Home › GK Questions Asked › RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 › 18 March 2026 Shift 1

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 18 March 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 38 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 on 18 March 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Static GK, Geography, Ancient History, Computer, Polity.

📚 38 questions🗓️ 18 March 2026⏰ Shift 1
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Current Affairs (10) · Static GK (3) · Geography (5) · Ancient History (2) · Computer (4) · Polity (5) · Modern History (3) · Physics (1) · Medieval History (1) · Chemistry (2) · Economics (1) · Biology (1)

Current Affairs (10)

Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q1. In 2025, which England cricketer was formally knighted during an investiture ceremony held at Windsor Castle on 28 October?

  1. (a) Stuart Broad
  2. (b) James Anderson
  3. (c) Alastair Cook
  4. (d) Joe Root
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) James Anderson

England Cricket Knighthood 2025
Event: Investiture ceremony at Windsor Castle
Date: 28 October 2025
James Anderson- England's legendary fast bowler
Most Test wickets by a fast bowler (700+ wickets)
Longest international career for England
Formally knighted for services to cricket
Answer: Option 2 → James Anderson
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q2. In which year did the Union Cabinet approve the Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme, named as ‘Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana’?

  1. (a) 2018
  2. (b) 2015
  3. (c) 2021
  4. (d) 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2025

Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana
Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme approved by Union Cabinet in2025.
Aims to promote employment generation and formalization of jobs.
Part of government's initiative for developed India (Viksit Bharat) vision.
Answer: Option 4 → 2025
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q3. Which report, released at the COP30 summit in 2025, highlights the rapid increase in global methane emissions and the need for urgent action to address climate change?

  1. (a) Global Methane Status Report 2025
  2. (b) International Greenhouse Gas Assessment Report 2025
  3. (c) Global Climate Mitigation Outlook Report 2025
  4. (d) Worldwide Atmospheric Pollution Trends Report 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Global Methane Status Report 2025

Global Methane Status Report 2025was released at COP30.
Key highlights of the report:
• Documented rapid increase in global methane emissions
• Emphasized urgent need for climate action
• Methane is second-largest contributor to global warming after CO₂
Answer: Option 1 → Global Methane Status Report 2025
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q4. Which significant milestone did the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change announce on World Environment Day 2025 regarding pollution?

  1. (a) Ban on all single-use plastics nationwide
  2. (b) Launch of “One Nation, One Mission: End Plastic Pollution”
  3. (c) Closure of coal plants
  4. (d) Elimination of non-attainment cities
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Launch of “One Nation, One Mission: End Plastic Pollution”

World Environment Day 2025 Announcement
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change announced a major initiative on World Environment Day 2025.
Key Initiative:
Launch of"One Nation, One Mission: End Plastic Pollution"campaign to tackle plastic waste across India.
This mission aims to unite the nation in combating plastic pollution through coordinated efforts.
Answer: Option 2 → Launch of "One Nation, One Mission: End Plastic Pollution"
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Days and themes - current year

Q5. Which of the following themes guided global campaigns for World Polio Day 2025?

  1. (a) Immunization for All Ages across the country
  2. (b) Vaccines for a Healthy Child and Healthy Future
  3. (c) End Polio: Every Child, Every Vaccine, Everywhere
  4. (d) Protecting Children from Diseases, all at once
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) End Polio: Every Child, Every Vaccine, Everywhere

World Polio Day 2025 Theme
World Polio Day is observed onOctober 24every year.
The 2025 global campaign theme emphasizes universal reach and complete vaccination coverage.
Theme:End Polio: Every Child, Every Vaccine, Everywhere
This highlights the commitment to eradicate polio by ensuring every child receives vaccination regardless of location.
Answer: Option 3 → End Polio: Every Child, Every Vaccine, Everywhere
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q6. As of May 2025, which Indian Union Ministry does Piyush Goyal administer?

  1. (a) Ministry of Labour and Employment
  2. (b) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
  3. (c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  4. (d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Piyush Goyal - Current Portfolio (May 2025)
Piyush Goyal is the Union Minister forCommerce and Industry.
He also holds the portfolio ofConsumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
Previously served as Railway Minister and Coal Minister.
Answer: Option 3 → Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Q7. In December 2025, which existing Act does the Viksit Bharat—Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) (VB—G RAM G) Bill, 2025 seek to replace?

