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RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 9 June 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 39 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 on 9 June 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Chemistry, Geography, Current Affairs, Static GK, Polity, Economics.

📚 39 questions🗓️ 9 June 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Chemistry (2) · Geography (6) · Current Affairs (10) · Static GK (2) · Polity (3) · Economics (6) · Ancient History (2) · Computer (5) · Biology (1) · Modern History (2)

Chemistry (2)

Acids, Bases and Salts · Neutralisation reaction

Q1. Which of the following is a common component in toothpaste, for cleaning the teeth by neutralising the excess acid to prevent tooth decay?

  1. (a) Halogens
  2. (b) Acids
  3. (c) Bases
  4. (d) Salts
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bases

Periodic Classification of Elements · Mendeleev's periodic table

Q2. Where did Mendeleev arrange the elements in the periodic table with similar properties?

  1. (a) Horizontal row
  2. (b) Block
  3. (c) Atomic series
  4. (d) Vertical column
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Vertical column

Geography (6)

India - Agriculture · Irrigation in India

Q3. The irrigation method in India that distributes water through pipes under low pressure to each plant is called:

  1. (a) canal irrigation
  2. (b) localised irrigation
  3. (c) furrow irrigation
  4. (d) tubewell irrigation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) localised irrigation

Q4. Which of the following does NOT contribute much to the degradation of the Thar Desert ecosystem?

  1. (a) Climate change
  2. (b) Grazing by livestock
  3. (c) Increased plantation of native trees
  4. (d) Erratic rainfall
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Increased plantation of native trees

Q5. As of April 2025, Similipal - designated as the second national park of the state - is located in:

  1. (a) Odisha
  2. (b) Assam
  3. (c) Gujarat
  4. (d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Odisha

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Peninsular plateau and hills

Q6. The Great Plateau of India is a part of which ancient landmass?

  1. (a) Angaraland
  2. (b) Laurasia
  3. (c) Gondwana Land
  4. (d) Pangaea
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gondwana Land

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Peninsular plateau and hills

Q7. Which of the following is NOT a subdivision of the Meghalaya Plateau?

  1. (a) Garo Hills
  2. (b) Mikir Hills
  3. (c) Jaintia Hills
  4. (d) Khasi Hills
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mikir Hills

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Neighbouring countries and border states

Q8. Which of the following countries is separated from India by maritime boundary only?

  1. (a) Maldives
  2. (b) Myanmar
  3. (c) Nepal
  4. (d) Bhutan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Maldives

Current Affairs (10)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q9. Who among the following has been appointed as the 26ᵗʰ Governor of Reserve Bank of India in December 2024?

  1. (a) Gyanesh Kumar
  2. (b) Sanjay Malhotra
  3. (c) Arunish Chawla
  4. (d) Tuhin Kumar Pandey
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sanjay Malhotra

Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q10. Who among the following won the 2024 Booker Prize for Fiction for their novel Orbital, which explores themes of isolation, the human condition, and our relationship with Earth?

  1. (a) Colson Whitehead
  2. (b) Samantha Harvey
  3. (c) Sally Rooney
  4. (d) Douglas Stuart
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Samantha Harvey

Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q11. What was Abhinash Jamwal's achievement at the 2025 World Boxing Cup?

  1. (a) He won a gold medal in the 65 kg category.
  2. (b) He won a bronze medal in the 65 kg category.
  3. (c) He did not win any medal.
  4. (d) He bagged a silver medal in the 65 kg category.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) He bagged a silver medal in the 65 kg category.

State News · State elections and results

Q12. In the 2025 Delhi Legislative Assembly elections, after how many years did the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) win the majority, and how many seats did it secure?

  1. (a) After 35 years, securing 55 seats
  2. (b) After 27 years, securing 48 seats
  3. (c) After 30 years, securing 50 seats
  4. (d) After 25 years, securing 48 seats
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) After 27 years, securing 48 seats

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space sector policy, industry and start-ups - current

Q13. Who inaugurated the Shri S Ramakrishnan Centre of Excellence at IIT Madras in 2025?

