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RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 23 June 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 35 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 on 23 June 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Static GK, Current Affairs, Economics, Geography, Computer, Polity.

📚 35 questions🗓️ 23 June 2025⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Static GK (2) · Current Affairs (5) · Economics (5) · Geography (5) · Computer (4) · Polity (5) · Modern History (3) · Biology (1) · Ancient History (2) · Medieval History (1) · Chemistry (1) · Physics (1)

Static GK (2)

Indian Railways · Railway organisations and PSUs (IRCTC, RVNL, RailTel, CRIS, RDSO)

Q1. Who among the following has been appointed as the CEO of the Indian Railway Finance Corporation (IRFC) in October 2024?

  1. (a) Manoj Kumar Dubey
  2. (b) Ajit Kumar Saxena
  3. (c) Paramesh Sivamani
  4. (d) Vijaya Kishore Rahatkar
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Manoj Kumar Dubey

Dances · Folk dances by state

Q2. Which of the following dance forms is NOT associated with Rajasthan?

  1. (a) Tarangmel
  2. (b) Kalbelia
  3. (c) Kacho Ghodi
  4. (d) Ghoomar
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tarangmel

Current Affairs (5)

Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Books released

Q3. John Green's non-fiction book, released in March 2025, discusses the history and impact of which disease?

  1. (a) Cholera
  2. (b) Influenza
  3. (c) Malaria
  4. (d) Tuberculosis
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Tuberculosis

Sports - Current · Cricket - current

Q4. What was notable about Vidarbha's performance in the Ranji Trophy 2024-25?

  1. (a) They won the title for the first time
  2. (b) They lost the final to Kerala
  3. (c) They won the title for the third time in seven seasons
  4. (d) They did not qualify for the final
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) They won the title for the third time in seven seasons

Reports, Indices and Rankings · National indices and rankings

Q5. What is the total DGQI 2.0 (Data Governance Quality Index) score achieved by the Department of Rural Development in Q4 of 2023-24?

  1. (a) 4.93 out of 5
  2. (b) 4.50 out of 5
  3. (c) 5.00 out of 5
  4. (d) 3.95 out of 5
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 4.93 out of 5

International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q6. Which of the following countries will host the 2025 G20 Summit for the first time on the African continent?

  1. (a) Kenya
  2. (b) South Africa
  3. (c) Nigeria
  4. (d) Egypt
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) South Africa

Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q7. Who among the following won the Best Director award at the 2025 Oscars?

  1. (a) Sean Baker
  2. (b) Quentin Tarantino
  3. (c) Steven Spielberg
  4. (d) Peter Straughan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sean Baker

Economics (5)

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q8. In February 2025, how much total budget was allocated to the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports in the Union Budget?

  1. (a) ₹3,790 crore
  2. (b) ₹4,132 crore
  3. (c) ₹3,254 crore
  4. (d) ₹2,808 crore
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) ₹3,790 crore

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · National sample surveys (NFHS, PLFS, NSS) - findings

Q9. What was the trend in the unemployment rate in usual status for persons of age 15 years and above, for urban areas, from FY23 to FY24, as per the Department of Economic Affairs report?

  1. (a) Increased from 4% to 5%
  2. (b) Decreased from 5.4% to 5.1%
  3. (c) Decreased from 6% to 5%
  4. (d) Remained stable at 5.0%
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Decreased from 5.4% to 5.1%

External Sector and International Economic Organisations · WTO

Q10. The PM-KISAN scheme launched by the Central Government falls under which category of boxes under the WTO’s Agreement on Agriculture?

  1. (a) Green box
  2. (b) Blue box
  3. (c) Amber box
  4. (d) Red box
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Green box

Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q11. Which among the following is the main reason for classifying economic activities into different sectors in India?

