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RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 24 June 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 39 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 on 24 June 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Modern History, Ancient History, Polity, Computer, Physics.

📚 39 questions🗓️ 24 June 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Current Affairs (10) · Modern History (3) · Ancient History (2) · Polity (5) · Computer (4) · Physics (2) · Static GK (4) · Economics (4) · Medieval History (1) · Biology (1) · Geography (3)

Current Affairs (10)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q1. Who among the following was appointed as the Director General of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) in January 2025?

  1. (a) Dr. V Narayanan
  2. (b) Bahadur Singh Sagoo
  3. (c) Faiz Ahmed Kidwai
  4. (d) Bhuvnesh Kumar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Faiz Ahmed Kidwai

Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q2. The 2025 Pulitzer Prize in Memoir or Autobiography was awarded to which of the following?

  1. (a) Heavy by Kiese Laymon
  2. (b) Spare by Prince Harry
  3. (c) Feeding Ghosts by Tessa Hulls
  4. (d) Stay True by Hua Hsu
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Feeding Ghosts by Tessa Hulls

Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q3. In February 2025, who won the ‘CA in Public Service’ award from the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India?

  1. (a) Sushil Kumar Modi
  2. (b) TV Narendran
  3. (c) Deepak Kumar Kedia
  4. (d) Ajay Bhushan Pandey
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Deepak Kumar Kedia

Economy, Banking and Business · Business and corporate news

Q4. In March 2025, India introduced anti-dumping duties on five products imported from which country?

  1. (a) The United States of America
  2. (b) China
  3. (c) Bangladesh
  4. (d) Japan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) China

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q5. Which of the following statements related to the One Nation One Subscription (ONOS) scheme launched in 2024 is/are correct?
Statement 1: The ONOS scheme aims to provide digital access to over 13,000 international journals for research institutions across India.
Statement 2: INFLIBNET(Information and Library Network) is responsible for managing financial transactions related to the subscription charges of these journals.

  1. (a) Both 1 and 2
  2. (b) Only 1
  3. (c) Neither 1 nor 2
  4. (d) Only 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 1

Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q6. Which of the following cities hosted the inaugural Women's Hockey India League in 2025?

  1. (a) Ranchi
  2. (b) Mumbai
  3. (c) Bengaluru
  4. (d) Chennai
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ranchi

Appointments and Resignations · Heads of organisations

Q7. Who was elected as the Chair of the Asian Productivity Organization (APO) for the 2025–26 term during the 67ᵗʰ GBM?

  1. (a) Dr. Indra Pradana Singawinata
  2. (b) Jone Maritino Nemani
  3. (c) Amardeep Singh Bhatia
  4. (d) Agung Nur Rohmad
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Amardeep Singh Bhatia

International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q8. Which of the following cities hosted the European Political Community Summit in November 2024?

  1. (a) Budapest
  2. (b) Prague
  3. (c) Vienna
  4. (d) Brussels
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Budapest

Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q9. Which of the following statements regarding Exercise Desert Hunt 2025 is/are correct? The exercise was conducted by the Indian Air Force at an Air Force Station near Siachen Glacier. It involved Para (Special Forces) of the Indian Army, MARCOS of the Indian Navy, and Garud commandos of the Indian Air Force. The primary aim was to enhance joint operational capability in high-altitude mountain warfare. The exercise included combat free falls and hostage rescue operations.

  1. (a) 2 only
  2. (b) 2 and 4 only
  3. (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 3 and 4 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space sector policy, industry and start-ups - current

Q10. In January 2025, who chaired the high-level review meeting on ISRO’s upcoming missions for 2025?

  1. (a) Dr. V Narayanan
  2. (b) Dr. Jitendra Singh
  3. (c) Pawan Kumar Goenka
  4. (d) Dr. S Somnath
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dr. Jitendra Singh

Modern History (3)

Towards Independence and Partition · Integration of princely states

Q11. What was the term for Anglo-Indian bureaucrats in the princely states?

  1. (a) Zamindars
  2. (b) Mulkis
  3. (c) Non-Mulkis
  4. (d) Jagirdars
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Non-Mulkis

Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q12. Which of the following can be considered as an immediate cause of the Sanyasi Rebellion?

