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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 11 August 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 38 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 on 11 August 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Computer, Current Affairs, Medieval History, Polity, Geography, Modern History.

📚 38 questions🗓️ 11 August 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Computer (2) · Current Affairs (11) · Medieval History (1) · Polity (4) · Geography (4) · Modern History (3) · Chemistry (3) · Economics (3) · Static GK (5) · Ancient History (1) · Biology (1)

Computer (2)

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q1. Which of the following is primarily a system configuration tool rather than a direct visual element of the MS Windows desktop interface?

  1. (a) Taskbar
  2. (b) Start Menu
  3. (c) Control Panel
  4. (d) Recycle Bin
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Control Panel

Abbreviations and Miscellaneous · Computer abbreviations

Q2. Which of the following correctly pairs the abbreviation with its full form and primary function?

  1. (a) ASCII – American Standard Communication for Input and Interface – Used for graphic design
  2. (b) LAN – Local Area Network – Connects computers within a limited area
  3. (c) ASCII – Advanced System for Communication Interface – Used in LAN setup
  4. (d) CD – Central Disc – Stores operating system permanently
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) LAN – Local Area Network – Connects computers within a limited area

Current Affairs (11)

Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q3. The naval vessel ‘Tavasya’ launched in 2025 is classified as a:

  1. (a) Surveillance Ship
  2. (b) Ballistic Submarine
  3. (c) Stealth Frigate
  4. (d) Corvette
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Stealth Frigate

Defence and Security - Current · Security operations

Q4. On 7 May 2025, India conducted nationwide civil defence mock drills in how many districts, to boost emergency preparedness?

  1. (a) 200
  2. (b) 244
  3. (c) 290
  4. (d) 150
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 244

Reports, Indices and Rankings · National indices and rankings

Q5. Which Indian state topped the Fiscal Health Index 2025 released by NITI Aayog?

  1. (a) Karnataka
  2. (b) Maharashtra
  3. (c) Gujarat
  4. (d) Odisha
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Odisha

International Affairs and Summits · Global events and elections

Q6. Which event escalated the Israel–Iran conflict in June 2025?

  1. (a) Israeli preemptive strike on Iranian nuclear facilities
  2. (b) Collapse of the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPoA)
  3. (c) Iranian missile attack on Tel Aviv
  4. (d) Assassination of an Iranian general
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Israeli preemptive strike on Iranian nuclear facilities

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q7. Life expectancy in India rose from 58.6 years in 1990 to how many years in 2023 which is the highest recorded since the index began?

  1. (a) 72 years
  2. (b) 70 years
  3. (c) 75 years
  4. (d) 65 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 72 years

International Affairs and Summits · International organisations - current

Q8. Which three international organisations jointly organised a Trilateral Cooperation briefing on 26 February 2025 for health, trade and intellectual property (IP) diplomats based in Geneva?

  1. (a) WHO, WIPO and UNICEF
  2. (b) WHO, UNESCO and WTO
  3. (c) WHO, IMF and UNDP
  4. (d) WHO, WIPO and WTO
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) WHO, WIPO and WTO

Defence and Security - Current · Defence production, exports, policies and expos

Q9. Where is the Tata Aircraft Complex, inaugurated in October 2024 for manufacturing C-295 aircrafts, located?

  1. (a) Hyderabad
  2. (b) Chennai
  3. (c) Vadodara
  4. (d) Pune
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Vadodara

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q10. Which Indian organisation hosted the 19ᵗʰ India Digital Summit in January 2025, focusing on the digital ecosystem?

  1. (a) Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
  2. (b) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)
  3. (c) Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI)
  4. (d) National Association of Software and Service Companies (NASSCOM)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI)

International Affairs and Summits · Global events and elections

Q11. Which international body did Cambodia petition to resolve its border dispute with Thailand in 2025?

  1. (a) United Nations Security Council
  2. (b) International Court of Justice
  3. (c) World Trade Organization
  4. (d) ASEAN Regional Forum
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) International Court of Justice

Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Books released

Q12. Who authored the book 'AI on Trial' that was released in April 2025?

