Confirmed via PIB press release and Newsonair.gov.in — India hosted the10th Session of APDIMat Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi, in November 2025, themed on 'Inclusive Disaster Risk Data Governance,' where India reaffirmed its commitment to disaster risk reduction and regional cooperation in the Asia-Pacific.
Important Facts:
• Union Minister Nityanand Rai represented India in pledging support for regional disaster resilience at this session.
• APDIM is a UN-ESCAP affiliated regional body focused on disaster information management in Asia-Pacific.
• CDRI (Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure), a separate India-founded initiative, was not the host body for this particular November 2025 event.
Economy, Banking and Business · RBI and banking updates

Q13. What strategic framework did the Central Board of Directors of the RBI approve during its March 2026 meeting in Patna?

  1. (a) Utkarsh 3.0
  2. (b) Payments Vision 2025
  3. (c) Utkarsh 2.0
  4. (d) National Strategy for Financial Inclusion (2026-29)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Utkarsh 3.0

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Utkarsh 3.0
Explanation:
Confirmed via The Tribune, Business Standard, and Patna Press (March 2026) — the RBI Central Board of Directors, meeting inPatna(its first such meeting there in eight years), approved the'Utkarsh 3.0'strategic framework along with the FY2026-27 budget.
Important Facts:
• Utkarsh 2.0 was RBI's previous medium-term strategy framework (covering roughly 2022-2025).
• The Patna meeting reviewed the economic outlook and cleared the RBI's budget for 2026-27.
• Payments Vision documents (e.g., Payments Vision 2025) are separate RBI strategy papers focused specifically on the payments ecosystem.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q14. In May 2026, which of the following international football events saw India’s men’s team compete with teams from Africa and the Caribbean in England?

  1. (a) King's Cup
  2. (b) Unity Cup
  3. (c) Inter Continental Cup
  4. (d) Merdeka Tournament
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Unity Cup

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Unity Cup
Explanation:
Confirmed via Wikipedia's '2026 Unity Cup' page, Olympics.com, and the AIFF's official site — India's men's football team ('Blue Tigers') competed in theUnity Cup 2026held in London, England, in May 2026, facing teams from Africa and the Caribbean.
Important Facts:
• The Unity Cup is an invitational tournament typically held in England featuring diverse national teams.
• India's participation marked a notable step in its football team's international exposure.
• King's Cup, Intercontinental Cup, and Merdeka Tournament are separate football tournaments not held in England in May 2026.
Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q15. Which Indian hockey player was named the Men's Player of the Year at the Hockey India 8th Annual Awards?

  1. (a) Hardik Singh
  2. (b) Vivek Sagar Prasad
  3. (c) Harmanpreet Singh
  4. (d) Mandeep Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Hardik Singh

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Hardik Singh
Explanation:
Confirmed via UNI India, ANI, and Outlook India (March 2026) — at theHockey India 8th Annual Awards,Hardik Singhwas named Men's Player of the Year, alongside Navneet Kaur who won the corresponding women's award.
Important Facts:
• Zafar Iqbal was honoured with the Major Dhyan Chand Lifetime Achievement Award at the same ceremony.
• Hardik Singh is a key midfielder for the Indian men's hockey team.
• Vivek Sagar Prasad, Harmanpreet Singh, and Mandeep Singh are other prominent Indian hockey players but were not named Men's Player of the Year in this edition.
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q16. In March 2026, the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) Court Lucknow (Uttar Pradesh) convicted and sentenced six private persons to imprisonment for two years with a fine of Rs. 10,000 each in a significant wildlife smuggling case involving illegal possession and trade of ________.

  1. (a) Jackal and elephant body parts
  2. (b) Tiger and leopard body parts
  3. (c) Tiger and rhinocerous body parts
  4. (d) Lion and rhinocerous body parts
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Tiger and leopard body parts

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Tiger and leopard body parts
Explanation:
Confirmed via Assam Tribune, Free Press Journal, and ETV Bharat (March 2026) — a CBI Court in Lucknow convicted and sentenced six private persons to two years' imprisonment with a ₹10,000 fine each in a wildlife smuggling case involving illegal possession/trade oftiger and leopard body parts.
Important Facts:
• The case highlights ongoing enforcement action against wildlife trafficking networks in India under CBI jurisdiction.
• Tiger and leopard parts are commonly trafficked for use in traditional medicine and illegal wildlife trade markets.
• Separate, unrelated cases have involved rhinoceros or elephant parts, but this specific 2026 Lucknow CBI case concerned tiger and leopard parts.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Health and medical research

Q17. The 'Moonshot' project, launched by the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) in March 2026, primarily aims to develop which technology?