  1. (a) To understand their functioning and interdependence
  2. (b) To divide labour across sectors
  3. (c) To increase taxes across sectors
  4. (d) To reduce employment in capital-intensive sectors
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To understand their functioning and interdependence

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q12. As per the Union Budget 2025-26, Asset Monetization Plan 2025-30, what will be the amount for the second plan for 2025-30 with the aim to reinvest in new projects?

  1. (a) ₹20 lakh crore
  2. (b) ₹10 lakh crore
  3. (c) ₹15 lakh crore
  4. (d) ₹25 lakh crore
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) ₹10 lakh crore

Geography (5)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Coastal plains

Q13. How many Indian States and Union Territories have a coastline as per the Annual Report 2022-23 of the Ministry of Home Affairs?

  1. (a) 11 States and 6 Union Territories
  2. (b) 8 States and 3 Union Territories
  3. (c) 9 States and 4 Union Territories
  4. (d) 10 States and 5 Union Territories
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 9 States and 4 Union Territories

India - Population and Census · Literacy rate

Q14. What was the literacy rate in India according to the 2011 Census?

  1. (a) 72.98%
  2. (b) 75.12%
  3. (c) 76.23%
  4. (d) 74.04%
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 74.04%

India - Population and Census · Population density

Q15. Which of the following states has a sparse population mainly due to hilly terrain?

  1. (a) Odisha
  2. (b) Gujarat
  3. (c) Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Arunachal Pradesh

India - Drainage System · West-flowing rivers

Q16. The Narmada River originates from which hills?

  1. (a) Satpura
  2. (b) Vindhyachal
  3. (c) Aravalli
  4. (d) Western Ghats
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Satpura

India - Agriculture · Irrigation in India

Q17. Sub-irrigation in India is particularly suitable for areas with:

  1. (a) sandy soil
  2. (b) high water table
  3. (c) low water table
  4. (d) low soil fertility
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) high water table

Computer (4)

MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q18. What is the main purpose of the Tab key on a standard keyboard?

  1. (a) To insert a forward slash
  2. (b) To close the active application
  3. (c) To shift the cursor to the next field or tab position
  4. (d) To remove text
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To shift the cursor to the next field or tab position

MS Office and Productivity Tools · MS PowerPoint

Q19. When saving an MS PowerPoint presentation, what is the primary purpose of the 'Save as Picture Presentation' option?

  1. (a) To embed a static image of the first slide as a preview
  2. (b) To save each slide as a separate image file within a folder
  3. (c) To optimise the presentation for viewing on low-bandwidth internet connections
  4. (d) To prevent any further editing of the presentation content
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To prevent any further editing of the presentation content

MS Office and Productivity Tools · MS Excel

Q20. What happens if users try to open an MS Excel file created in a newer version (e.g., Excel 2021) in an older version (e.g., Excel 2010)?

  1. (a) The file will open in Compatibility Mode with limited functionality.
  2. (b) The file will be automatically converted to a PDF.
  3. (c) MS Excel will display an error and refuse to open the file.
  4. (d) The file will open normally with all features intact.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The file will open in Compatibility Mode with limited functionality.

MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q21. What happens when you press 'Ctrl + M' in MS PowerPoint 365?

  1. (a) The slide master view is opened.
  2. (b) A new blank slide is inserted regardless of the previous layout.
  3. (c) A new slide is inserted with the same layout as the previous slide.
  4. (d) A duplicate of the current slide is created.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A new slide is inserted with the same layout as the previous slide.

Polity (5)

Fundamental Rights · Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) and writs

Q22. How many writs mentioned in the Constitution of India enforce Fundamental Rights?

  1. (a) Seven Writs
  2. (b) Five Writs
  3. (c) Six Writs
  4. (d) Four Writs
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Five Writs

Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q23. Which of the following groups is NOT considered a part of the Union Council of Ministers in India?

