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SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 15 September 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 23 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 on 15 September 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Static GK, Ancient History, Medieval History, Current Affairs, Geography, Biology.

📚 23 questions🗓️ 15 September 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Static GK (8) · Ancient History (1) · Medieval History (1) · Current Affairs (2) · Geography (3) · Biology (2) · Polity (3) · Physics (1) · Economics (2)

Static GK (8)

Monuments and Heritage · Temples and religious places

Q1. How many pairs of decorative wheels are found on the Konark Sun Temple chariot?

  1. (a) 10 pairs
  2. (b) 11 pairs
  3. (c) 12 pairs
  4. (d) 13 pairs
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 12 pairs

The Konark Sun Temple is designed as a colossal chariot with 24 wheels (12 pairs) pulled by 7 horses.
The 12 pairs symbolise the 12 months of the year.
Hence 12 pairs is correct.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Fairs and melas

Q2. Which of the following best captures the cultural essence and rituals of Baran’s Dol Mela in Rajasthan?

  1. (a) The fair opens with Dev Viman stunts by akhada artists and concludes with an Amavasya night immersion across the city.
  2. (b) Lord Shreeji and Raghunathji’s processions on Jaljhulani Gyaras attract traders from several states.
  3. (c) Known as Annapurna Gyaras , Baran’s Dol Mela is celebrated only in Madhya Pradesh after the monsoon harvest.
  4. (d) Held between Shravan and Ashwin, the event is led by monks in caves, separate from temple traditions.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Lord Shreeji and Raghunathji’s processions on Jaljhulani Gyaras attract traders from several states.

Baran’s Dol Mela in Rajasthan is famous for the grand processions of Lord Shreeji and Raghunathji on Jaljhulani Gyaras (Bhadrapada Shukla Ekadashi).
It attracts traders and pilgrims from across several states.
Option 1 confuses it with another fair, option 3 wrongly assigns it to MP, option 4 misstates the organisers .
Music and Musical Instruments · Musical instruments and exponents

Q3. Which of the following best reflects Kerala’s musical instrument heritage?

  1. (a) Ravana-Hatta originated in Kerala and spread northward
  2. (b) Kerala’s music uses only wind instruments like Turi and Kombu
  3. (c) Kerala’s instruments are recent and mostly Western-influenced
  4. (d) Drums like Timila and Maddalam are mentioned in Silappadikaram and still used today
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Drums like Timila and Maddalam are mentioned in Silappadikaram and still used today

Timila and Maddalam are traditional Kerala percussion instruments referenced in the ancient Tamil-Malayalam epic Silappadikaram and are still central to temple music ( Panchavadyam , Chenda Melam).
Ravana-Hatta originated in Rajasthan, not Kerala (option 1 wrong).
Kerala uses many instrument families besides wind (option 2 wrong).
Kerala’s instruments are ancient, not modern (option 3 wrong).
Sports · Athletics - events, rules and specifications

Q4. Why is fiberglass preferred over metal for making high jump bars?

  1. (a) Metal is too flexible for accurate performance
  2. (b) Fibreglass is light, flexible, and safer on impact
  3. (c) Metal bends permanently; fibreglass is rigid
  4. (d) Fibreglass is cheaper and easier to shape
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Fibreglass is light, flexible, and safer on impact

High-jump bars are made of fibreglass because it is lightweight, slightly flexible, and breaks/falls safely on contact without injuring the athlete.
Metal would be heavy, rigid, and dangerous on impact.
The choice is based on safety and performance, not cost.
Sports · Sports terminology

Q5. What is a "brace" in football?

  1. (a) Two consecutive wins
  2. (b) Two yellow cards
  3. (c) Scoring two goals in a match
  4. (d) Saving two penalties
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Scoring two goals in a match

In football, a ‘brace’ means a player scoring two goals in a single match.
Three goals = hat-trick; four = poker. It is unrelated to wins, cards, or penalties.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q6. Who wrote the novel Sahela Re?

  1. (a) Vasanti Muzumdar
  2. (b) Mrinal Pande
  3. (c) Priyanka Sarkar
  4. (d) Shubhangi Tiwari
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mrinal Pande

‘ Sahela Re’ is a celebrated Hindi novel written by Mrinal Pande, dealing with the world of Hindustani classical music and women performers.
None of the other listed names is the author.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q7. Consider the statements about Jhora:
1. It is danced in Kumaon by mixed circles of men and women during spring fairs.
2. The dance is accompanied primarily by the Hurka drum.
Which is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1 correct
  2. (b) Only 2 correct
  3. (c) Both 1 & 2 correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both 1 & 2 correct

Jhora is a popular folk dance of the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand.
Men and women dance together in circles during spring fairs (Vaisakhi, Sankranti). → 1 is correct.
It is traditionally accompanied by the Hurka (small drum). → 2 is correct.
Hence both are correct.
Indian Railways · Railway projects and technology (Kavach, DFC, high-speed rail)

Q8. How is Indian Railways cutting carbon emissions?