  1. (a) Quantum communication satellites
  2. (b) Brain co-processors
  3. (c) Reusable launch vehicles
  4. (d) AI-powered humanoid robots
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Brain co-processors

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Brain co-processors
Explanation:
Confirmed via IISc's official announcement, BioSpectrum India, and ETV Bharat (March 2026) — IISc, supported by the Pratiksha Trust, launched the'Moonshot' project on Brain Co-processors, aiming at neurotechnology applications such as aiding stroke rehabilitation.
Explanation continued:
• The project is run under IISc's Centre for Brain, Computation, and Data Science.
• It focuses on AI-driven brain co-processors offering new hope for stroke survivors and related neurological rehabilitation.
• This is unrelated to quantum satellites, reusable launch vehicles, or humanoid robots, which are separate technology domains.

Static GK (1)

Important Days and Themes · National days

Q18. In January 2026, the National Youth Day in India was observed to commemorate the birth anniversary of which personality?

  1. (a) Swami Vivekananda
  2. (b) Rabindranath Tagore
  3. (c) Subhas Chandra Bose
  4. (d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Swami Vivekananda

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Swami Vivekananda
Explanation:
Confirmed via multiple January 2026 sources (Newsonair.gov.in, Vajiram & Ravi, PW Live) — National Youth Day is observed every year on 12 January to mark the birth anniversary ofSwami Vivekananda; in January 2026 the President and other dignitaries paid tribute to him on this occasion as in previous years.
Important Facts:
• The day was officially declared National Youth Day by the Government of India in 1984.
• It is meant to spread Vivekananda's philosophy and ideals among the youth of India.
• The other options (Tagore, Bose, Gandhi) have their own separate commemorative days (e.g., Gandhi Jayanti on 2 October).

Geography (2)

Environment and Protected Areas · Environmental organisations and laws

Q19. What is the primary objective of India’s National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) by 2025–26?

  1. (a) Achieving up to 40% reduction in PM10 concentrations in targeted cities
  2. (b) Banning all diesel-operated public transport in urban regions
  3. (c) Introducing carbon taxes on household electricity consumption
  4. (d) Replacing thermal power plants with hydroelectric stations nationwide
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Achieving up to 40% reduction in PM10 concentrations in targeted cities

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Achieving up to 40% reduction in PM10 concentrations in targeted cities
Explanation:
Confirmed via PIB press releases and Vajiram & Ravi — the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP), revised in 2022, targets up to a40% reduction in PM10 concentrationsby 2025–26 (revised from an earlier 20–30% target by 2024) across the 131+ non-attainment/targeted cities.
Important Facts:
• NCAP was launched in January 2019 by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• It uses 2017 as the base year for measuring reduction in particulate matter concentration.
• It does not involve banning diesel transport, carbon taxes, or replacing thermal plants — those are unrelated to NCAP's stated objective.
Atmosphere and Climate · Insolation and heat budget

Q20. A technician is designing a solar power plant in central India. Understanding the value of the solar constant is necessary for planning the plant’s capacity as:

  1. (a) It indicates energy available before atmospheric loss
  2. (b) It gives maximum possible temperature
  3. (c) It measures sunlight duration
  4. (d) It shows only atmospheric absorption
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It indicates energy available before atmospheric loss

Explanation:
The solar constant is the amount of solar radiant energy received per unit area per unit time on a surface perpendicular to the sun's rays, measured just outside Earth's atmosphere (i.e., before any atmospheric absorption/scattering losses). It represents the maximum available solar energy input, which is the starting point for estimating usable solar power after accounting for atmospheric and other losses.
Correct Answer: Option 1 – It indicates energy available before atmospheric loss

Economics (1)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q21. The increased allocation for PMAY-G in the Union Budget 2026–27 is primarily intended to support which of the following?