  1. (a) Sujeet Kumar and Tauseef Alam
  2. (b) Himanshu Roy
  3. (c) Bandaru Dattatreya
  4. (d) Manohar Lal Khattar and Himanshu Dhuliya
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sujeet Kumar and Tauseef Alam

Defence and Security - Current · Defence personnel, firsts and ceremonial events

Q13. Announced in 2025, which decommissioned Indian Navy ship will be turned into an underwater museum?

  1. (a) INS Visakhapatnam
  2. (b) INS Kalvari
  3. (c) INS Guldar
  4. (d) INS Nilgiri
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) INS Guldar

Medieval History (1)

Delhi Sultanate · Sultanate administration and iqta system

Q14. Which of the following was the military department during the reign of Alauddin Khilji?

  1. (a) Diwan-i-wizarat
  2. (b) Diwan-i-insha
  3. (c) Diwan-i-risalat
  4. (d) Diwan-i-arz
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Diwan-i-arz

Polity (4)

Local Government · 73rd Amendment - Panchayati Raj

Q15. What is the minimum age required to contest elections to Panchayats as per Article 243F?

  1. (a) 21 years
  2. (b) 30 years
  3. (c) 18 years
  4. (d) 25 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 21 years

Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Financial relations

Q16. Which of the following parts of the Indian Constitution deals with financial relations between the Centre and the States?

  1. (a) Part XIII
  2. (b) Part XII
  3. (c) Part X
  4. (d) Part XI
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Part XII

Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Co-operative societies (Part IXB)

Q17. Which of the following Parts of the Constitution was amended by the 97ᵗʰ Amendment to promote co-operative societies?

  1. (a) Part IXB
  2. (b) Part XII
  3. (c) Part XI
  4. (d) Part IXA
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Part IXB

Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Preamble - amendment and judicial views

Q18. Which of the following Amendments added the words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' to the Preamble?

  1. (a) 39ᵗʰ
  2. (b) 44ᵗʰ
  3. (c) 24ᵗʰ
  4. (d) 42ⁿᵈ
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 42ⁿᵈ

Geography (4)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Islands (Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep)

Q19. Which of the following best explains why the Lakshadweep Islands have low biodiversity compared to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands?

  1. (a) Higher altitude and colder temperatures
  2. (b) Higher human population density
  3. (c) Volcanic origin and infertile soil
  4. (d) Smaller land area and absence of forests
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Smaller land area and absence of forests

World Geography · Islands of the world

Q20. [April 2025] New Caledonia, which was in headlines for protests over nickel mining and independence debates, is a territory of which country?

  1. (a) New Zealand
  2. (b) United Kingdom
  3. (c) France
  4. (d) Australia
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) France

India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Coal, petroleum and natural gas fields

Q21. Which Indian state had the largest coal reserve in the fiscal year 2023-24, as per the Ministry of Coal data?

  1. (a) Jharkhand
  2. (b) Telangana
  3. (c) Odisha
  4. (d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Odisha

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Neighbouring countries and border states

Q22. Which of the following states shares its border with Nepal?

  1. (a) Odisha
  2. (b) Himachal Pradesh
  3. (c) Bihar
  4. (d) Meghalaya
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bihar

Modern History (3)

Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Organisations and their founders

Q23. Who founded the Servants of India Society to promote national education and social reform in India?

  1. (a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
  2. (b) Bipin Chandra Pal
  3. (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  4. (d) SN Banerjee
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q24. Which Act first allowed Indian members to discuss the budget in legislative councils?

  1. (a) Government of India Act, 1858
  2. (b) Indian Councils Act, 1892
  3. (c) Indian Councils Act, 1861
  4. (d) Indian Councils Act, 1909
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Indian Councils Act, 1892

Revolt of 1857 · Consequences and Queen's Proclamation

Q25. The Revolt of 1857 created which of the following negative consequences in Indian society?

  1. (a) Weakening of tribal and peasants’ movements
  2. (b) Decline of Indian languages and culture
  3. (c) Decline of Indian handicrafts industries
  4. (d) Distrust between Hindu and Muslim communities
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Distrust between Hindu and Muslim communities

Chemistry (3)

Carbon and its Compounds · Biomolecules - chemistry (carbohydrates, proteins, fats)

Q26. Amylopectin is a branched-chain polysaccharide composed of glucose units linked primarily by ________.