  1. (a) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999
  2. (b) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
  3. (c) Life Insurance Corporation Act, 1956
  4. (d) Insurance Act, 1938
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005

VB-GRAMG Bill, 2025
The Viksit Bharat—Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Bill, 2025 is introduced to replace the existing rural employment guarantee scheme.
It seeks to replaceMGNREGA, 2005(Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act).
The new bill aims to modernize rural employment programs under the Viksit Bharat vision.
Answer: Option 2 → Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q8. According to GFRA 2025, what was India’s global rank in total forest area?

  1. (a) 9th
  2. (b) 6th
  3. (c) 15th
  4. (d) 12th
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 9th

GFRA 2025 is published by FAO (Food and Agriculture Organization).
India ranks9th globallyin total forest area.
India has approximately 72.5 million hectares of forest cover.
Top countries: Russia, Brazil, Canada, USA, China lead in forest area.
Answer: Option 1 → 9th
Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q9. The 68th annual Grammy Awards conducted on 1 February 2026, in Los Angeles, honoured which of the following performers as Best New Artist?

  1. (a) Leon Thomas
  2. (b) Olivia Dean
  3. (c) Addison Rae
  4. (d) Lola Young
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Olivia Dean

68th Annual Grammy Awards - February 1, 2026
Event: Held in Los Angeles
Best New Artist Award:Olivia Dean
Olivia Dean is a British singer-songwriter known for her soulful voice and critically acclaimed debut album.
Answer: Option 2 → Olivia Dean
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q10. What action did the Supreme Court take regarding mining near national parks and wildlife sanctuaries on November 13, 2025?

  1. (a) Permitted mining with restrictions
  2. (b) Allowed mining activities anywhere
  3. (c) Banned mining activities within one km
  4. (d) Reduced protection area to 0.5 km
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Banned mining activities within one km

Supreme Court Order - November 13, 2025
The Supreme Court banned all mining activities within1 km radiusof national parks and wildlife sanctuaries.
This decision strengthens wildlife protection by creating a buffer zone around protected areas.
The order aims to prevent environmental degradation and protect biodiversity in sensitive ecological zones.
Answer: Option 3 → Banned mining activities within one km

Static GK (3)

Monuments and Heritage · Temples and religious places

Q11. Which temple's garbhagriha houses a Chaturmukha (four-faced) Vishnu image?

  1. (a) Lakshmana Temple, Khajuraho
  2. (b) Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh
  3. (c) Brihadiswara Temple, Thanjavur
  4. (d) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Lakshmana Temple, Khajuraho

Lakshmana Temple, Khajuraho(950 CE, Chandela dynasty)
Built by King Dhanga, dedicated to Lord Vishnu
Garbhagriha Feature:Houses a rareChaturmukha
(four-faced) Vishnu image - Vaikuntha Vishnu
The four faces represent Vishnu's cosmic aspects
and his role as preserver of the universe
Answer: Option 1 → Lakshmana Temple, Khajuraho
Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q12. Folk songs of Haryana are commonly known by which of the following names?

  1. (a) Raganis
  2. (b) Bhand
  3. (c) Baul
  4. (d) Bihu
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Raganis

Folk Songs of Haryana
Haryana's traditional folk songs are calledRaganiorRaganis.
These are narrative ballads sung in local dialects, often depicting heroic tales, love stories, and social themes.
Other Options:
Bhand → Folk theatre form of Kashmir
Baul → Mystic minstrels of Bengal
Bihu → Folk songs and dance of Assam
Answer: Option 1 → Raganis
Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q13. Which folk music form of Uttar Pradesh is traditionally sung during the monsoon season by women?

  1. (a) Bhatiali
  2. (b) Maang
  3. (c) Kajri
  4. (d) Lavani
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kajri

Kajriis a semi-classical folk music form of Uttar Pradesh.
Traditionally sung by women duringmonsoon season (Sawan).
Celebrates the arrival of rains and expresses joy of the season.
Other options: Bhatiali (Bengal), Maang (Rajasthan), Lavani (Maharashtra).
Answer: Option 3 → Kajri

Geography (5)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Neighbouring countries and border states

Q14. Which of the following countries serves as India’s gateway to the ASEAN region by being the only ASEAN nation sharing a land boundary with India?