  1. (a) Modernization of agricultural markets
  2. (b) Construction of pucca houses for eligible rural families
  3. (c) Promotion of digital banking services
  4. (d) Expansion of rural railway infrastructure
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Construction of pucca houses for eligible rural families

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Construction of pucca houses for eligible rural families
Explanation:
Confirmed via PIB press release on Union Budget 2026-27 and related coverage (e.g., organiser.org on Bihar's PMAY-G allocation) — PMAY-Gramin's increased budget allocation is directed toward constructingpucca (permanent) houses for eligible rural families, continuing the scheme's core housing-for-all mandate.
Important Facts:
• PMAY-G (Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana – Gramin) targets providing pucca houses with basic amenities to rural households.
• Recent allocations (e.g., ₹13,427 crore for 11.19 lakh houses in Bihar) illustrate the scale of the scheme's rural housing push.
• PMAY-G is unrelated to agricultural market reform, digital banking, or rural railways, which are separate government initiatives.

Physics (8)

Light - Refraction and Lenses · Numericals on refraction and lenses

Q22. A photographer uses a concave lens of focal length 12 cm. The object is placed 18 cm from the lens. Using the sign convention, calculate the image distance (v)?

  1. (a) -7.2 cm
  2. (b) +7.2 cm
  3. (c) +36 cm
  4. (d) -36 cm
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) -7.2 cm

Explanation:
For a concave (diverging) lens, focal length is negative: f = -12 cm. Object distance u = -18 cm (object on the same side as incoming light). Using the lens formula 1/v - 1/u = 1/f:
1/v = 1/f + 1/u = -1/12 - 1/18 = -(3+2)/36 = -5/36, so v = -36/5 = -7.2 cm.
Correct Answer: Option 1 – -7.2 cm
Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Numericals on mirrors

Q23. A dentist uses a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm to examine a patient's tooth. If the tooth is placed 5 cm from the mirror, what is the magnification produced?

  1. (a) 1.67
  2. (b) 0.5
  3. (c) 0.75
  4. (d) 1.33
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1.33

Explanation:
Concave mirror: f = -20 cm, u = -5 cm (object placed within the focal length). Using 1/v + 1/u = 1/f:
1/v = 1/f - 1/u = -1/20 + 1/5 = 3/20, so v = 20/3 cm (positive, virtual image).
Magnification m = -v/u = -(20/3)/(-5) = 4/3 ≈ 1.33 (virtual, erect, magnified — as expected for an object placed between the pole and focus).
Correct Answer: Option 4 – 1.33
Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Concave mirror - image formation and uses

Q24. In a concave mirror, a ray parallel to the principal axis is incident. After reflection, the ray passes through:

  1. (a) The pole
  2. (b) The focus
  3. (c) Anywhere along the mirror
  4. (d) The center of curvature
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The focus

Explanation:
This is a basic property of concave mirrors: any incident ray travelling parallel to the principal axis, after reflection, passes through the principal focus. This is in fact the defining property used to locate the focus of a concave mirror.
Correct Answer: Option 2 – The focus
Work, Energy and Power · Numericals on work, energy and power

Q25. Student A takes 20 seconds, while student B takes 40 seconds to complete the same amount of work. Which of the following statements is correct in connection to A and B?

  1. (a) Student B has double the power of Student A
  2. (b) Student B has done more work
  3. (c) Both students have the same power
  4. (d) Student A has double the power of Student B
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Student A has double the power of Student B

Explanation:
Power = Work done / Time taken. For the same amount of work, power is inversely proportional to time. Student A takes 20 s and B takes 40 s, so Power(A)/Power(B) = 40/20 = 2. Hence A has double the power of B.
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Student A has double the power of Student B
Electricity · Resistance, resistivity and their factors

Q26. Which of the following materials has the highest resistivity?

  1. (a) Iron
  2. (b) Tungsten
  3. (c) Silver
  4. (d) Manganin
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Manganin

Explanation:
Approximate resistivity values: Silver ≈ 1.6×10⁻⁸ Ωm, Tungsten ≈ 5.6×10⁻⁸ Ωm, Iron ≈ 10×10⁻⁸ Ωm, Manganin ≈ 44–48×10⁻⁸ Ωm. Manganin (an alloy of Cu, Mn, Ni) is deliberately made with a high, nearly temperature-independent resistivity, which is why it is used in standard resistance coils and resistance boxes.
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Manganin
Force and Laws of Motion · Numericals on force and momentum

Q27. If a 2 kg ball initially at rest is pushed with a force of 8 N for 5 seconds, what is its velocity at the end of 5 seconds?