  1. (a) Ministers of State
  2. (b) Cabinet Ministers
  3. (c) Parliamentary Secretaries
  4. (d) Deputy Ministers
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Parliamentary Secretaries

Fundamental Rights · Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) and writs

Q24. Which of the following writs protects the right to life and personal liberty mentioned in the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) Prohibition
  2. (b) Habeas Corpus
  3. (c) Certiorari
  4. (d) Mandamus
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Habeas Corpus

Judiciary · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q25. Under which Act was the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA), which conducts Lok Adalats along with other Legal Services Institutions, constituted?

  1. (a) Public Interest Litigation Act, 1990
  2. (b) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
  3. (c) Indian Bar Council Act, 1926
  4. (d) Advocates Act, 1961
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987

Parliament · Sessions, adjournment, prorogation and dissolution

Q26. Which of the following options correctly describes the Indian President’s power to summon the Parliament?

  1. (a) The President may summon the Parliament at his/her discretion with no statutory minimum frequency.
  2. (b) The President can only summon the Parliament after consulting the Prime Minister.
  3. (c) The President may summon the Parliament at least twice a year.
  4. (d) The President may summon the Parliament only once every calendar year.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The President may summon the Parliament at least twice a year.

Modern History (3)

Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · Home Rule Leagues

Q27. The Home Rule Movement in India, launched during the World War I, aimed to attain self-government within the British Empire. Which two prominent leaders were associated with starting this movement?

  1. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose
  2. (b) Mahatma Gandhi and Gopal Krishna Gokhale
  3. (c) Lala Lajpat Rai and Bipin Chandra Pal
  4. (d) Annie Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Annie Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Advent of Europeans and British Expansion · Portuguese

Q28. In which year did Goa become the capital of the Portuguese Commercial empire in India?

  1. (a) 1410
  2. (b) 1659
  3. (c) 1530
  4. (d) 1390
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1530

Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Muslim reform movements (Aligarh, Deoband)

Q29. What was the main focus of the Aligarh Movement?

  1. (a) Abolition of Sati
  2. (b) Hindu Revivalism
  3. (c) Modern Education among Muslims
  4. (d) Women's Rights
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Modern Education among Muslims

Biology (1)

Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Human respiratory system

Q30. The efficiency of gas exchange in the alveoli is primarily attributed to which structural characteristic?

  1. (a) Abundance of mucus-secreting cells
  2. (b) A robust elastic network to maintain alveolar shape
  3. (c) Large surface area combined with a thin alveolar-capillary barrier
  4. (d) Thick epithelial lining to protect from pathogens
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Large surface area combined with a thin alveolar-capillary barrier

Ancient History (2)

Post-Mauryan Period · Indo-Greeks

Q31. Demetrius, a Bactrian-Greek ruler, came into conflict with ______.

  1. (a) Harsha
  2. (b) Pushyamitra
  3. (c) Nahapana
  4. (d) Simuka
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Pushyamitra

Mauryan Empire · Mauryan art and architecture

Q32. Which of the following is true regarding the materials of construction used for Ashokan pillars?

  1. (a) They were largely made of stone.
  2. (b) They were largely made of wood.
  3. (c) They were largely made of concrete.
  4. (d) They were largely made of iron.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) They were largely made of stone.

Medieval History (1)

Early Medieval North India · Tripartite struggle (Palas, Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas)

Q33. Who was the founder of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty?

  1. (a) Vatsaraja
  2. (b) Gopala
  3. (c) Nagabhata I
  4. (d) Bhoja
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Nagabhata I

Chemistry (1)

Periodic Classification of Elements · Mendeleev's periodic table

Q34. Why did Mendeleev leave gaps in his periodic table?

  1. (a) To make the table look symmetrical
  2. (b) To avoid repetition of elements
  3. (c) For undiscovered elements
  4. (d) To include isotopes
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) For undiscovered elements

Physics (1)

Units, Measurement & Dimensions · SI base units

Q35. What is the complete set of both base and derived units called?

  1. (a) Measurement set
  2. (b) Universal constant system
  3. (c) Scientific model
  4. (d) System of units
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) System of units

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