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RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 9 June 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 40 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 on 9 June 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Geography, Economics, Current Affairs, Computer, Modern History, Polity.

📚 40 questions🗓️ 9 June 2025⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Geography (4) · Economics (4) · Current Affairs (9) · Computer (5) · Modern History (5) · Polity (4) · Ancient History (3) · Static GK (3) · Biology (1) · Physics (1) · Chemistry (1)

Geography (4)

India - Agriculture · Horticulture and plantation crops

Q1. Where is plantation agriculture mainly practised in India?

  1. (a) Odisha and Chhattisgarh
  2. (b) Rajasthan and Gujarat
  3. (c) Kerala and Assam
  4. (d) Punjab and Haryana
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kerala and Assam

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Himalayas - ranges and peaks

Q2. Which Himalayan range is the northern-most and contains the loftiest peaks?

  1. (a) Himadri
  2. (b) Himachal Himalaya
  3. (c) Purvachal
  4. (d) Shiwalik
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Himadri

India - Population and Census · Current population estimates and projections

Q3. What is the projected population of India by 2036, according to the National Commission on Population?

  1. (a) 1.52 billion
  2. (b) 1.38 billion
  3. (c) 1.32 billion
  4. (d) 1.45 billion
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1.52 billion

India - Drainage System · Tributaries and confluences

Q4. Through which of the following plateaus does the River Damodar flow?

  1. (a) Deccan Plateau
  2. (b) Malwa Plateau
  3. (c) Chhotanagpur Plateau
  4. (d) Meghalaya Plateau
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chhotanagpur Plateau

Economics (4)

Agriculture and Food Security · Agricultural policies and missions

Q5. Who was the chairman of the National Commission on Farmers (NCF) when it was constituted on 18 November 2004 in India?

  1. (a) Chakravarthi Rangarajan
  2. (b) Krishnaswamy Kasturirangan
  3. (c) MS Swaminathan
  4. (d) Verghese Kurien
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) MS Swaminathan

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · National sample surveys (NFHS, PLFS, NSS) - findings

Q6. What was the unemployment rate for persons aged 15 years and above in rural India during the period 2022-23, according to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) annual report 2022-23?

  1. (a) 3.5%
  2. (b) 4.0%
  3. (c) 5.1%
  4. (d) 2.4%
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2.4%

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q7. What was the budget allocated in the Smart City Mission for the financial year 2023-24?

  1. (a) ₹6,000 crore
  2. (b) ₹8,000 crore
  3. (c) ₹10,000 crore
  4. (d) ₹12,000 crore
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) ₹8,000 crore

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Indirect taxes and GST

Q8. Which of the following is an indirect tax levied in India?

  1. (a) Equalisation Levy
  2. (b) Goods and Services Tax
  3. (c) Corporate Tax
  4. (d) Capital Gain Tax
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Goods and Services Tax

Current Affairs (9)

Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q9. Which of the following films won the 2025 Golden Globe Award for Best Motion Picture – Non-English Language?

  1. (a) All We Imagine as Light
  2. (b) The Girl With The Needle
  3. (c) I'm Still Here
  4. (d) Emilia Pérez
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Emilia Pérez

Economy, Banking and Business · RBI and banking updates

Q10. On International Women’s Day 2025, which Indian bank launched ‘Asmita’, a collateral-free digital SME loan tailored for women entrepreneurs?

  1. (a) State Bank of India
  2. (b) Bank of Baroda
  3. (c) Axis Bank
  4. (d) HDFC Bank
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) State Bank of India

Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q11. In March 2025, India hosted the inaugural edition of which naval exercise aimed at enhancing maritime cooperation with African nations?

  1. (a) Africa-India Key Maritime Engagement
  2. (b) Exercise VARUNA
  3. (c) Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS)
  4. (d) Exercise MILAN
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Africa-India Key Maritime Engagement

International Affairs and Summits · Global events and elections

Q12. Which country's federal election was held on 3 May 2025 to elect members of its 48ᵗʰ Parliament?

  1. (a) Australia
  2. (b) New Zealand
  3. (c) Canada
  4. (d) United Kingdom
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Australia

International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q13. From 10-14 February 2025, in which city did India host the annual Conference of the International Institute of Administrative Sciences (IIAS) for the first time?

