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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 12 August 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 39 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 on 12 August 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Geography, Modern History, Computer, Economics, Current Affairs, Polity.

📚 39 questions🗓️ 12 August 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Geography (4) · Modern History (4) · Computer (3) · Economics (4) · Current Affairs (11) · Polity (5) · Ancient History (1) · Medieval History (1) · Static GK (3) · Chemistry (1) · Physics (2)

Geography (4)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Coastal plains

Q1. Which of the following is a feature of the Eastern Coastal Plain of India?

  1. (a) Wider and formed by alluvial deposits
  2. (b) Narrow and rocky
  3. (c) Presence of numerous estuaries
  4. (d) Located between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Wider and formed by alluvial deposits

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Neighbouring countries and border states

Q2. The Gulf of Mannar lies between:

  1. (a) India and Maldives
  2. (b) Sri Lanka and Maldives
  3. (c) India and Sri Lanka
  4. (d) mainland India and Andaman Islands
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) India and Sri Lanka

India - Agriculture · Land use pattern and land resources

Q3. As per the Ministry of Agriculture data from 1950–51 to 2014–15, which land use category in India has shown a declining trend?

  1. (a) Forest area
  2. (b) Barren and wasteland
  3. (c) Area under non-agricultural use
  4. (d) Net sown area
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Barren and wasteland

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Neighbouring countries and border states

Q4. Which of the following countries does NOT share a land border with India?

  1. (a) Sri Lanka
  2. (b) Myanmar
  3. (c) China
  4. (d) Afghanistan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sri Lanka

Modern History (4)

Towards Independence and Partition · Integration of princely states

Q5. Which leader played the most crucial role in integrating princely states into India post-independence?

  1. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. (b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
  3. (c) BR Ambedkar
  4. (d) Subhas Chandra Bose
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Social reform laws (sati, widow remarriage, child marriage)

Q6. Which of the following was the objective of the law enacted in 1856 in India?

  1. (a) Abolition of caste system
  2. (b) Legalising widow remarriage
  3. (c) Banning of child labour
  4. (d) Temple entry for Shudras
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Legalising widow remarriage

British Administration and Policies · Economic impact and drain of wealth

Q7. The Indian handicraft industry suffered significant decline under colonial economic policies. What was a major reason for the decline of Indian handicrafts during British rule?

  1. (a) Lack of domestic demand
  2. (b) Influx of machine-made British goods
  3. (c) Environmental degradation
  4. (d) Rise of Indian industry
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Influx of machine-made British goods

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q8. Which Act first created the position of a Governor-General of India with civil and military authority?

  1. (a) Pitt’s India Act
  2. (b) Charter Act 1833
  3. (c) Regulating Act
  4. (d) Government of India Act 1858
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Charter Act 1833

Computer (3)

Computer Organisation and Hardware · Input devices

Q9. Which of the following is a small hand-held pointing device that controls the two-dimensional movement of the cursor on a screen?

  1. (a) Mouse
  2. (b) Keyboard
  3. (c) Scanner
  4. (d) Touchscreen
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mouse

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q10. Which desktop element in Windows displays system notifications, date and time, and background apps status?

  1. (a) File Explorer
  2. (b) Start Menu
  3. (c) Notification Area
  4. (d) Control Panel
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Notification Area

Emerging Technologies and E-Governance · E-governance and Digital India

Q11. What is the primary goal of the Indian government's Bhashini project?

  1. (a) To develop a new programming language for Indian developers
  2. (b) To digitise ancient Indian manuscripts
  3. (c) To create a multilingual AI platform for real-time translation among Indian languages
  4. (d) To establish a national database of dialects
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To create a multilingual AI platform for real-time translation among Indian languages

Economics (4)

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Sustainable Development Goals

Q12. How many total Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were adopted at the United Nations Sustainable Development Summit in New York in September 2015?

  1. (a) 17
  2. (b) 16
  3. (c) 15
  4. (d) 18
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 17

Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q13. Which economic system dominated India on the eve of independence (in 1947)?

  1. (a) Socialist planned economy
  2. (b) Import substitution industrialisation
  3. (c) Colonial agrarian economy
  4. (d) Global free market
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Colonial agrarian economy

Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q14. Which sector(s) employed the largest share of the working population in India on the eve of independence?