  1. (a) Development of a broad sense of view of Indian Nationalism
  2. (b) Restrictions imposed by the British upon pilgrims visiting holy places among both Hindus and Muslims
  3. (c) British occupation of Madras region and their new land laws along with the atrocities of the landlords
  4. (d) Implementation of the Chota Nagpur Tenancy Act of 1908
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Restrictions imposed by the British upon pilgrims visiting holy places among both Hindus and Muslims

Advent of Europeans and British Expansion · Dutch, Danish and French

Q13. Who among the following established its factory in Petapuli on the North Coromandel Coast in 1606?

  1. (a) Spanish East India Company
  2. (b) Dutch East India Company
  3. (c) Danish East India Company
  4. (d) German East India Company
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dutch East India Company

Ancient History (2)

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Stupas and chaityas

Q14. Which of the following stupas marks the spot where Buddha gave his first sermon?

  1. (a) Mahabodhi stupa
  2. (b) Dhamek stupa
  3. (c) Amravati stupa
  4. (d) Sanchi stupa
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dhamek stupa

Post-Gupta Period · Harshavardhana

Q15. Harshavardhana belonged to which ancient region?

  1. (a) Thanesar
  2. (b) Magadha
  3. (c) Malwa
  4. (d) Agra
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Thanesar

Polity (5)

Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Comptroller and Auditor General

Q16. Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India related to the accounts of a state shall be submitted to whom among the following?

  1. (a) Governor of the concerned state
  2. (b) Chief Minister of the concerned state
  3. (c) President of India
  4. (d) Prime Minister of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Governor of the concerned state

Union, Territory and Citizenship · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q17. When did the citizenship provisions in the Constitution come into effect?

  1. (a) November 26, 1949
  2. (b) July 19, 1949
  3. (c) January 26, 1950
  4. (d) August 15, 1947
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) November 26, 1949

Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Scheduled and tribal areas (Fifth and Sixth Schedules)

Q18. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration of tribal areas in which region?

  1. (a) Central India
  2. (b) North-East India
  3. (c) Western Ghats
  4. (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) North-East India

Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Schedules of the Constitution

Q19. Which Schedule and Article contain the names and extent of states and union territories?

  1. (a) First Schedule – Articles 1 and 4
  2. (b) Second Schedule – Article 5
  3. (c) Fourth Schedule – Article 80
  4. (d) First Schedule – Articles 1 and 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) First Schedule – Articles 1 and 4

Parliament · Money bills and financial bills

Q20. Which type of legislative bills must be introduced in the Lok Sabha only after obtaining the prior approval of the President of India?

  1. (a) Money Bills
  2. (b) Public Bills
  3. (c) Private Bills
  4. (d) Ordinary Bills
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Money Bills

Computer (4)

Data Representation and Logic · Computer codes (ASCII, Unicode, BCD, EBCDIC)

Q21. Which of the following numbers is used to represent the ASCII value of the uppercase letter 'B'?

  1. (a) 65
  2. (b) 90
  3. (c) 97
  4. (d) 66
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 66

Q22. Which option correctly explains the fundamental difference between input and output devices in a computer system?

  1. (a) Input devices run pre-loaded instructions from memory, whereas output devices collect environmental data.
  2. (b) Input devices change user inputs into digital format, while output devices permanently save system data.
  3. (c) Input devices enable users to send data into the system, while output devices communicate processed information back to the user.
  4. (d) Input devices directly interact with the CPU, while output devices work independently without CPU involvement.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Input devices enable users to send data into the system, while output devices communicate processed information back to the user.

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q23. What will the following PowerShell command in Windows OS do?
Command: Remove-Item C:\Logs -Recurse -Force

  1. (a) Only delete files, leave folders intact
  2. (b) Delete only empty folders under C:\Logs
  3. (c) Delete all files and subfolders inside C:\Logs, including the folder itself
  4. (d) Move the C:\Logs folder to the Recycle Bin
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Delete all files and subfolders inside C:\Logs, including the folder itself

Emerging Technologies and E-Governance · AR, VR and extended reality

Q24. Consider a scenario where a user is interacting with a virtual reality (VR) environment. Which of the following input devices is least likely to be the primary means of navigation and interaction within this immersive environment?

  1. (a) Handheld controllers with positional tracking
  2. (b) Optical mouse connected to the computer
  3. (c) Haptic gloves providing tactile feedback
  4. (d) Head-mounted display with integrated motion tracking
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Optical mouse connected to the computer

Physics (2)

Units, Measurement & Dimensions · Dimensions and dimensional analysis

Q25. Which of the following has dimensional formula [M⁰ L⁰ T−²]?