  1. (a) β-1,6-glycosidic bonds
  2. (b) β-1,4-glycosidic bonds
  3. (c) α-1,4-glycosidic bonds
  4. (d) α-1,2-glycosidic bonds
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) α-1,4-glycosidic bonds

Carbon and its Compounds · Functional groups

Q27. Which general molecular structure characterises the class of organic compounds known as diazonium compounds or diazonium salts?

  1. (a) R-C≡N
  2. (b) R-N₂⁺ X ⁻
  3. (c) R-CO-NR'R"
  4. (d) R₂C=NR'
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) R-N₂⁺ X ⁻

Environmental Chemistry · Air quality management (AQI, NAAQS, NCAP, GRAP)

Q28. Which of the following programs was launched in 2019 by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) to improve air quality in 131 cities (Non-attainment Cities and Million Plus Cities) in 24 States/UTs?

  1. (a) National Association of Clean Air Agencies
  2. (b) National Clean Air Programme
  3. (c) Swach Vayu Survekshan
  4. (d) Air Quality Forecasting Systems
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) National Clean Air Programme

Economics (3)

Money and Banking · Commercial banks and bank nationalisation

Q29. When was the Bank of Madras established as the third Presidency Bank in India?

  1. (a) 1857
  2. (b) 1843
  3. (c) 1840
  4. (d) 1863
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1843

Economics Miscellaneous · Economic reform committees

Q30. Direct Tax reforms have been part of India’s fiscal consolidation strategy. Which committee recommended the simplification of direct taxes in post-liberalisation India?

  1. (a) Narasimham Committee
  2. (b) Dutt Committee
  3. (c) Tarapore Committee
  4. (d) Kelkar Committee
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Kelkar Committee

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Energy and power sector schemes

Q31. What does UDAY stand for in the context of power distribution companies?

  1. (a) Urban Distribution Action Yojana
  2. (b) Utility Development and Assistance Yojana
  3. (c) Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana
  4. (d) Uninterrupted Domestic Assurance Yojana
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana

Static GK (5)

Dances · Tribal dances

Q32. Which of the following is a tribal dance form of India?

  1. (a) Bhangra
  2. (b) Kathak
  3. (c) Ghusadi
  4. (d) Lavani
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ghusadi

Sports · Khelo India Games editions

Q33. In which state was the 7ᵗʰ Khelo India Youth Games held in 2025?

  1. (a) Maharashtra
  2. (b) Gujarat
  3. (c) Haryana
  4. (d) Bihar
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bihar

Space, Defence and Technology · Science and technology missions and schemes

Q34. What is the primary objective of India's 'Bharat 6G Vision' launched in March 2023?

  1. (a) To replace 5G technology by 2025
  2. (b) To import 6G infrastructure from developed countries
  3. (c) To commercialise 6G services exclusively in urban areas
  4. (d) To establish India as a global leader in 6G technology by 2030
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To establish India as a global leader in 6G technology by 2030

Static GK Miscellaneous · Miscellaneous facts

Q35. Ikea, which received the government approval for its ₹10,500 crore FDI proposal in 2013 to set up 10 stores with allied infrastructure over 10 years, is a ____________.

  1. (a) Chinese company
  2. (b) German company
  3. (c) Swedish company
  4. (d) American company
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Swedish company

Dances · Folk dances by state

Q36. Which of the following terms is used to refer to the designated female devotees who enact the Lai Haraoba dance in Manipur, India?

  1. (a) Pujarin
  2. (b) Maibis
  3. (c) Maibas
  4. (d) Jogins
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Maibis

Ancient History (1)

Gupta Empire · Gupta rulers

Q37. The Eran stone inscription states that Samudragupta was chosen as king by his father because of his ______.

  1. (a) devotion, righteous conduct, and valour
  2. (b) wealth and popularity
  3. (c) age and birthright
  4. (d) support from other kings
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) devotion, righteous conduct, and valour

Biology (1)

Diseases, Immunity and Health · Genetic disorders

Q38. Which disease is caused by the accumulation of lipids in brain cells due to the deficiency or inactivation of lipid digesting enzymes?

  1. (a) Tay-Sachs disease
  2. (b) Parkinson’s disease
  3. (c) Huntington’s disease
  4. (d) Alzheimer’s disease
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tay-Sachs disease

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