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RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 24 June 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 38 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 on 24 June 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Polity, Biology, Computer, Modern History, Economics.

📚 38 questions🗓️ 24 June 2025⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Current Affairs (9) · Polity (5) · Biology (1) · Computer (5) · Modern History (2) · Economics (3) · Geography (6) · Miscellaneous (1) · Static GK (1) · Ancient History (3) · Physics (2)

Current Affairs (9)

Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the visit of Indian Navy's First Training Squadron (1TS) to Thailand in March 2025.
INS Sujata, INS Shardul and ICGS Veera were part of the Indian Navy's First Training Squadron that visited Phuket Deep Sea Port. The Indian ships conducted PASSEX with HTMS Huahin. The visit included war-like drills, such as simulated naval combat and live-fire exercises.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 1 and 2
  3. (c) Only 2 and 3
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 1 and 2

Economy, Banking and Business · RBI and banking updates

Q2. Crisil projects India's bank credit growth to accelerate to how much percentage in FY26?

  1. (a) 14-15%
  2. (b) 15-16%
  3. (c) 12-13%
  4. (d) 13-14%
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 12-13%

Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q3. Who is the first Indian boxer to win a gold medal at the World Boxing Cup 2025?

  1. (a) Hitesh Gulia
  2. (b) Jadumani Singh Mandengbam
  3. (c) Abhinash Jamwal
  4. (d) Manish Rathore
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Hitesh Gulia

Economy, Banking and Business · RBI and banking updates

Q4. What was the theme of Financial Literacy Week 2025 observed from 24 to 28 February?

  1. (a) Financial Literacy: A Step Towards Empowerment
  2. (b) Go Digital, Go Secure
  3. (c) Financial Literacy - Women’s Prosperity
  4. (d) Credit Discipline and Credit from Formal Institutions
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Financial Literacy - Women’s Prosperity

Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q5. What is the name of the equestrian competition event that began on March 25, 2025, and ended on March 30, 2025, where Niharika Singhania secured the first position?

  1. (a) Indian Equestrian Championship
  2. (b) World Equestrian Cup
  3. (c) Azelhof CSI Lier
  4. (d) Asian Equestrian Games
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Azelhof CSI Lier

Art, Culture and Events - Current · Festivals and cultural events - current

Q6. Which city hosted the 55ᵗʰ International Film Festival of India in November 2024?

  1. (a) Bengaluru
  2. (b) Mumbai
  3. (c) New Delhi
  4. (d) Panaji
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Panaji

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q7. Who among the following launched the IndiaAI initiatives in 2025?

  1. (a) Prime Minister of India
  2. (b) Director of IndiaAI Mission
  3. (c) Union IT Minister
  4. (d) Minister of Science and Technology
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Union IT Minister

International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q8. In April 2025, India and Italy strengthened their strategic partnership by advancing cooperation in which of the following areas?

  1. (a) Tourism and cultural exchange
  2. (b) Trade, defense, clean energy, and connectivity
  3. (c) Education and healthcare
  4. (d) Space exploration and agriculture
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Trade, defense, clean energy, and connectivity

Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Books released

Q9. The Emperor of Gladness, set in East Gladness, Connecticut, is a 2025 novel by which author?

  1. (a) John Scalzi
  2. (b) Dan Brown
  3. (c) Philip Pullman
  4. (d) Ocean Vuong
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ocean Vuong

Polity (5)

Judiciary · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q10. How are the proceedings and status of a Lok Adalat treated under Indian law?

  1. (a) Proceedings are not judicial and have no legal standing in courts.
  2. (b) Proceedings are advisory and Lok Adalat is not considered a civil court.
  3. (c) Proceedings are judicial and Lok Adalat is deemed a civil court under CrPC.
  4. (d) Proceedings are informal and not recognised under any law.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Proceedings are judicial and Lok Adalat is deemed a civil court under CrPC.

DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Socialistic principles

Q11. Which Indian Constitutional Amendment Act states about the minimisation of inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities as Directive Principle to State Policy?

  1. (a) 44ᵗʰ Amendment Act of 1978
  2. (b) 86ᵗʰ Amendment Act of 2002
  3. (c) 42ⁿᵈ Amendment Act of 1976
  4. (d) 97ᵗʰ Amendment Act of 2011
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 44ᵗʰ Amendment Act of 1978

Union Executive · President - powers (executive, legislative, veto, pardon, ordinance)

Q12. The President of India possesses the power to remove or recall officials such as Governors and Ambassadors. This power is exercised based on the advice of:

  1. (a) the Union Council of Ministers
  2. (b) the State Governments
  3. (c) the Supreme Court of India
  4. (d) a resolution passed by the Parliament
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) the Union Council of Ministers

Parliament · Parliamentary committees

Q13. Who elects the members of the Estimates Committee in the Indian Parliament?