  1. (a) Director of IIT Madras
  2. (b) Union Minister for Space
  3. (c) ISRO Chairman
  4. (d) Scientific Secretary of ISRO
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) ISRO Chairman

State News · State elections and results

Q14. Arrange the following states in descending order based on the number of seats won by the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) in their respective 2024–2025 assembly elections.
1. Delhi
2. Maharashtra
3. Jammu and Kashmir
4. Jharkhand

  1. (a) 3 > 2 > 1 > 4
  2. (b) 2 > 3 > 1 > 4
  3. (c) 2 > 1 > 3 > 4
  4. (d) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2 > 1 > 3 > 4

Environment and Climate - Current · Environmental rules, campaigns and summits - current

Q15. Where did the fifth session of the Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee (INC-5) to end plastic pollution take place?

  1. (a) Berlin, Germany
  2. (b) Tokyo, Japan
  3. (c) Busan, South Korea
  4. (d) Nairobi, Kenya
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Busan, South Korea

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q16. Which of the following statements correctly describe(s) the 'Gorakhnath Sharma vs. State of Chhattisgarh' case, as ruled by the Chhattisgarh High Court in February 2025? The case involved allegations of brutal non-consensual sexual assault by a husband on his wife, leading to her death. The Chhattisgarh High Court convicted the husband and awarded maximum punishment in the case of rape.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Both 1 and 2
  3. (c) Only 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

State News · State political developments

Q17. In October 2024, Nayab Singh Saini sworn in for his second term as the Chief Minister of which Indian state?

  1. (a) Uttar Pradesh
  2. (b) Haryana
  3. (c) Rajasthan
  4. (d) Punjab
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Haryana

Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q18. The 2025 SEA Games were scheduled to be held in which country?

  1. (a) Thailand
  2. (b) Malaysia
  3. (c) Vietnam
  4. (d) Indonesia
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Thailand

Static GK (2)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Painting styles and schools

Q19. In Gond painting, what is the purpose of applying 'chhui' clay on the surface?

  1. (a) To reflect sunlight
  2. (b) To fix cracks on the wall
  3. (c) To create a smooth white base for painting
  4. (d) To prevent insects from damaging the wall
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To create a smooth white base for painting

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Painting styles and schools

Q20. In Warli painting, which natural material is used in the first step called 'Lipane' to prepare the wall?

  1. (a) Sand
  2. (b) Geru
  3. (c) Rice paste
  4. (d) Charcoal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Geru

Polity (3)

Union, Territory and Citizenship · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q21. Which agreement is linked to the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 1985?

  1. (a) Kashmir Agreement
  2. (b) Indo-Sri Lanka Pact
  3. (c) Assam Accord
  4. (d) Shimla Agreement
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Assam Accord

Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q22. In the ministerial hierarchy in India, Ministers of State generally have:

  1. (a) no executive responsibility in any of the portfolios
  2. (b) authority over the Cabinet portfolios
  3. (c) secondary rank within the portfolios assigned to Cabinet Ministers
  4. (d) equal standing with Cabinet Ministers in their assigned portfolios
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) secondary rank within the portfolios assigned to Cabinet Ministers

Judiciary · Judicial review and judicial activism

Q23. The Supreme Court described itself as the "sentinel on the qui vive" in relation to ____________.

  1. (a) Protection of tax laws
  2. (b) Protection of legislative privileges
  3. (c) Protection of foreign policy
  4. (d) Protection of Fundamental Rights
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Protection of Fundamental Rights

Economics (6)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Economic indices and rankings

Q24. Which of the following programmes received the highest score in the Data Governance Quality Index (DGQI) for the Department of Rural Development for the year 2023-24?

  1. (a) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana
  2. (b) MGNREGA-Programme Component
  3. (c) National Social Assistance Programme
  4. (d) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) National Social Assistance Programme

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · National sample surveys (NFHS, PLFS, NSS) - findings

Q25. What was the Gross Enrollment Ratio (GER) in higher education in India according to the All India Survey on Higher Education, 2021-22?

  1. (a) 26.6%
  2. (b) 30.8%
  3. (c) 28.4%
  4. (d) 24.2%
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 28.4%

Planning and NITI Aayog · Planning Commission and NDC

Q26. In which year did the National Development Council (NDC) recommend a national policy on co-operatives?

  1. (a) 1958
  2. (b) 1975
  3. (c) 1962
  4. (d) 1947
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1958

Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q27. After independence, co-operatives became an integral part of which planning initiative in India?