  1. (a) 8 m/s
  2. (b) 5 m/s
  3. (c) 20 m/s
  4. (d) 10 m/s
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 20 m/s

Explanation:
Using Newton's second law: a = F/m = 8 N / 2 kg = 4 m/s². Using v = u + at with u = 0, t = 5 s: v = 0 + 4×5 = 20 m/s.
Correct Answer: Option 3 – 20 m/s
Force and Laws of Motion · Newton's third law and its applications

Q28. Which situation does NOT correctly illustrate an action-reaction pair as per Newton's third law?

  1. (a) A hammer strikes a nail, nail pushes hammer back
  2. (b) A hand pushes a wall, wall pushes hand back
  3. (c) A car accelerating due to its engine
  4. (d) A foot kicks a ball, ball pushes foot back
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A car accelerating due to its engine

Explanation:
Newton's third law pairs consist of two clearly identified equal-and-opposite forces exerted by two bodies on each other (hammer on nail and nail on hammer; hand on wall and wall on hand; foot on ball and ball on foot). 'A car accelerating due to its engine' describes only a single cause-effect statement about the car's motion — it does not spell out a pair of mutual forces between two interacting bodies, so it does not correctly illustrate an action-reaction pair as phrased.
Correct Answer: Option 3 – A car accelerating due to its engine
Work, Energy and Power · Work and its sign

Q29. A constant force acts on an object and causes it to move in the same direction as the force. How is the work done by the force calculated?

  1. (a) Work is calculated by multiplying force and displacement
  2. (b) Work is calculated by dividing force by displacement
  3. (c) Work is calculated by adding force and displacement
  4. (d) Work is calculated by multiplying force and time
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Work is calculated by multiplying force and displacement

Explanation:
When a constant force displaces an object in the same direction as the force, the work done is given by the product of force and displacement: W = F × s.
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Work is calculated by multiplying force and displacement

Biology (7)

Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Blood vessels, circulation and blood pressure

Q30. Select the correct option regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).Assertion (A): The walls of veins are thinner than those of arteries.Reason (R): Veins carry blood under high pressure.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) A is false, but R is true
  3. (c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  4. (d) A is true, but R is false
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A is true, but R is false

Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: vein walls are indeed thinner than artery walls, since veins do not need to withstand high pressure. Reason (R) is false: veins carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart under low pressure (arteries carry blood under high pressure). Hence A is true but R is false.
Correct Answer: Option 4 – A is true, but R is false
Ecology and Environment · Pollution - effects on living beings

Q31. Why does biological magnification increase at higher trophic levels?

  1. (a) Energy increases at higher levels in food chain
  2. (b) Water content increases at each trophic level
  3. (c) Chemicals are not degraded and accumulated at each trophic level
  4. (d) Chemicals are degraded and accumulated only at higher trophic levels
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chemicals are not degraded and accumulated at each trophic level

Explanation:
Biological magnification occurs because non-biodegradable toxic chemicals (e.g., pesticides like DDT) entering the food chain at the lowest trophic level are not broken down; as one organism eats many of the level below, these chemicals get progressively more concentrated at each successive trophic level.
Important Facts:
• Top carnivores (highest trophic level) accumulate the highest concentration of such toxins.
• This phenomenon is also called biomagnification or bioaccumulation up the food chain.
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Chemicals are not degraded and accumulated at each trophic level
Diversity and Classification of Living Organisms · Plant kingdom groups (Thallophyta to Angiosperms)

Q32. A researcher finds a plant group that does not need water for fertilisation and has seeds which are not enclosed in fruits. Which plant group is being described?

  1. (a) Bryophytes
  2. (b) Pteridophytes
  3. (c) Gymnosperms
  4. (d) Angiosperms
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gymnosperms

Explanation:
Gymnosperms (e.g., pines, cycads) are seed-bearing plants whose seeds are 'naked', i.e., not enclosed within a fruit, and their fertilisation (via pollen tubes) does not require external water, unlike bryophytes and pteridophytes which need water for the motile male gametes to reach the egg.
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Gymnosperms
Diseases, Immunity and Health · Drug and alcohol abuse

Q33. Which of the following statements, correctly explains how smoking affects the respiratory system in humans?