  1. (a) Tertiary sector
  2. (b) Primary sector
  3. (c) Both tertiary and secondary sectors
  4. (d) Secondary sector
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Primary sector

Money and Banking · Monetary policy tools (repo, reverse repo, CRR, SLR, MSF, bank rate)

Q15. Which of the following instruments is primarily used by the RBI for monetary policy implementation in the post 1991 reform era?

  1. (a) Direct taxes
  2. (b) Tariff rates
  3. (c) Export incentives
  4. (d) Repo rate
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Repo rate

Current Affairs (11)

International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q16. By what year is the India-UK FTA expected to be fully implemented?

  1. (a) 2027
  2. (b) 2030
  3. (c) 2026
  4. (d) 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2026

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space sector policy, industry and start-ups - current

Q17. Which Indian space tech startup along with Google launched India's first private satellite constellation?

  1. (a) Pixxel
  2. (b) Udaan
  3. (c) Livspace
  4. (d) Ship Rocket
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Pixxel

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q18. What was India's Human Development Index (HDI) value in the 2025 UNDP report?

  1. (a) 0.700
  2. (b) 0.676
  3. (c) 0.690
  4. (d) 0.685
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 0.685

Art, Culture and Events - Current · Festivals and cultural events - current

Q19. Which important Sikh festival is on 5 November 2025?

  1. (a) Holi
  2. (b) Lohri
  3. (c) Baisakhi
  4. (d) Guru Nanak Jayanti
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Guru Nanak Jayanti

State News · State schemes and events

Q20. Which state government introduced the Drone Promotion and Utilisation Policy, 2025?

  1. (a) Odisha
  2. (b) Punjab
  3. (c) Madhya Pradesh
  4. (d) Jharkhand
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Madhya Pradesh

Sports - Current · Records and achievements

Q21. Which Indian relay team set a national record in the 4x100m event at the National Relay Carnival 2025?

  1. (a) Amiya Mallick, Mohammed Anas, Noah Nirmal Tom, Rajesh Ramesh
  2. (b) Srabani Nanda, Dutee Chand, Hima Das, Archana Suseendran
  3. (c) Gurindervir Singh, Animesh Kujur, Manikanta H, Amlan Borgohain
  4. (d) Gurindervir Singh, Animesh Kujur, Manikanta H, Amiya Mallick
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gurindervir Singh, Animesh Kujur, Manikanta H, Amlan Borgohain

International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q22. What was the theme of the IIAS-DARPG India Conference held in New Delhi in February 2025?

  1. (a) Strengthening Federal Structures
  2. (b) Innovations in Public Policy
  3. (c) Digital Transformation in Governance – Empowering Citizens and Reaching the Last Mile
  4. (d) Next Generation Administrative Reforms – Empowering Citizens and Reaching the Last Mile
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Next Generation Administrative Reforms – Empowering Citizens and Reaching the Last Mile

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q23. What is the purpose of the 'Melt and Pour' rule introduced in the DMI&SP Policy 2025?

  1. (a) Importing partially processed steel and finishing it domestically qualifies as “domestic”
  2. (b) Biometric authentication is required at smelting plants for traceability
  3. (c) Steel used in government-funded projects is completely manufactured in India
  4. (d) Steel exports must include documentation of Indian melting processes
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Steel used in government-funded projects is completely manufactured in India

Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q24. Which of the following Indian organisations successfully conducted the combat firing of the Multi-Influence Ground Mine (MIGM) in May 2025?

  1. (a) Indian Space Research Organisation and Indian Army
  2. (b) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited and Indian Air Force
  3. (c) Bharat Dynamics Limited and Indian Coast Guard
  4. (d) Defence Research and Development Organisation and Indian Navy
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Defence Research and Development Organisation and Indian Navy

Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q25. Which film won the Best Picture award at the 25ᵗʰ IIFA Awards in 2025?

  1. (a) Laapataa Ladies
  2. (b) Stree 2
  3. (c) Article 370
  4. (d) Bhool Bhulaiyaa 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Laapataa Ladies

Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q26. Which Indian city was announced by the global governing body WPA as the host of the 2025 Para Athletics World Championships?

  1. (a) Mumbai
  2. (b) New Delhi
  3. (c) Bengaluru
  4. (d) Chennai
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) New Delhi

Polity (5)

Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q27. Which level of government generally legislates on matters such as police, public health and agriculture in India?