  1. (a) President of India
  2. (b) Prime Minister
  3. (c) Members of the Rajya Sabha
  4. (d) Members of the Lok Sabha
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Members of the Lok Sabha

Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q14. Which of the following is NOT one of the factors that the Prime Minister should consider when selecting ministers for the Union Council of Ministers in India?

  1. (a) Representation of foreign communities
  2. (b) Representation of backward classes
  3. (c) Geographical representation
  4. (d) Individual capacity and capability
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Representation of foreign communities

Biology (1)

Cell - Structure and Function · Cytoskeleton, cell death and cancer cells

Q15. Which cytoskeletal protein is the major component of neurofilaments that helps maintain the caliber and integrity of large axons?

  1. (a) Keratin protein
  2. (b) Neurofilament protein
  3. (c) Tubulin protein
  4. (d) Actin protein
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Neurofilament protein

Computer (5)

Computer Memory · Primary memory (RAM, ROM and their types)

Q16. Which of the following statements DOES NOT describe the primary difference between SRAM and DRAM in terms of their internal architecture and performance characteristics?

  1. (a) SRAM is faster and more expensive, making it suitable for main system memory, while DRAM is slower and cheaper, making it ideal for Cache memory.
  2. (b) SRAM is much faster because it has a simple design and doesn’t need to refresh data, while DRAM is slower due to the need for periodic refreshes.
  3. (c) SRAM uses more transistors (typically six per cell), which makes it less dense, while DRAM uses just one transistor and one capacitor per cell, making it more compact.
  4. (d) SRAM uses more transistors per bit to store data, providing faster access times compared to DRAM.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) SRAM is faster and more expensive, making it suitable for main system memory, while DRAM is slower and cheaper, making it ideal for Cache memory.

MS Office and Productivity Tools · MS Excel

Q17. Which of the following scenarios would most effectively necessitate the use of a three-dimensional reference within an MS Excel formula?

  1. (a) Creating a chart that visualizes data points sourced from several different workbooks
  2. (b) Applying conditional formatting to a range of cells based on values in another worksheet within the same workbook
  3. (c) Calculating the average sales figures across multiple non-contiguous worksheets for the same product category
  4. (d) Summing values from a specific cell across a sequence of identically structured worksheets representing monthly data for a year
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Summing values from a specific cell across a sequence of identically structured worksheets representing monthly data for a year

MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q18. Which keyboard shortcut is used in MS PowerPoint 365 to start editing text inside a selected shape or text box?

  1. (a) Alt + Enter
  2. (b) F5
  3. (c) Ctrl + E
  4. (d) F2
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) F2

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q19. In Windows 11 OS, which of the following is NOT allowed in a file or folder name?

  1. (a) Symbols like asterisk (*) or question mark (?)
  2. (b) Hyphens (-)
  3. (c) Underscores ( _ )
  4. (d) Letters and numbers
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Symbols like asterisk (*) or question mark (?)

MS Office and Productivity Tools · MS PowerPoint

Q20. What is the primary purpose of the 'Sections' feature in MS PowerPoint when managing a large presentation?

  1. (a) To create hyperlinks between different parts of the presentation
  2. (b) To divide the presentation into logical groupings for better organization and navigation during editing and presenting
  3. (c) To apply different themes to specific groups of slides
  4. (d) To enable collaborative editing of specific parts of the presentation by different users
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To divide the presentation into logical groupings for better organization and navigation during editing and presenting

Modern History (2)

Gandhian Era · Civil Disobedience Movement and Dandi March

Q21. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Dandi March of 1930?
(a) The march started from Sabarmati Ashram and ended at Dandi, covering a distance of 240 miles.
(b) The Dandi March led to the signing of the Poona Pact.

  1. (a) Both (a) and (b)
  2. (b) Only (a)
  3. (c) Neither (a) nor (b)
  4. (d) Only (b)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only (a)

Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q22. Which policy of the British greatly affected the tribal landholding patterns and led to widespread discontent among the tribes, thereby fueling rebellions?

  1. (a) Forest Laws and land settlements
  2. (b) Permanent Settlement
  3. (c) The Ryotwari System
  4. (d) Doctrine of Lapse
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Forest Laws and land settlements

Economics (3)

Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q23. India's demographic profile on the eve of independence reflected the socio-economic backwardness imposed by colonial rule. Which of the following options best describes the health care and nutrition status on the eve of independence?

  1. (a) Moderate life expectancy with declining birth and death rates
  2. (b) High life expectancy with high birth rates and low death rate
  3. (c) High life expectancy with low birth and death rates
  4. (d) Low life expectancy with high birth and death rates
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Low life expectancy with high birth and death rates

Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q24. In India, which sector is responsible for transforming natural products into manufactured goods?