  1. (a) Tar in tobacco strengthens the walls of alveoli
  2. (b) Carbon monoxide in smoke combines with haemoglobin, reducing oxygen transport to tissues
  3. (c) Smoking increases the surface area of alveoli for better gas exchange in the tissues
  4. (d) Nicotine increases oxygen-carrying capacity of blood to various tissues
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Carbon monoxide in smoke combines with haemoglobin, reducing oxygen transport to tissues

Explanation:
Carbon monoxide present in tobacco smoke binds to haemoglobin far more strongly than oxygen does, forming carboxyhaemoglobin. This reduces haemoglobin's capacity to transport oxygen to body tissues, causing oxygen deprivation.
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Carbon monoxide in smoke combines with haemoglobin, reducing oxygen transport to tissues
Plant Physiology and Morphology · Photosynthesis - process and factors

Q34. Which pigment is responsible for absorbing light during photosynthesis?

  1. (a) Carotene
  2. (b) Chlorophyll
  3. (c) Anthocyanin
  4. (d) Keratin
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Chlorophyll

Explanation:
Chlorophyll is the green pigment present in chloroplasts that absorbs light energy (mainly red and blue wavelengths) required to drive the light reactions of photosynthesis.
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Chlorophyll
Tissues · Epithelial tissue

Q35. Read the following statements are about epithelial tissue and select the most appropriate option.Statement A: Cells of epithelial tissue are tightly packed.Statement B: Fibrous basement membrane separates epithelium from underlying tissue.

  1. (a) Statement A is incorrect and Statement B is correct
  2. (b) Statement A is correct and Statement B is incorrect
  3. (c) Both Statement A and Statement B are incorrect
  4. (d) Both Statement A and Statement B are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Both Statement A and Statement B are correct

Explanation:
Both statements describe standard features of epithelial tissue. Statement A is correct: epithelial cells are tightly packed with little to no intercellular space, forming a continuous protective sheet. Statement B is correct: a thin, fibrous basement membrane anchors the epithelium and separates it from the underlying connective tissue.
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Both Statement A and Statement B are correct
Tissues · Permanent plant tissues (simple and complex)

Q36. Which of the following characteristics are correct for the cells of parenchyma?

  1. (a) Dead, loosely organised without intercellular spaces
  2. (b) Living, loosely organised without intercellular spaces
  3. (c) Dead, loosely organised with large intercellular spaces
  4. (d) Living, loosely organised with large intercellular spaces
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Living, loosely organised with large intercellular spaces

Explanation:
Parenchyma is a simple, living (not dead) plant tissue made of thin-walled, loosely packed cells with prominent intercellular spaces between them — this loose packing with large air/intercellular spaces is characteristic (most pronounced in aerenchyma, a modified parenchyma in aquatic plants).
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Living, loosely organised with large intercellular spaces

Chemistry (8)

Carbon and its Compounds · Homologous series

Q37. Which characteristic is shared by all members of a homologous series?

  1. (a) They have the same molecular formula
  2. (b) They have the same molecular mass
  3. (c) They have identical physical properties
  4. (d) They have similar chemical properties
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) They have similar chemical properties

Explanation:
A homologous series is a group of compounds having the same general formula, each differing from the next by a -CH2- unit, showing a gradation in physical properties (e.g., melting/boiling points) but sharing similar chemical properties because they possess the same functional group.
Correct Answer: Option 4 – They have similar chemical properties
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Suspensions and colloids

Q38. Which of the following is an example of coagulation in everyday life?

  1. (a) Separating pigments using chromatography
  2. (b) Extracting salt from sea water
  3. (c) Filtering sand from a mixture of water and sand
  4. (d) Adding vinegar in milk to form paneer
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Adding vinegar in milk to form paneer

Explanation:
Coagulation refers to the clumping together of dispersed colloidal particles into larger aggregates. Adding vinegar (an acid) to milk destabilises the milk protein (casein) colloid, causing it to coagulate and separate as paneer — a classic everyday example of coagulation.
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Adding vinegar in milk to form paneer
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Laws of chemical combination

Q39. A sample of water obtained from two different sources is found to contain hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio 1:8 by mass. Which law is illustrated by this observation?