  1. (a) Bhutan
  2. (b) Myanmar
  3. (c) Bangladesh
  4. (d) Nepal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Myanmar

Key Facts:
Myanmar is the only ASEAN member nation that shares a land border with India.
India-Myanmar border: ~1,643 km through Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, and Mizoram.
Myanmar serves as India's land bridge to Southeast Asia and ASEAN region.
Other options: Bhutan, Bangladesh, Nepal are NOT ASEAN members.
Answer: Option 2 → Myanmar
India - Agriculture · Types of farming (shifting, terrace, etc.)

Q15. What is the key difference between extensive and intensive farming systems?

  1. (a) Size of seed
  2. (b) Irrigation used
  3. (c) Machinery type
  4. (d) Production per land unit
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Production per land unit

Extensive vs Intensive Farming
Extensive Farming:Large land area, low inputs, low yield per unit area
Example: Pastoral farming, shifting cultivation
Intensive Farming:Small land area, high inputs (fertilizers, irrigation), high yield per unit area
Example: Market gardening, terrace farming
Key Difference:Production/output per unit of land
Answer: Option 4 → Production per land unit
India - Population and Census · Population density

Q16. As per Census of 2011, which of the following states is least densely populated?

  1. (a) Mizoram
  2. (b) Rajasthan
  3. (c) Assam
  4. (d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Arunachal Pradesh

Population Density (persons per sq km):
Arunachal Pradesh: 17
Mizoram: 52
Rajasthan: 201
Assam: 398
Key Fact:Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest population density among all Indian states due to its large area (83,743 sq km) and small population.
Answer: Option 4 → Arunachal Pradesh
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Soil types and distribution

Q17. Which type of soil is most suitable for cotton cultivation in India?

  1. (a) Red soil
  2. (b) Black soil
  3. (c) Laterite soil
  4. (d) Alluvial soil
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Black soil

Cotton Cultivation in India
Cotton requires deep, well-drained soil with moisture retention capacity.
Black Soil (Regur Soil)characteristics:
• High clay content with excellent water retention
• Rich in calcium, magnesium, and iron
• Self-ploughing due to swelling and shrinking
Major cotton-producing states: Maharashtra, Gujarat, Telangana, Karnataka.
Black soil is ideal for cotton, also called 'Black Cotton Soil'.
Answer: Option 2 → Black soil
World Geography · Grasslands and natural regions

Q18. The Taiga Type region is best described as which major natural region?

  1. (a) Equatorial Lowland Region
  2. (b) Coniferous Forests Region
  3. (c) Cold Deserts Region
  4. (d) Cool Temperate Grassland Region
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Coniferous Forests Region

Taiga is the world's largest terrestrial biome.
Also calledBoreal ForestorConiferous Forest.
Located in subarctic regions (50°-70°N latitude).
Dominated by coniferous trees like pine, spruce, fir.
Found in Canada, Russia, Scandinavia, Alaska.
Answer: Option 2 → Coniferous Forests Region

Ancient History (2)

Post-Gupta Period · Chalukyas of Badami

Q19. Which Chalukya ruler defeated Harshavardhana on the banks of the Narmada?

  1. (a) Kirttivarman I
  2. (b) Mangalesha
  3. (c) Pulakesin II
  4. (d) Vikramaditya I
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pulakesin II

Pulakesin II (610-642 CE)was the greatest Chalukya ruler.
He defeatedHarshavardhanaon the banks ofNarmada Riveraround 618-620 CE.
This victory stopped Harsha's southern expansion and established Narmada as the boundary.
Chinese travelerHiuen Tsangmentions this defeat in his accounts.
Answer: Option 3 → Pulakesin II
Indus Valley Civilisation · Discovery and excavators

Q20. Who initiated a major archaeological or scientific study related to the Harappan site of Rakhigarhi in 2013?