  1. (a) Five-Year Plans
  2. (b) Green Revolution
  3. (c) Operation Flood
  4. (d) Industrial Policy Resolution
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Five-Year Plans

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Poverty - measurement and committees

Q28. Which of the following measures the percentage of a country's population living below the poverty line?

  1. (a) Unemployment Rate
  2. (b) Gini Coefficient
  3. (c) Poverty Headcount Ratio
  4. (d) Human Development Index
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Poverty Headcount Ratio

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Sustainable Development Goals

Q29. According to the SDG India Index 2023-24 released by NITI Aayog, what is the range of composite scores achieved by Indian states?

  1. (a) 57 to 79
  2. (b) 60 to 85
  3. (c) 65 to 90
  4. (d) 52 to 75
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 57 to 79

Ancient History (2)

Post-Gupta Period · Chalukyas of Badami

Q30. The Chalukyas of Badami were founded by:

  1. (a) Vikramaditya I
  2. (b) Kirttivarman I
  3. (c) Pulakesin I
  4. (d) Mangalesha
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pulakesin I

Post-Mauryan Period · Shakas and Parthians

Q31. Which ruler of the Western Kshatrapas dynasty is primarily known for restoring the Sudarshana Lake in Kathiawar?

  1. (a) Azes
  2. (b) Rudradaman I
  3. (c) Maues
  4. (d) Nahapana
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rudradaman I

Computer (5)

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Operating system - functions and types

Q32. In the context of file systems, what is the primary purpose of a file system 'metadata'?

  1. (a) To store the actual content and data of the files
  2. (b) To define the graphical representation of files and folders for the user
  3. (c) To optimise the physical storage of file data on the storage device for faster access
  4. (d) To record information about the files and directories, such as their names, sizes, timestamps and permissions
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To record information about the files and directories, such as their names, sizes, timestamps and permissions

Data Representation and Logic · Computer codes (ASCII, Unicode, BCD, EBCDIC)

Q33. Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. (a) LAN supports networking over large geographic areas.
  2. (b) ASCII represents characters as numerical codes.
  3. (c) ASCII is primarily used for high-speed data transmission networks.
  4. (d) CD is a volatile storage medium.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) ASCII represents characters as numerical codes.

Q34. Which of the following methods is the quickest way to open an existing MS Excel spreadsheet?

  1. (a) Double-click the .xlsx file in File Explorer
  2. (b) Open MS Excel and click Blank Workbook
  3. (c) Use the Alt + F4 shortcut
  4. (d) Press Ctrl + N
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Double-click the .xlsx file in File Explorer

Q35. Which of the following elements is NOT inherently part of a basic 'Blank Presentation' upon its initial creation in MS PowerPoint?

  1. (a) Pre-defined theme colours
  2. (b) At least one slide
  3. (c) Placeholders for content
  4. (d) A default slide layout
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Pre-defined theme colours

Q36. In MS PowerPoint 2019, which of the following tabs must you first select to access the 'Open' option for loading a saved PowerPoint file?

  1. (a) Home tab
  2. (b) Insert tab
  3. (c) File tab
  4. (d) Design tab
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) File tab

Biology (1)

Tissues · Permanent plant tissues (simple and complex)

Q37. Which of the following is true about trichomes on the stem?

  1. (a) They are multicellular and may be secretory.
  2. (b) They are always unbranched and unicellular.
  3. (c) They are present only in the roots.
  4. (d) They never function in water retention.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) They are multicellular and may be secretory.

Modern History (2)

Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Raja Ram Mohan Roy and Brahmo Samaj

Q38. Who is referred to as the 'Father of the Indian Renaissance' due to their contribution in social reform, literary works and unwavering patriotism?

  1. (a) Atmaram Pandurang
  2. (b) Dayanand Saraswati
  3. (c) Swami Vivekanand
  4. (d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Revolt of 1857 · Consequences and Queen's Proclamation

Q39. Which event marked the final collapse of the British policy of annexation?

  1. (a) Partition of Bengal
  2. (b) Government of India Act, 1935
  3. (c) Quit India Movement
  4. (d) Revolt of 1857
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Revolt of 1857

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