  1. (a) Return to coal
  2. (b) Shift to road freight
  3. (c) Electrify broad gauge & use renewables
  4. (d) End passenger services
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Electrify broad gauge & use renewables

Indian Railways is pursuing 100 % electrification of broad-gauge routes and large-scale adoption of solar/wind power to become net-zero by 2030.
Returning to coal or shifting freight to road would increase emissions; ending passenger services is unrelated.

Ancient History (1)

Gupta Empire · Gupta administration and economy

Q9. Which of the following correctly describes the Sarthavaha in Gupta dynasty’s administration?

  1. (a) Chief artisan overseeing temples and sculpture guilds.
  2. (b) Officer-in-charge of military recruitment.
  3. (c) Head of the trading guilds representing various trading communities.
  4. (d) Official supervising irrigation and waterworks.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Head of the trading guilds representing various trading communities.

In Gupta administration, ‘ Sarthavaha ’ referred to the head of trading guilds / caravan leaders representing various trading communities.
Other options describe different officials (artisans, military, irrigation) and are incorrect.

Medieval History (1)

Delhi Sultanate · Slave (Mamluk) dynasty

Q10. Arrange the following rulers of the Delhi Sultanate in the correct chronological order of their reigns, starting from the earliest:
1. Razia Sultan
2. Ghiyas ud din Balban
3. Qutb al-Din Aibak
4. Iltutmish

  1. (a) 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
  2. (b) 4 – 3 – 1 – 2
  3. (c) 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
  4. (d) 1 – 3 – 4 – 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 3 – 4 – 1 – 2

Qutb al-Din Aibak (1206–1210) → founder of Slave dynasty.
Iltutmish (1211–1236) → his son-in-law/successor.
Razia Sultan (1236–1240) → daughter of Iltutmish.
Ghiyas ud din Balban (1266–1287).
Correct order: 3 – 4 – 1 – 2.

Current Affairs (2)

International Affairs and Summits · International organisations - current

Q11. What is the primary purpose of the BRICS Startup Knowledge Hub launched in 2025?

  1. (a) Financial trade platform
  2. (b) Startup knowledge repository
  3. (c) Cultural archive
  4. (d) Capital control system
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Startup knowledge repository

The BRICS Startup Knowledge Hub launched in 2025 is designed as a centralized digital repository of startup ecosystem information, best practices and resources for BRICS nations.
It is not a trading, cultural or capital-control platform.
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q12. Who was honoured with the Padma Shri in 2025 for empowering women by teaching traditional Bengali folk percussion?

  1. (a) Gokul Chandra Das
  2. (b) Farooq Ahmad Mir
  3. (c) Shyam Bihari Agrawal
  4. (d) Sheen Kaaf Nizam
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Gokul Chandra Das

Gokul Chandra Das, a renowned Dhak (Bengali folk percussion) maestro, was conferred the Padma Shri in 2025 for empowering women by teaching them this traditionally male-dominated art.
The other listed awardees were recognised in different fields.

Geography (3)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Extreme points and area facts

Q13. India’s land area covers what percentage of the world’s total area?

  1. (a) 1.4%
  2. (b) 2.4%
  3. (c) 3.4%
  4. (d) 4.4%
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2.4%

India’s total geographical area is about 3.287 million sq km, which is approximately 2.4 % of the world’s total land area.
However, India accommodates about 17 % of the world’s population.
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Metallic minerals and mines

Q14. Which of the following district–state combinations is correctly matched with respect to iron ore reserves in India?

  1. (a) Singhbhum – Jharkhand
  2. (b) Mayurbhanj – Uttar Pradesh
  3. (c) Sundargarh – Meghalaya
  4. (d) Keonjhar – Rajasthan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Singhbhum – Jharkhand

Singhbhum district lies in Jharkhand and is a major iron ore producing region. ✓
Mayurbhanj is in Odisha (not UP).
Sundargarh is in Odisha (not Meghalaya).
Keonjhar is in Odisha (not Rajasthan).
Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Continental drift and plate tectonics

Q15. Match the geological feature with its primary plate boundary type:
1. Mid-ocean ridge
2. Mariana Trench
3. San Andreas Fault

  1. (a) 1-Divergent, 2-Convergent, 3-Transform
  2. (b) 1-Convergent, 2-Divergent, 3-Transform
  3. (c) 1-Transform, 2-Convergent, 3-Divergent
  4. (d) 1-Divergent, 2-Transform, 3-Convergent
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1-Divergent, 2-Convergent, 3-Transform

Mid-ocean ridges form where two plates move apart → Divergent.
Mariana Trench is formed by subduction of Pacific plate under Philippine plate → Convergent.
San Andreas Fault is where Pacific & North American plates slide past each other → Transform.
Hence 1-Divergent, 2-Convergent, 3-Transform.