  1. (a) Law of reciprocal proportions
  2. (b) Law of conservation of mass
  3. (c) Law of multiple proportions
  4. (d) Law of constant proportions
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Law of constant proportions

Explanation:
The Law of Constant (Definite) Proportions states that a pure chemical compound always contains the same elements combined together in the same fixed proportion by mass, regardless of the source or method of preparation. Since water from two different sources shows the same 1:8 mass ratio of hydrogen to oxygen, this law is illustrated.
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Law of constant proportions
Metals and Non-metals · Reactivity series

Q40. Given that metal X reacts with CuSO₄ but not with FeSO₄, and metal Y reacts with FeSO₄ but not with ZnSO₄, what is the correct order of decreasing reactivity for Zn, Fe, Cu, X, and Y?

  1. (a) Zn > Y > Fe > X > Cu
  2. (b) Cu > X > Fe > Y > Zn
  3. (c) Fe > X > Zn > Y > Cu
  4. (d) Y > Zn > X > Fe > Cu
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Zn > Y > Fe > X > Cu

Explanation:
Metal X displaces Cu from CuSO4 (so X is more reactive than Cu) but cannot displace Fe from FeSO4 (so X is less reactive than Fe): Fe > X > Cu.
Metal Y displaces Fe from FeSO4 (so Y is more reactive than Fe) but cannot displace Zn from ZnSO4 (so Y is less reactive than Zn): Zn > Y > Fe.
Combining both chains: Zn > Y > Fe > X > Cu.
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Zn > Y > Fe > X > Cu
Chemical Bonding · Covalent bond (single, double, triple)

Q41. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?Statement I: Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electron pairs between atoms.Statement II: Covalent bonding usually occurs between metals and non-metals.

  1. (a) Both statements I and II are incorrect
  2. (b) Only statement I is correct
  3. (c) Both statements I and II are correct
  4. (d) Only statement II is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only statement I is correct

Explanation:
Statement I is correct: a covalent bond forms by the mutual sharing of electron pairs between atoms. Statement II is incorrect: covalent bonding typically occurs between two non-metal atoms (both wanting to gain/share electrons), not between a metal and a non-metal — that combination typically forms an ionic bond via electron transfer.
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Only statement I is correct
Carbon and its Compounds · Chemical properties of carbon compounds (combustion, oxidation, addition, substitution)

Q42. What is the main difference between an addition and a substitution reaction in carbon compounds?

  1. (a) Addition reactions remove atoms from molecules
  2. (b) Addition reactions replace one atom with another
  3. (c) Addition reactions occur only in saturated compounds
  4. (d) Addition reactions increase the number of atoms in a molecule
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Addition reactions increase the number of atoms in a molecule

Explanation:
In an addition reaction, an unsaturated carbon compound (containing a double or triple bond) reacts with a small molecule (such as H2, in the presence of a catalyst like Ni/Pd) that adds across the multiple bond, thereby increasing the total number of atoms in the resulting molecule. This is in contrast to a substitution reaction, where one atom/group simply replaces another without a net increase in atom count.
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Addition reactions increase the number of atoms in a molecule
Acids, Bases and Salts · pH scale and its importance

Q43. A student measures the pH of four liquids: lemon juice (2), soap solution (9), water (7), and vinegar (3). Which is the most basic?

  1. (a) Water (7)
  2. (b) Vinegar (3)
  3. (c) Lemon juice (2)
  4. (d) Soap solution (9)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Soap solution (9)

Explanation:
A pH value greater than 7 indicates a basic (alkaline) solution, and the higher the pH above 7, the more basic the solution. Among the given values — lemon juice (2, acidic), vinegar (3, acidic), water (7, neutral), soap solution (9, basic) — soap solution has the highest pH and is thus the most basic.
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Soap solution (9)
Chemical Reactions and Equations · Displacement reactions

Q44. Which equation correctly represents a displacement reaction involving metals and their salt solutions?

  1. (a) Au + FeSO₄ → AuSO₄ + Fe
  2. (b) Cu + ZnSO₄ → CuSO₄ + Zn
  3. (c) Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu
  4. (d) Ag + MgSO₄ → AgSO₄ + Mg
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu

Explanation:
In a displacement reaction, a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from its salt solution. Zinc is more reactive than copper (higher in the reactivity series), so Zn displaces Cu from copper sulphate solution: Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu. The other options are incorrect because in each of them the metal on the reactant side is less reactive than the metal in the salt (e.g., Cu cannot displace Zn; Au cannot displace Fe; Ag cannot displace Mg).
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu
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