  1. (a) Union Government
  2. (b) Inter-State Council
  3. (c) Local Bodies
  4. (d) State Legislatures
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) State Legislatures

Union, Territory and Citizenship · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q28. Which of the following Articles deals with the citizenship of people of Indian origin residing outside India?

  1. (a) Article 8
  2. (b) Article 9
  3. (c) Article 11
  4. (d) Article 7
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 8

Union Executive · President - powers (executive, legislative, veto, pardon, ordinance)

Q29. Which of the following is a discretionary power of the President of India?

  1. (a) Dissolving the Lok Sabha without advice
  2. (b) Giving assent to a Money Bill
  3. (c) Appointing the Chief Justice of India
  4. (d) Appointing a Prime Minister when no party has a clear majority
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Appointing a Prime Minister when no party has a clear majority

Union, Territory and Citizenship · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q30. Article 6 of the Constitution pertains to the citizenship of persons who migrated to India from which of the following territories?

  1. (a) Sri Lanka
  2. (b) Bangladesh
  3. (c) Pakistan
  4. (d) Myanmar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pakistan

Judiciary · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q31. Article 323B of the Constitution of India (added by the 42nd Amendment) empowers the Parliament to establish tribunals for adjudication of matters related to certain subjects. Which of the following matters is specifically covered under Article 323B?

  1. (a) Appointment of Supreme Court judges
  2. (b) Only industrial disputes between employers and workers
  3. (c) Recruitment and service conditions of public servants (civil services)
  4. (d) Matters such as taxation, foreign exchange, land reforms, etc., which can be assigned to tribunals by legislation
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Matters such as taxation, foreign exchange, land reforms, etc., which can be assigned to tribunals by legislation

Ancient History (1)

Post-Gupta Period · Pallavas

Q32. Which of the following administrative features was common to both Pallava and Pandya kingdoms?

  1. (a) Village assemblies were called Sabha and Ur
  2. (b) Rule by elected monarchs
  3. (c) Division of the kingdom into Mandalams and Nadus
  4. (d) Abolition of land revenue taxes
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Village assemblies were called Sabha and Ur

Medieval History (1)

Mughal Empire · Babur and his battles

Q33. The First Battle of Panipat was fought in 1526, replacing the Lodi Dynasty with Mughal rule in India. It was fought between Ibrahim Lodi and _____.

  1. (a) Akbar
  2. (b) Shah Jahan
  3. (c) Aurangzeb
  4. (d) Babar
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Babar

Static GK (3)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Puppetry and theatre forms

Q34. Kathputli is a traditional puppet show of which of the following Indian states?

  1. (a) Odisha
  2. (b) Assam
  3. (c) Rajasthan
  4. (d) Kerala
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rajasthan

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q35. In which northeastern state was the Hornbill Festival held with record participation in December 2024?

  1. (a) Meghalaya
  2. (b) Assam
  3. (c) Nagaland
  4. (d) Manipur
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Nagaland

Sports · Sports schemes and campaigns (Khelo India, Fit India)

Q36. The government initiative known as KIRTI, an acronym for Khelo India Rising Talent Identification, was inaugurated in ______.

  1. (a) 2025
  2. (b) 2022
  3. (c) 2023
  4. (d) 2024
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2024

Chemistry (1)

Chemistry Miscellaneous · Chemists and their discoveries

Q37. Harold C Urey was awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry, in 1934:

  1. (a) for the discovery of heavy hydrogen
  2. (b) for discovery in the chemistry of the transuranium elements
  3. (c) for the discovery and development of conductive polymers
  4. (d) for the development of the density-functional theory
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) for the discovery of heavy hydrogen

Physics (2)

Force and Laws of Motion · Impulse

Q38. Impulse is defined as _________.

  1. (a) rate of change of force
  2. (b) change in displacement
  3. (c) product of mass and velocity
  4. (d) product of force and time
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) product of force and time

Physics Miscellaneous · Physicists and their discoveries

Q39. In which year did Andre-Marie Ampère publish his magnum opus ‘Mathematical Theory of Electrodynamic Phenomena Deduced Solely from Experiments’?

  1. (a) 1811
  2. (b) 1818
  3. (c) 1827
  4. (d) 1833
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1827

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