Biology (2)

Cell - Structure and Function · Cell membrane and cell wall

Q16. Which of these biomolecules is an essential component of the plasma membrane?

  1. (a) Cellulose
  2. (b) Phospholipids
  3. (c) DNA
  4. (d) Glycogen
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Phospholipids

The plasma membrane is composed primarily of a phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins (fluid mosaic model).
Cellulose forms plant cell walls, DNA is genetic material, and glycogen is a storage carbohydrate.
Diseases, Immunity and Health · Health organisations and programmes

Q17. Consider the following statements about the eSanjeevani initiative:
Statement 1: eSanjeevani OPD enables remote doctor consultations for citizens via online mode.
Statement 2: eSanjeevani AB-HWC connects citizens with Ayushman Bharat Health and Wellness Centers (AB-HWC).
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only Statement 1 is correct
  2. (b) Only Statement 2 is correct
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Statement 1 is correct – eSanjeevani OPD is the citizen-to-doctor tele-consultation service.
Statement 2 is correct – eSanjeevani AB-HWC is the doctor-to-doctor service linking Health & Wellness Centres with hub physicians.
Hence both statements are correct.

Polity (3)

Amendments and Important Articles · Major constitutional amendments

Q18. Which Constitutional Amendment Act is often referred to as the “Mini-Constitution” due to the extensive changes it introduced to the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
  2. (b) 52nd Amendment Act, 1985
  3. (c) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
  4. (d) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976

The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 enacted during the Emergency made sweeping changes to the Constitution – added ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, ‘Integrity’ to the Preamble, Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A) etc.
Due to such extensive modifications it is called the Mini-Constitution.
The 44th, 52nd, and 86th Amendments addressed narrower areas.
Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q19. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is Hindi in Devanagari script declared as the official language of the Union?

  1. (a) Article 348
  2. (b) Article 343
  3. (c) Article 344
  4. (d) Article 351
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 343

Article 343(1) declares Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union.
Article 348 deals with language in the Supreme Court / High Courts.
Article 344 deals with the Official Language Commission.
Article 351 directs the Union to promote the spread of Hindi.
Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q20. Consider the following statements:
1. Parliament can create All India Services with approval of Rajya Sabha.
2. Article 312 mentions 'Security Services' as part of All India Services.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

Statement 1 is correct – Article 312 empowers Parliament to create new All India Services if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by 2/3 majority.
Statement 2 is incorrect – Article 312 specifically mentions IAS and IPS; ‘Security Services’ are not part of the AIS framework.
Hence only Statement 1 is correct.

Physics (1)

Heat and Thermodynamics · Latent heat and change of state

Q21. Why is it generally more severe to be burnt by steam at 100°C than by boiling water at 100°C?

  1. (a) Steam is hotter than boiling water.
  2. (b) Steam contains more latent heat of vaporization.
  3. (c) Steam has a higher specific heat capacity.
  4. (d) Steam molecules are moving faster.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Steam contains more latent heat of vaporization.

Steam at 100 °C carries additional 2260 J/g of latent heat of vaporisation , which is released when it condenses on the skin to water at 100 °C.
This extra energy makes steam burns more severe than burns from boiling water.
Steam is not hotter, nor does it have higher specific heat per se.

Economics (2)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q22. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:
Assertion (A): Global Ease of Doing Business ( EoDB ) indicators excluded informal sectors.
Reason (R): Informal enterprises are difficult to measure consistently across nations.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Assertion is true – EoDB indicators were based on formal-sector regulations and excluded informal enterprises.
Reason is also true – lack of comparable data and definitions for informal firms across countries makes consistent measurement difficult.
Reason correctly explains the exclusion.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q23. Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): The Mahalanobis strategy prioritized heavy industries and capital goods.
Reason (R): It was believed that investing in such industries would create long-term capacity for growth.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Assertion is true – P. C. Mahalanobis ’ Second Five-Year-Plan model gave priority to heavy and capital-goods industries.
Reason is true – investment in these sectors was expected to create long-term productive capacity and self-sustained growth.
Reason explains the assertion correctly.
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