  1. (a) Frequency
  2. (b) Angular velocity
  3. (c) Strain
  4. (d) Angular acceleration
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Angular acceleration

Heat and Thermodynamics · Thermometers

Q26. Which of the following is NOT a thermometric property?

  1. (a) Length of a metal rod
  2. (b) Electrical resistance
  3. (c) Pressure of a gas
  4. (d) Colour of a substance
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Colour of a substance

Static GK (4)

Indian Railways · Railway organisations and PSUs (IRCTC, RVNL, RailTel, CRIS, RDSO)

Q27. The Dedicated Freight Corridor Corporation of India Limited (DFCCIL) was established as a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) under which of the following Acts?

  1. (a) Infrastructure Development Act, 2002
  2. (b) Companies Act, 1956
  3. (c) Indian Railways Act, 1989
  4. (d) Companies Act, 2013
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Companies Act, 1956

Organisations and Headquarters · Indian organisations and headquarters

Q28. How many offices of the University Grants Commission are in Delhi?

  1. (a) 4
  2. (b) 1
  3. (c) 3
  4. (d) 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 3

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Painting styles and schools

Q29. Who specifically paints the Pithora artworks?

  1. (a) Shepherds
  2. (b) Lakhara
  3. (c) Farmers
  4. (d) Potters
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Lakhara

Important Days and Themes · National days

Q30. In 2024, India celebrated its first National Space Day. What event did this day commemorate?

  1. (a) The launch of India's first satellite, Aryabhata
  2. (b) The establishment of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
  3. (c) The successful landing of Chandrayaan-3 on the Moon
  4. (d) The launch of India's first manned space mission
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The successful landing of Chandrayaan-3 on the Moon

Economics (4)

Agriculture and Food Security · Agricultural credit and institutions (NABARD, KCC)

Q31. What amount will be disbursed from FY 2020-21 to FY 2025-26 under the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund established by the Central Government?

  1. (a) ₹1 lakh crore
  2. (b) ₹5 lakh crore
  3. (c) ₹10 lakh crore
  4. (d) ₹2 lakh crore
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) ₹1 lakh crore

Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q32. Public health services remained largely inaccessible to the masses during the colonial rule. What was India's approximate life expectancy at the time of independence?

  1. (a) 60-65 years
  2. (b) 30-32 years
  3. (c) 42-45 years
  4. (d) 55-60 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 30-32 years

Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q33. Education remained largely inaccessible to the masses during colonial rule. What was India’s literacy rate around 1947?

  1. (a) Close to 90%
  2. (b) Below 20%
  3. (c) Over 75%
  4. (d) Around 50%
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Below 20%

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q34. How many villages in India have completed the computerisation of land records as of March 2025, according to the Department of Land Resources?

  1. (a) 6.25 lakh
  2. (b) 6 lakh
  3. (c) 7.5 lakh
  4. (d) 5.5 lakh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 6.25 lakh

Medieval History (1)

Mughal Empire · Mughal administration (mansabdari, zabt)

Q35. ’Top-khanah’ was the general name given to the military/artillery branch of which of the following?

  1. (a) Ghurid Dynasty
  2. (b) Vijayanagara Empire
  3. (c) Delhi Sultanate
  4. (d) Mughal Dynasty
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mughal Dynasty

Biology (1)

Nutrition and Digestion · Balanced diet and roughage

Q36. Which statement is true regarding a balanced diet?

  1. (a) It contains all nutrients in appropriate proportions.
  2. (b) It includes only fruits and vegetables.
  3. (c) It consists mainly of carbohydrates for energy.
  4. (d) It must exclude fats to prevent diseases.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It contains all nutrients in appropriate proportions.

Geography (3)

Q37. What is the approximate area covered by the Thar Desert in India?

  1. (a) 1,00,000 km²
  2. (b) 2,00,000 km²
  3. (c) 1,70,000 km²
  4. (d) 1,50,000 km²
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1,70,000 km²

India - Population and Census · Population density

Q38. Which region in India is the least populated due to physical barriers and limited accessibility?

  1. (a) Coastal Andhra Pradesh
  2. (b) Ganga Basin
  3. (c) Northern Himalayas (Ladakh region)
  4. (d) Eastern Rajasthan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Northern Himalayas (Ladakh region)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Peninsular plateau and hills

Q39. Which of the following physiographic regions lies north of the Narmada River?

  1. (a) Malwa Plateau
  2. (b) Deccan Plateau
  3. (c) Karnataka Plateau
  4. (d) Telangana Plateau
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Malwa Plateau

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