  1. (a) Amrendra Nath
  2. (b) B.B. Lal
  3. (c) Vasant Shinde
  4. (d) R.S. Bisht
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Vasant Shinde

Rakhigarhiis one of the largest Harappan sites in India, located in Haryana.
In 2013,Vasant Shinde(Deccan College, Pune) initiated a major archaeological excavation and DNA study at Rakhigarhi .
This study included ancient DNA analysis of Harappan skeletons to understand the genetic origins of the Indus Valley Civilization.
Answer: Option 3 → Vasant Shinde

Computer (4)

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · File extensions and formats

Q21. In Windows 11, a file with the . msi file extension is primarily designed for which specific function?

  1. (a) Encoding multimedia audio and video streams
  2. (b) Executing the installation of software applications
  3. (c) Storing formatted Text, Image and Document content
  4. (d) Editing raster and vector images
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Executing the installation of software applications

. msistands forMicrosoft Installerpackage.
It is a Windows installer package format used specifically for installing, maintaining, and removing software applications.
MSI files contain installation instructions, files, and registry settings needed to install programs on Windows systems.
Answer: Option 2 → Executing the installation of software applications
Abbreviations and Miscellaneous · Computer abbreviations

Q22. The abbreviation BIOS stands for:

  1. (a) Board Information Operating Setup
  2. (b) Binary Input/Output Storage
  3. (c) Basic Input/Output System
  4. (d) Basic Internal Output Software
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Basic Input/Output System

BIOS (Basic Input/Output System)is firmware stored on a chip on the motherboard.
Key Functions:
• Initializes and tests hardware during boot (POST)
• Loads the operating system from storage
• Provides runtime services for OS and programs
Answer: Option 3 → Basic Input/Output System
Computer Fundamentals and History · Introduction and characteristics of computers

Q23. Unlike humans, a computer does not feel tired or bored while repeating the same task all day. This shows which characteristic?

  1. (a) Speed
  2. (b) Versatility
  3. (c) Intelligence
  4. (d) Diligence
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Diligence

Diligencemeans the ability to work continuously without getting tired, bored, or losing concentration.
Computers can perform repetitive tasks for hours without any decrease in accuracy or efficiency.
Unlike humans who experience fatigue and boredom, computers maintain consistent performance.
Answer: Option 4 → Diligence
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Popular operating systems

Q24. Maria wants to manage startup programs and services that run automatically when Windows 11 starts. Which Windows utility provides dedicated "Startup" and "Services" task for this purpose?

  1. (a) Disk Cleanup
  2. (b) MSConfig
  3. (c) Windows Defender
  4. (d) System Restore
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) MSConfig

MSConfig (System Configuration)is the dedicated utility for managing startup programs and services.
Key Features:
•Startup tab- Manages programs that run at Windows startup
•Services tab- Controls Windows services and their startup behavior
• Access via: Run → msconfig or Search → System Configuration
Other options:
Disk Cleanup - Removes temporary files
Windows Defender - Antivirus protection
System Restore - Creates restore points
Answer: Option 2 → MSConfig

Polity (5)

Union, Territory and Citizenship · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q25. If the Government of India revokes the citizenship of an individual for acting against the interests of the country, which constitutional or statutory provision empowers it to do so?

  1. (a) Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, 1955
  2. (b) Section 10 of the Citizenship Act, 1955
  3. (c) Article 5 of the Constitution
  4. (d) Article 11 of the Constitution
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Section 10 of the Citizenship Act, 1955

Section 10 of Citizenship Act, 1955deals with termination of citizenship.
Government can revoke citizenship if person:
- Obtained citizenship by fraud/false representation
- Showed disloyalty to Constitution
- Unlawfully traded/communicated with enemy during war
- Engaged in activities against sovereignty/integrity of India
Other Options:
Section 6A: Special provisions for Assam migrants
Article 5: Citizenship at commencement of Constitution
Article 11: Parliament's power to regulate citizenship by law
Answer: Option 2 → Section 10 of the Citizenship Act, 1955
Local Government · 74th Amendment - urban local bodies

Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the 74th Amendment Act of 1992.
1. It has added a new Part IX-A to the Constitution of India.
2. The Act has also added a new 10th Schedule to the Constitution.
3. The Act provides for the constitution of three types of municipalities in every state.
4. It consists of provisions from Articles 243-P to 243-ZG.
Which of the abo ve statements are correct?