  1. (a) Ahmedabad
  2. (b) New Delhi
  3. (c) Hyderabad
  4. (d) Gandhinagar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) New Delhi

State News · State firsts

Q14. Which Indian state became the first to establish a Senior Citizens Commission in March 2025?

  1. (a) Gujarat
  2. (b) Kerala
  3. (c) Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kerala

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space sector policy, industry and start-ups - current

Q15. As per the Indian Space Association (ISpA) in 2025, _____ satellites out of the approved 52-satellite constellation for the defence sector are expected to be built by the private sector.

  1. (a) 41
  2. (b) 52
  3. (c) 21
  4. (d) 31
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 31

State News · State schemes and events

Q16. Which of the following sports events were included in the school-level competitions organised by the Uttar Pradesh government in December 2024?

  1. (a) Basketball and athletics
  2. (b) Tennis and swimming
  3. (c) Kabaddi and kho-kho
  4. (d) Cricket and badminton
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kabaddi and kho-kho

International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q17. Which country hosted the 58ᵗʰ Annual Meeting of the Asian Development Bank (ADB) in 2025, where India discussed the Strategic Action Plan 2025-2029?

  1. (a) Italy
  2. (b) India
  3. (c) China
  4. (d) Japan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Italy

Computer (5)

Computer Organisation and Hardware · CPU - ALU, CU and registers

Q18. Which of the following components is NOT part of the CPU?

  1. (a) Hard Disk Drive (HDD)
  2. (b) Cache memory
  3. (c) Control Unit (CU)
  4. (d) Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Hard Disk Drive (HDD)

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q19. In the context of file deletion, what is the typical immediate effect of moving a file to the 'Trash' or 'Recycle Bin' in a GUI-based Operating System?

  1. (a) The file is moved to a special directory, and its directory entry is updated, but the data remains on the storage device.
  2. (b) The file is compressed and archived before being permanently deleted.
  3. (c) The file's metadata (inode or equivalent) is immediately purged from the file system.
  4. (d) The file's data is immediately overwritten and unrecoverable.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The file is moved to a special directory, and its directory entry is updated, but the data remains on the storage device.

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q20. Which feature in Windows allows you to create shortcuts to frequently used folders for easier access?

  1. (a) Libraries
  2. (b) Task Bar
  3. (c) Quick Access
  4. (d) File Explorer
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Quick Access

MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q21. Which of the following shortcut keys can be used to quickly open a presentation in PowerPoint?

  1. (a) Ctrl + O
  2. (b) Shift + O
  3. (c) Alt + O
  4. (d) Tab + O
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ctrl + O

MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q22. In MS Word 365, what is the shortcut to remove manual character formatting from selected text?

  1. (a) Ctrl + Shift + N
  2. (b) Ctrl + Z
  3. (c) Ctrl + B
  4. (d) Ctrl + Spacebar
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ctrl + Spacebar

Modern History (5)

Rise of Nationalism and Indian National Congress · Foundation of the INC (1885)

Q23. Who is most commonly associated with the 'safety valve' theory regarding the formation of the Indian National Congress?

  1. (a) WC Bannerji
  2. (b) AO Hume
  3. (c) Dadabhai Naoroji
  4. (d) Lord Dufferin
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) AO Hume

Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Books and authors of the modern period

Q24. The book "Gita Rahasya", a philosophical interpretation of the Bhagavad Gita, was written by which of the following leaders?

  1. (a) Aurobindo Ghosh
  2. (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  3. (c) Mahatma Gandhi
  4. (d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q25. According to the Regulating Act of 1773 of the East India Company, to whom did the governors of Madras and Bombay report regularly?

  1. (a) Court of Directors
  2. (b) The Governor General
  3. (c) The British Crown
  4. (d) The British Parliament
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Governor General

Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Freedom fighters and their titles

Q26. VO Chidambaram Pillai was actively involved in the revolutionary movement in which of the following areas?

  1. (a) Delhi
  2. (b) Calcutta
  3. (c) Madras
  4. (d) Bombay
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Madras

Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Kisan Sabhas, Tebhaga and Telangana movements

Q27. The peasant struggle of the Warli tribe in the year 1945 occurred in which of the following states of India?