  1. (a) Information sector
  2. (b) Primary sector
  3. (c) Tertiary sector
  4. (d) Secondary sector
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Secondary sector

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q25. Which of the following components is included in the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana PMAY-U 2.0 scheme launched in 2024 to provide housing solutions specifically for migrants and workers?

  1. (a) Subsidy scheme
  2. (b) Affordable rental housing complexes
  3. (c) Builders-led construction
  4. (d) Affordable housing for senior citizens
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Affordable rental housing complexes

Geography (6)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Thar Desert

Q26. Which Indian states does the Thar Desert primarily cover?

  1. (a) Rajasthan and Punjab
  2. (b) Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh
  3. (c) Gujarat and Maharashtra
  4. (d) Rajasthan and Gujarat
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Rajasthan and Gujarat

Environment and Protected Areas · Environment and climate schemes and missions

Q27. The 1991 economic reforms in India led to rapid industrialisation and expansion of energy-intensive sectors. Which market-based mechanism has India adopted to balance industrial growth, energy efficiency and emissions?

  1. (a) Green GDP Accounting
  2. (b) Make in India
  3. (c) Food Security Act
  4. (d) Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme

India - Agriculture · Agricultural research institutes

Q28. The success of the Green Revolution was dependent on institutional support. Which organisation played a key role in agricultural research and the dissemination of HYV seeds in India?

  1. (a) DRDO
  2. (b) NITI Aayog
  3. (c) NABARD
  4. (d) ICAR
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) ICAR

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Islands (Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep)

Q29. 'Swaraj Dweep', a popular tourist destination known for its beaches, is located in:

  1. (a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
  2. (b) Daman and Diu
  3. (c) Gulf of Mannar
  4. (d) Lakshadweep Islands
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

India - Population and Census · Human settlements - rural and urban types

Q30. Which factor primarily contributed to the development of nucleated settlements in the Bundelkhand region of central India?

  1. (a) Fertile soil and irrigation facilities
  2. (b) Availability of mineral resources
  3. (c) Proximity to trade routes
  4. (d) Security concerns and invasions
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Security concerns and invasions

India - Population and Census · Human settlements - rural and urban types

Q31. Which of the following is an example of a Tier I city in India?

  1. (a) Amritsar
  2. (b) Bhopal
  3. (c) Jaipur
  4. (d) Kolkata
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Kolkata

Miscellaneous (1)

General Miscellaneous · Non-GK items (reasoning or maths) - keep out of GK mocks

Q32. On a circular path of 2742 m, Riya and Trisha start walking from the same point but in opposite directions at the speed of 4.6 m/s and X m/s, respectively. They will meet for the first time after 457 seconds. Find the value of X.

  1. (a) 2.2
  2. (b) 0.8
  3. (c) 1.1
  4. (d) 1.4
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1.4

Static GK (1)

Monuments and Heritage · Monuments - builders and locations

Q33. In which of the following buildings/towns constructed by the Mughals is Salim Chishti's tomb situated?

  1. (a) Fatehpur Sikri
  2. (b) Agra Fort
  3. (c) Taj Mahal
  4. (d) Red Fort
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Fatehpur Sikri

Ancient History (3)

Post-Gupta Period · Harshavardhana

Q34. Who among the following was considered the first notable king of the Pushyabhuti dynasty, ruling from 580-605 CE?

  1. (a) Rajyavardhana
  2. (b) Naravardhana
  3. (c) Harshavardhana
  4. (d) Prabhakaravardhana
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Prabhakaravardhana

Gupta Empire · Gupta rulers

Q35. The most important source for Samudragupta's reign is:

  1. (a) Prayagraj Prashasti
  2. (b) Arthashastra
  3. (c) Vishnu Purana
  4. (d) Milindapanho
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Prayagraj Prashasti

Vedic Period · Vedic literature (Vedas, Brahmanas, Aranyakas, Upanishads)

Q36. Which traditional method of Vedic chanting is regarded as the most complex and extensive among all the recitation styles?

  1. (a) Shikhapatha
  2. (b) Jatapatha
  3. (c) Ghanapatha
  4. (d) Dandapatha
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ghanapatha

Physics (2)

Sound and Waves · Nature and types of waves (longitudinal, transverse)

Q37. What is required for the generation of a sound wave?

  1. (a) Electromagnetic carrier wave only
  2. (b) Vibration and an elastic medium only
  3. (c) Vacuum only
  4. (d) Air molecules only
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Vibration and an elastic medium only

Units, Measurement & Dimensions · SI base units

Q38. What are the units for base quantities called?

  1. (a) Fundamental or base units
  2. (b) Basic constants
  3. (c) Standard basic units
  4. (d) Derived basic units
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Fundamental or base units

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