  1. (a) 2 and 3 only
  2. (b) 1, 2, and 3 only
  3. (c) 1, 3, and 4 only
  4. (d) 2 and 4 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1, 3, and 4 only

74th Amendment Act, 1992 - Urban Local Bodies
Statement 1:Added Part IX-A to Constitution ✓
Deals with municipalities (Articles 243-P to 243-ZG)
Statement 2:Added 10th Schedule ✗
10th Schedule = Anti-Defection Law (52nd Amendment)
74th Amendment added12th Schedule(18 subjects)
Statement 3:Three types of municipalities ✓
Nagar Panchayat, Municipal Council, Municipal Corporation
Statement 4:Articles 243-P to 243-ZG ✓
Part IX-A contains these 18 articles
Answer: Option 3 → 1, 3, and 4 only
Judiciary · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q27. The first E-Lok Adalat was held in which year in India?

  1. (a) 2014
  2. (b) 2012
  3. (c) 2020
  4. (d) 2016
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2020

E-Lok Adalat is an online dispute resolution platform.
The first E-Lok Adalat was conducted in2020during the COVID-19 pandemic.
It was launched by the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) to ensure justice delivery during lockdown.
Answer: Option 3 → 2020
Union, Territory and Citizenship · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q28. Which provision in Part II of the Constitution defines one basis for citizenship at the commencement, specifically that the person’s either parent was born in India?

  1. (a) Article 5
  2. (b) Article 6
  3. (c) Article 8
  4. (d) Article 9
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 5

Article 5defines citizenship at commencement of Constitution.
Key provision: Person domiciled in India AND
- Born in India, OR
- Either parent born in India, OR
- Ordinarily resident for 5+ years
Article 6: Migration from Pakistan
Article 8: Overseas citizens of Indian origin
Article 9: Voluntary acquisition of foreign citizenship
Answer: Option 1 → Article 5

Q29. The Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019, provides citizenship to individuals belonging to which communities if they entered India before 31st December 2014 from Pakistan or Afghanistan or Bangladesh ?

  1. (a) Hindu, Muslim, Jain, Parsi
  2. (b) Muslim, Christian, Parsi, Sikh
  3. (c) Sikh, Christian, Hindu, Jain only
  4. (d) Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, Christian
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, Christian

Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA), 2019
Provides citizenship to persecuted minorities from Pakistan, Afghanistan, Bangladesh who entered India before 31st December 2014.
Six communities covered:
Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, Christian
Note: Muslim community is NOT included in CAA 2019.
Answer: Option 4 → Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, Christian

Modern History (3)

Advent of Europeans and British Expansion · Battles of Plassey and Buxar

Q30. Which battle is regarded as the turning point that led to British political control in Bengal and opened the path for British expansion in India?

  1. (a) Battle of Buxar
  2. (b) Battle of Wandiwash
  3. (c) Battle of Plassey
  4. (d) Third Carnatic War
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Battle of Plassey

Battle of Plassey (1757)
Fought between: British East India Company (Robert Clive) vs Siraj- ud -Daulah (Nawab of Bengal)
Key Point: Mir Jafar's betrayal led to British victory
Result: British gained political control over Bengal
Significance: First major British territorial control in India, opened path for expansion
Answer: Option 3 → Battle of Plassey
Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Anti-caste and depressed-class movements

Q31. Which of the following social reformers established the ‘ Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha’ in 1924?

  1. (a) B R Ambedkar
  2. (b) Jyotirao Phule
  3. (c) Baba Amte
  4. (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) B R Ambedkar

Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha (1924)
Founded by:Dr. B.R. Ambedkarin Bombay (Mumbai)
Purpose: Welfare organization for uplifting the depressed classes and promoting education among untouchables.
Key Activities: Provided educational facilities, hostels, and employment guidance for marginalized communities.
Answer: Option 1 → B R Ambedkar
Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Books and authors of the modern period

Q32. The book “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India”, which compiled evidence from British official sources to explain India’s economic drain, was authored by whom?