  1. (a) Gujarat
  2. (b) Maharashtra
  3. (c) Kerala
  4. (d) Mizoram
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Maharashtra

Polity (4)

State Government · Special arrangements (Delhi, Puducherry, J&K)

Q28. What special status did the Sixty-ninth Amendment Act, 1991 give to Delhi?

  1. (a) Granted full Statehood to Delhi
  2. (b) Designated Delhi as the National Capital Territory with a legislative assembly
  3. (c) Made Delhi a Union Territory without a legislature
  4. (d) Brought Delhi under the control of the President through the Governor
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Designated Delhi as the National Capital Territory with a legislative assembly

Amendments and Important Articles · Major constitutional amendments

Q29. What provision was extended under the 104ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act, 2020?

  1. (a) GST Council term
  2. (b) Term of the Lok Sabha
  3. (c) Reservation for SC/ST in legislatures
  4. (d) Voting age for elections
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Reservation for SC/ST in legislatures

DPSP and Fundamental Duties · DPSP - features and classification

Q30. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the application of the Directive Principles of the State Policy?

  1. (a) Article 39
  2. (b) Article 38
  3. (c) Article 36
  4. (d) Article 37
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 37

DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Important DPSP articles (39A, 40, 44, 45, 48A, 50, 51)

Q31. Which Constitutional Article specifically provides for free legal aid to the poor?

  1. (a) Article 21
  2. (b) Article 32
  3. (c) Article 44
  4. (d) Article 39A
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 39A

Ancient History (3)

Gupta Empire · Gupta rulers

Q32. Who was the son and successor of Chandragupta II?

  1. (a) Kumaragupta I
  2. (b) Ramgupta
  3. (c) Samudragupta
  4. (d) Skandagupta
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kumaragupta I

Indus Valley Civilisation · Artefacts and findings

Q33. The sculpture of bearded man, found in Mohejo-daro, is made of which material?

  1. (a) Terracota
  2. (b) Bronze
  3. (c) Stone
  4. (d) Copper
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Stone

Post-Mauryan Period · Shakas and Parthians

Q34. The Scythians, or Shakas, originally came from _______.

  1. (a) Southeast Asia
  2. (b) Central Asia
  3. (c) South India
  4. (d) Eastern Europe
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Central Asia

Static GK (3)

Important Days and Themes · National days

Q35. In December 2024, which day honoured Dr BR Ambedkar’s contribution to social justice?

  1. (a) National Equality Day
  2. (b) Constitution Awareness Day
  3. (c) Ambedkar Smriti Diwas
  4. (d) Mahaparinirvan Diwas
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mahaparinirvan Diwas

Music and Musical Instruments · Musicians and singers

Q36. Sharda Sinha, honoured with the Padma Vibhushan in 2025, was originally known for singing in which Indian languages?

  1. (a) Punjabi and Kashmiri
  2. (b) Marathi and Konkani
  3. (c) Assamese and Bodo
  4. (d) Bhojpuri and Maithili
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bhojpuri and Maithili

Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q37. In which of the following cities Gharanas of Thumri are based?

  1. (a) Patiala and Talwandi
  2. (b) Banaras and Lucknow
  3. (c) Agra and Kirana
  4. (d) Gwalior and Bhopal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Banaras and Lucknow

Biology (1)

Heredity and Evolution · Chromosomes, genes and DNA

Q38. DNA polymerase catalyses the addition of nucleotides during DNA replication. Its main role is to:

  1. (a) Synthesise new DNA strands complementary to the template
  2. (b) Remove RNA primers from the lagging strand
  3. (c) Ligate Okazaki fragments together
  4. (d) Unwind the DNA double helix
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Synthesise new DNA strands complementary to the template

Physics (1)

Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Magnetic materials (dia, para, ferro)

Q39. The Meissner effect is a defining characteristic of which state of matter?

  1. (a) Insulating state
  2. (b) Paramagnetic state
  3. (c) Ferromagnetic state
  4. (d) Superconducting state
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Superconducting state

Chemistry (1)

Everyday and Industrial Chemistry · Common names and chemical formulae

Q40. What is Tetrachloromethane primarily used for in manufacturing?

  1. (a) Production of refrigerants and aerosol propellants
  2. (b) Fertiliser production and pesticide refining
  3. (c) Glass manufacturing and ceramic treatment
  4. (d) Textile dyeing and coloring of woollen clothes
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Production of refrigerants and aerosol propellants

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