  1. (a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
  2. (b) M. G. Ranade
  3. (c) Dadabhai Naoroji
  4. (d) R. C. Dutt
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Dadabhai Naoroji

"Poverty and Un-British Rule in India" (1901)
Authored by Dadabhai Naoroji, the 'Grand Old Man of India'.
Key F a cts:
- Compiled evidence from British official records
- Explained theDrain of Wealth Theory
- Showed how British rule impoverished India economically
Answer: Option 3 → Dadabhai Naoroji

Physics (1)

Q33. Which layer of the Earth plays the primary role in generating the planet’s magnetic field?

  1. (a) Mantle
  2. (b) Crust
  3. (c) Outer core
  4. (d) Inner core
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Outer core

Earth's Magnetic Field Generation
The outer core is liquid iron-nickel layer.
Convection currents in this molten metal create electric currents.
These electric currents generate Earth's magnetic field ( geodynamo effect).
Inner core: solid, no fluid motion.
Mantle & Crust: non-metallic, cannot generate magnetic field.
Answer: Option 3 → Outer core

Medieval History (1)

Delhi Sultanate · Sultanate literature and scholars

Q34. Amir Khusrau, the famous historian, said about a particular language that 'common people do not know it, only the Brahmanas do'. Which of the following languages did the historian talk about?

  1. (a) Palli
  2. (b) Sanskrit
  3. (c) Hindu
  4. (d) Urdu
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sanskrit

Amir Khusrau's Statement Analysis
Amir Khusrau (1253-1325 CE) was a renowned poet and scholar in the Delhi Sultanate period.
He observed that Sanskrit was the language of the learned Brahmanas and scholars, not commonly spoken by ordinary people.
During medieval India, Sanskrit was primarily used for religious texts, literature, and scholarly works.
Common people spoke regional languages (Prakrit, Apabhramsha derivatives).
Answer: Option 2 → Sanskrit

Chemistry (2)

Structure of Atom · Discovery of electron, proton and neutron

Q35. Who is credited with the discovery of the electron?

  1. (a) Albert Einstein
  2. (b) Marie Curie
  3. (c) Ernest Rutherford
  4. (d) J.J. Thomson
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) J.J. Thomson

Discovery of Electron
J.J. Thomson discovered the electron in 1897.
He conducted cathode ray tube experiments.
Proved cathode rays were negatively charged particles.
Named them 'electrons' - first subatomic particle discovered.
Answer: Option 4 → J.J. Thomson
Acids, Bases and Salts · Neutralisation reaction

Q36. Which option correctly completes the general word equation for a neutralisation reaction?
Base + Acid → ________ + ________

  1. (a) Salt +Carbon Dioxide
  2. (b) Metal +Water
  3. (c) Metal +Carbon Dioxide
  4. (d) Salt + Water
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Salt + Water

Neutralisation Reaction
Definition: Reaction between acid and base
General equation:
Base + Acid → Salt + Water
Example: NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H₂O
Key point: Always produces salt and water
Answer: Option 4 → Salt + Water

Economics (1)

Agriculture and Food Security · Rural development and rural credit

Q37. What is rural development concerned with?

  1. (a) Development of metropolitan areas
  2. (b) Expansion of industrial zones
  3. (c) Economic growth and social justice
  4. (d) Improvement of foreign trade relations
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Economic growth and social justice

Rural development focuses on improving the quality of life and economic well-being of people living in rural areas.
Key aspects include:
• Economic growth through agriculture, employment, infrastructure
• Social justice through education, healthcare, equality
It aims to reduce rural-urban disparities and ensure inclusive development.
Answer: Option 3 → Economic growth and social justice

Biology (1)

Plant Physiology and Morphology · Transport in plants (xylem, phloem)

Q38. Which plant tissue is responsible for transporting water from the roots to the leaves?

  1. (a) Phloem
  2. (b) Cortex
  3. (c) Epidermis
  4. (d) Xylem
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Xylem

Plant Transport System
Xylem:Transports water and minerals from roots to leaves (upward).
Phloem:Transports food from leaves to other parts (downward).
Cortex:Storage tissue in roots and stems.
Epidermis:Protective outer layer of plant.
Answer: Option 4 → Xylem
← 17 March 2026 Shift 3All shifts18 March 2026 Shift 2 →
📥 PDF of this paper (all subjects, English & Hindi): RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 previous year papers PDF · ▶ Attempt previous year papers as free online tests · 🏆 Free live mock tests · 📰 Daily current affairs quiz